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335 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Pulmonary lesions & lymphadenitis; esp in AIDS patients; resistant to many antitubercuosis drugs
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Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
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Gram-negative coccobacillus; meningitis in unvaccinated young children (HIB), epiglottitis, otitis media
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Haemophilus influenza
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Gram-negative cocci in pairs; meningococcal meningitis (primarily in ages 4-40; outbreaks in school settings)
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Neisseria meningitis
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GPB, aerobic, non-sporeforming; food poisoning, meningitis
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Listeria monocytogenes
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GPB, aerobic, sporeforming; anthrax
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Bacillus anthracis
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Cocci bacilli (Atypical, obligate inracellular parasites); ID by antigen or antibody detection from blood or biopsy; Rocky Mountain spotted fever, murine typhus, scrub typhus, rickettsialpox - species specific and vector specific
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Rickettsia spp.
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Atypical bacteria; no cell wall; not cultured on typical agar media; lab dignosis by Ag or Ab detection by special request "primary atypical pneumonia" (walking pneumonia)
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Mycoplasma pneumonia
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Gram-negative cocci in pairs; gonorrhea (urethritis, endocervicitis); septic arthritis
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Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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Gram-negative, atypical bacteria; tissue cell cultur; lab diagnosis by Ag detection; leading casue (50%) STD "non-gonococcal urethritis/cervicitis"
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Chlamydia trachomatis
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Non-staining spirochete, syphilis; ID by immunodiagnostic, darkfield, immunofluorescence microscopy
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Treponema pallidum
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Spirochete, leptospirosis
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Leptospira interrogans
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Spirochete, Lyme disease, tick-borne
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Borellia burgdorferi
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Anaerobic, food poisoning, gangrene
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Clostridium perfringens
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GNB, fecal; Opportunisitic bacteremia & UTI, esp in burn patients
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Enterobacter
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Types of patients when considering the determination of a Pathogen
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Normal Patient b. Patients with compromising or predisposing factors
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Predisposing factors to consider in patients
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Surgery or trauma b. Immunoincompetence or Immunosuppression (cancer, AIDS) c. Diabetic d. Alcoholism or drug use e. Pregnancy
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Modes of infection acquisition
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Community acquired b. Hospital acquired (Nosocomial infection)
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Geographic distribution and/or "work" environment
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Insect vectors/climate b. Farm & ranch c. Construction work (Legionaires Disease)
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Gram-Positive cocci spp
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Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Enterococcus
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Gram-negative cocci spp
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Neisseria
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Gram-positive bacilli, aerobic, non-sporeforming
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Corynebacterium
Listeria monocytogenes |
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Gram-negative bacilli (Enteric)
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Escherichia Klebsiella
Enterobacter Slamonella Shigella Citrobacter Proteus Providencia |
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Gram-negative bacilli (curved)
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Vibrio cholera
Vibrio paraheolyticus Campylobacter (microaerophilic) Helicobacter pylori |
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Gram-negative bacilli
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Pseudomonas Aeromonas Plesiomoas Acinetobacter
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Gram-negative bacilli (anaerobic)
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Bacteroides
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Gram-negative bacilli cocco
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Haemophilus influenzae (fulminating)
Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough) |
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Bacteria needing special culture or exam (nonstaining by Gram's method)
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Mycobacterium (acid-fast)Chlamydia (ELISA)Trichomonas (wet prep)
Treponema (immunodiagnostics) Legionella(immunodiagnostics) Rickettsia (immunodiagnostics) |
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Bacteria needing Immunodiagnostic testing
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Treponema
Legionella Rickettsia |
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Fungi (YEASTS)
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Candida (gram-positive, KOH)Cryptococcus (India ink wet prep, antigen detection)
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Fungi (MOULDS)
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Histoplasma (Ag detection)
Coccidioides (Ag detection) Sporothrix Blastomyces Paracoccidioides Microsporum Epidermophyton Trichophyton |
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Gram-positive bacilli
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Corynebacterium (aerobic, non-sporeforming)
Listeria monocytogenes (aerobic, non-sporeforming) Bacillus (aerobic sporeforming)Clostridium (anaerobic, sporeforming) |
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Gram-positive bacilli, anaerobic, sporeforming
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Clostridium
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Gram-positive bacilli, aerobic, sporeforming
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Bacillus
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Etiologic agent of gastroenteritis due to the ingestion of contaminated seafood (especially shellfish); a major cause of gastroenteritis in Japan and the South Pacific
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Vibrio parahemolyticus
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Microaerophilic, GNB curved, characterized by gastroenteritis caused from contaminated or undercooked chicken or raw milk and nonchlorinated water. equal or 2nd to Salmonella in the USA
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Campylobacter jejuni
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GNB, intial invasion and multiplication w/in intestinal membrane follwed by invasion of bloodstream; ivasion/localization in gallbladder, spleen, liver and bones; rose spots appear on the skin and may become necrotic.
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Salmonella typhi
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GNB, gastroenteritis from contaminated poultry and reptiles; invasion of intestinal mucous membran but w/o deeper inasion or bloodstrea invasion
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Salmonella enteritidis
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What family do the gram-neg bacilli enteric belong to?
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Enterobacteriaceae
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Superficial skin infectio characterized by small pustules followed by thin crust over the area
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Impetigo - Invasive tissue infections of Staph aureus
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Infection of the hair follicle
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folliculitis - Invasive tissue infections of Staph aureus
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Deep seated infections in and around the hair follicle
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Furuncles - Invasive tissue infections of Staph aureus
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Predominant normal flora of the skin and the most comon coagulase negative staphylococcus (CNS); causes bloodstream infections - including endocarditis.
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Staphylococcus epideridis
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Second most frequent ause of UTI in women of child-bearing age; Coag Negative Staphylococcus (CNS)
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Staphylococcus saprophyticus
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Group A beta Streptococcus that causes skin infections (impetigo, cellulitis,erysipelas; Necrotizing fascitis and Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome; Acute exudative pharyngitis
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Streptococcus pyogenes, group A
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Streptococcal gangrene, invasive cellulitis, "flesh-eating bacteria" is also known as?
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Necrotizing fascitis
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Post-streptococcal complications are?
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Rheuatic fever Acute glomerulonephritis
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Characterized by the rapid destruction of muscle and fat tissue with high fever and prominent pain; highly invasive and life threatening
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Necrotizing fascitis
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Characterized by a sudden onset of fever, sore throat, and exudative tonsillitis or pharygitis with enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
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Acute exudative pharyngitis (Streptococcus pyogenes group A)
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Characterized by skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas and may be accompanied by scarlet fever
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Streptococcus pyogenes, group A
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Frequent cause of surgical wound infections and nosocomial UTI and a moderate cause of bacteremia
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Enterococcus faecalis
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What is the number 1 GNB (curved) problem in the world with a mortality rate up to 50% if untreated?
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Vibrio cholerae
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This bug has multi-drug resistant strains that have been reported with increased frequency, and is Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE)
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Enterococcus faecalis
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GPC in pairs; large mucoid alpha-hemolytic colonies; leading cause of Sinusitis and Otitis media; 50-90% cause of Lobar and bronchial pneumonia
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Streptococcus pneumoniae
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What is the most frequent isolate (74%) form of Shigella spp that is Serogroup D
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Shigella sonnei
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E. coli known for infant diarrhea w/ high fatality rate, adherence and dissolve microvilli; outbreaks in newborne nurseries and infant summer diarreah with mucus
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EPEC - Enterophathogenic E. coli
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E. coli known for diarrhea and dysentery, invasion of intestinal epithelium, shiga toxin and endotoxin
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EIEC - Enteroinvasive E. coli
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E. coli known for severe watery diarrhea due to cholera-like toxins, esp. in travelers (Travelers diarrhea)
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ETEC - Enterotoxic E. coli
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E. coli known for hemorrhagic colitis - bloody diarrhea w/o fever, verotoxins; may cause hemolytic uremic syndrome; predominantly due to serotype O157:H7
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EHEC - Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
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Name the two catagories of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Primary tb b. Secondary tb
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Pulmonary lesios and lymphadenitis commonly seen in AIDS patients; resistant to many antituberculosis drugs
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Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
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Catagory of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that is mild and asymptomatic with bacteria contained within tubercles that become calcified during spontaneous healing
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Primary TB
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(UTI) (cystitis) causes 75-85% of all UTI's mostly in outpatient females
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Escherichia coli
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Characterized by Severe abdominal pain, watery diarrhea followed by grossly bloody diarrhea and inflammation. "NO FEVER" associated to contaminated hamburger meat
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Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
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Acid-fast bacilli with large amounts of mycolic acids and lipids in cell wall; highly communicable via aerosols or dust particles containing this type bacilli
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Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Gram-negative coccobacillus that is a strict (obligate) parasite and may be part of normal flora of human upper respiratory tract and mouth; infection is usually in the first 2 months of life. Fulminating meningitis.
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Haemophilus influenzae
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Characterized by a school of fish arrangement and causes chancroids
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Haemophilus ducreyi
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GNC in pairs, #2 cause of meningitis and often causes secondary necrosis. Predominates in school age children and college students.
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Neisseria meningitis
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GNC in pairs; sometimes asymptomatic; causes urethritis (in males), endocervix and/or Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and often co-infects with Chlamydia
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Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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Very small, unusual, ATYPICAL gram-negative bacteria that is the leading cause (50%) of sexually transmitted disease "non-gonococcal urethritis"
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Chlamydia trachomatis
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Agent of pneumonias, bronchitis usually asymptomatic; probable agent of atherosclerosis
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Chlamydia pneumoniae
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Atypical bacterium - NO cell wall; "primary atypical pneumonia" (walking pneumonia)
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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"Atypical" bacteria - small coccobacilli, obligate intracellular parasites. Various species cause: Rocky Mountain spotted fever, muring typhus, scrub typhus
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Rickettsia spp
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Rocky mountain spotted fever is transmitted by what parasite?
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Tick (R. rickettsii)
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Murine typhus is transmitted by what parasite
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Flea (R. typhi)
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Scrub typhus and Rickettisalpox is transmitted by what parasite
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Mites (R. tsutsugamushi and R. akari) respectively
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Spirochete that is transmitted by Ticks and causes Lyme Disease
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Borrelia burgdorferi
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GPB, spore-forming, aerobic and grows rabidly on a blood agar (without hemolysis)
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Bacillus anthracis
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What are the two types of Bacillus anthracis
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Pulmonary anthrax b. Cutaneous anthrax
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Describe Pulmonary anthrax
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60-100% mortality; easily aerosolized - spores become and stay airborne easily; spores germinate into bacteria > toxin > disease
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Describe Cutaneous anthrax
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20-25% mortality; spores enter through cut, abrasion; can lead to systemic infection; Papule > blister-like vesicle > mecrotic lesion w/ black eschar (scab); responds well to early antibiotic treatment
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GPB, spore forming; anaerobe; several species cause deep wound abscesses, especially when contaminated with exogenous material
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Clostridium spp
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Causes food poisoning due to enterotoxin and infection; tissue invasion and Gas gangrene due to exotoxins and invasive enzymes
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Clostridium perfringens
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Etiologic agent of food poisoning due to ingestion of preformed heat-labile toxins and causes neurological effects - flacid paralysis, double vision
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Clostridium botulinum
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A major cause of antibiotic associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis
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Clostridium difficile
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GPB anaerobe that causes tetanus due to neurotoxins and appears much of the time as Lockjaw - continuous muscle contraction of the jaw
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Clostridium tetani
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GNB, anaerobic, often pleomorphic. Most prevalent anaerobic bacteria; 80% of all anaerobics
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Bacteroids fragilis
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Etiologic agents of Aspiration pneumonia, Empyema (about 30%), Lung abscess and deep wound abscesses when contaminated with endogenous material
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Bacteroides fragilis
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Peptostrptococcus
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Gram-positive cocci
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Fusobacterium
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Gram-negative bacilli
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GNB of medical importance; a mojor cause of nosocomial infections; resistant to most antibiotics
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Pseudomonas aeroginosa
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Predisposing factors for nosocomial infections
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Metabolic, hematologic, and malignant diseases b. Instrumentation or manipulative prcedures c. Prolonged therapy with immunosuppressive agents, antimicrobics, radiation
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GNB fecal route; Opportunistic pneumonia; nosocomial infections of soft tissue and urinary tract, especially in neonates
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Klebsiella pneumoniae
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GNB fecal; Opportunistic pathogen - bacteremia and urinary tract infections, especially in burn patients
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Enterobacter spp.
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GNB fecal; Opportunisitc / Nosocomial infections -- burn-wound, UTI
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Providencia spp.
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pneumonitis and meningitis in neonates from vaginal flora
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Group B Streptococcus
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GNB; Antigenic types B & D predominate in USA; gastroenteritis from contaminated poultry and reptiles; invasion of intestinal mucous membrane but w/o significant deeper invasion or bloodstream invasion
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Slamonella enteritidis
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GNB; normal fecal flora; genes for most toxins on plasmids; UTI's (adherence and colonization)
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Escherichia coli
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GNB; Antigenic groups B & D predominate in USA; dysentery - invasion of intestinal epithelial cells with sloughing and bleeding; exotoxin produced by some strains
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Shigella
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GPC in clusters; CNS; #1 normal skin flora; endocarditis; 2nd most frequent pathogen recovered from blood culture
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Staphylococcus epidermidis
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Gram-negative curved bacillis; massive diarrhea; #1 GNB problem in world; antigenic groups O1 or O139; mortality equal to 50% if untreated
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Vibrio cholerae
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GNB; initial invasion and multiplication w/in intestinal membrane followed by invasion of bloodstream; invasion/localization in gallbladder, spleen, liver, bones; typhoid fever
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Salmonella typhi
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Gram-positive coccus in chains; invasive tissue infections; impetigo, cellulitis, scarlet fever; necrotizing fasciitis, strep gangrene "flesh-eating bacteria"; strptococcal toxin shock syndrome; acute exudative pharyngitis
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Streptococcus pyogens, group A
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CNS, UTI in women of childbearing age
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Staphylococcus saprophyticus
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Gastroenteritis from contaminated shellfish; major cause in Japan and South Pacific
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Vibrio parahemolyticus
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Microaerophilic, curved bacilli, occasional "S" or gull wing shapes; gastroenteritis, esp. from contaminated or undercooked chicken or raw milk. 2nd to Salmonella in the USA
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Campylobacter jejuni
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Gram-positive cocci in clusters; Coag positive; Invasive tissue infections; food poisoning (pre-formed enterotoxin); Toxic Shock Syndrome; Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) scalded skin syndrome; septicemia / bactermia; bone / joint infections
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Staphylococcus aureus
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Bacteremia, nosocomial wounds and UTI (multi-drug resistance)
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Enterococcus faecalis
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Gram-positive coccus in pairs; (capsule, IgA protease); pneumonia, leading cause of otitis media and sinusitis
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Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Which bacterium causes pneumonitis and meningitis (almost exclusively important) in neonates due to inoculation from vaginal flora?
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Group B Streptococcus
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GNB, often pleomorphic; anaerobic, deep abscesses aspiration pneumonia, 30% empyema; most prevalent anaerobic bacteria (80% of all anaerobes)
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Bacteroides fragilis
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GPB, sporeforming; anaerobic food poisoning, gangrene
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Clostridium perfringens
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GNB, fecal; opportunistic and nosocomial burn wound and UTI
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Providencia
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GPB, sporeforming; anaerobic, antibiotic associated diarrhea (pseudomembranous colitis)
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Clostridium difficile
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GNB, fecal; opportunistic pneumonia
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Klebsiella pneumoniae
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GPB, spore forming; anaerobic, botulism from food poisoning (pre-formed toxin)
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Clostridium botulinum
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GNB, curved; peptic ulcers
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Helicobacter pylori
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GNB, fecal; nosocomial UTI and wound infections
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Proteus
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GPB, sporeforming; anaerobic, tetanus (neurotoxin); Lockjaw
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Clostridum tetani
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Legionella
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GNB, opportunistic pneumonia
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GNB, curved; whooping cough (pertussis)
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Bordetella pertussis
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GPB pleomorphic; diphtheria
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Corynebacterium diphtheriae
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Common cold (RSV #1 in young children)
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Rhinovirus, Respiratory Syncytial Virus, Corona virus
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Acute respiratory disease in young adults, conjuctivitis, atypical peumonia, cold-like, gastrointestinal disease; 80% type 4, 7 in military recruit barracks
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Adenovirus
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Fever blister, cold sores, ad genital lesions; recurrent, latent
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Herpes simplex virus
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Infectious mononucleosis; non-recurring, non-latent
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Epstein-Barr virus
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Chickenpox and shingles; recurrent
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Herpes zoster
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Congenital cytomegalic inclusion disease (impairment of central nervous system development); latent infection problem to immunosuppressed patient
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Cytomegalovirus
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Describe Enterovirus
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Various diseases such as myocarditis, pleurodynia, vesicular rash; one portion of lifecycle was in intestinal tract
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Epidemic diarreah in children
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Rotavirus
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30-50% epidemic nonbacterial gastroenteritis at schools, camps, cruise ships
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Norwalk virus
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URT; croup and bronchitis, esp. in children)
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Parainfluenza virus
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DNA virus; parenteral entry; may produce chronic infection/disease; HBcAg, HBeAg, HBsAg and the correlating Ab are used as disease stage markers; longer incubation
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Hepatitis B virus
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RNA virus, parenteral entry, major growing cause of concern
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Hepatitis C virus
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RNA virus, fecal-oral transission, shorter incubation
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Hepatitis A virus
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What causes rabies from (skunk, fox, raccoon, coyote etc)
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Rhabdovirus
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Pulmonary syndrome - rapid progression after symptoms develop; Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome - serious hemorrhagic disease of kidney; Korean Hemorrhagic fever; due to inhalation of rodent excrement
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Hantavirus
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Arthropod-borne, some tick-borne, others mosquito-borne; causes hemorrhagic diseases and encephalitis
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Encephalitis viruses
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Uses reverse transcriptase to hide RNA genome in host DNA; predominantly infects CD4 Th cells; decreased immunity permits unusual opportunistic microbial infections to develop
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Human Immunodeficiency Virus - Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
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Causes opportunistic infections of the skin, nails, vagina and mouth
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Candida albicans
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dermatophytic moulds, etiologic agents of various tineas
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Microsporum
Trichophyton Epidermophyton |
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Describe Cryptococcus neoformans
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Opportunistic meningitis, esp. in immunosuppressed
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Also known as "rose gardener's disease" presents with subcutaneous noduls, (necrosis, ulceration)
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Sporthrix schenckii
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What causes Systemic respiratory fungal disease that overcomes cell mediated immunity
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Histoplasma capsulatum & Cocciiodes immitis
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What causes pulmonary lesions and may disseminate to multiple organs
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Blastomyces dermatidis & Paracoccidioides brasiliesis
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Define HPV and what it causes
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Human Papilloma Virus - genital warts, rapidly increasing number of infections, currently a new vaccine developed in 2006
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What cells does HIV infect?
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CD4 receptors of helper Tcells AND Monocytes (macrophages)
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What are two unique characteristics of HIV?
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Reverse transcriptase- using RNA template to make v-DNA and new v-DNA is incorporated into nucleus, remaining dormant
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What is the affect on the CD4 cells?
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Unable to produce cytokines
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What are the core strands of the HIV virus?
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Two strands of RNA, reverse transcriptase
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What is a reverse transcriptase?- unusual-
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An enzyme that uses RNA genomic (template) to produce an DNA virus
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What type of virus is HIV?
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Retrovirus, RNA virus--enveloped; medium-sized
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What stage of HIV presents w/mono/flu like symptoms and virus is replicated and shed?
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Stage I-Primary HIV Infection
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What stage of HIV presents w/ a significant decrease of CD4 cells, p24 reappears, and host has no CMI or HMI?
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Stage IV-AIDS
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What stage of HIV presents w/ asymptomatic and a gradual CD4 count decrease.
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Stage II-Latent period
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What stage of HIV presents w/virus replication and shedding at a high rate, oppurtunistic infections, lymphadenopathy w/no other signs of infection, and Kaposi's sarcoma.
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Stage III-Persistant Generalized Lymphadenopathy or
AIDS Related Complex (ARC) |
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Hepatitis is an indication of an infection of what organ?
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Liver
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How is the Hepatitis virus related?
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Infective of the liver---that's it, each has its own unique characterisitics
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What is the Nucleic acid of the Hep. B?
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Enveloped, DNA virus
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What is the transmission of HBV?
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parenteral route-- blood; STD, IV drug used needles
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Who is at HIGH risk for HBV?
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IV drug users, mult. transfussions, medical person. , male homos.
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What is incubation period of HBV and where its location?
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45-180 days; liver
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What phase (acute or chronic) has the symptoms of HBsAg and HBeAg drop with rise of Anti-HBs?
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Acute phase
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What infection -of HBV is characterized by growing HBsAg and HBeAg with no seroconversion to Anti-HBs?
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Chronic infection
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Describe the morphology of Campylobacter jejuni?
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GNB, thin curved rods
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Describe the morphology of Salmonella spp.?
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GNB
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Describe the morphology of Staphylococcus aureus
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GPC in clusters, beta hemolytic colony
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Describe the morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae
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GPC in pairs
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Describe the morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes.
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GPC in chains
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What are the symptoms of Necrotizing fascitis? Prognosis?
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-Rapid distruction of of muscle and fat tissue with high fever and pain -Poor as it is highly invasive and life threatening
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Enterococcus faecalis is an etiologic agent of: (2)
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Frequent cause of surgical wound infections and nosocomial UTI -frequent cause of bacteremia
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What causes Acute Exudative Pharyngitis?
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Streptococcus pyogenes
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How does Staphylococcus aureus cause TSS?
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Use of highly absorbant tampons or focal/surgical wounds.
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What are the symptoms of a Campylobacter jejuni infection?
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-Intestinal mucosal epithelium ulceration -diarrhea varies from massive watery stool to grossly bloody stool
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How does Vibrio cholerae cause infection?
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Non-invasive organisms localize in the small intestine and release Cholera toxin (enterotoxic exotoxin)
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How is Campylobacter jejuni transmitted?
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Usually from food (fecal oral) especially under cooked chicken, raw milk and non-chlorinated water
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What bacteria often cause Bacteremia and Septicemia in Pt. with deep, poorly draining infections?
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Staphylococcus aureus
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What are the symptoms of Acute gastroenteritis? (Salmonella enteritis)
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-Bacteria invade intestinal mucous membrane causing acute inflammatory reaction -sudden onset of non-bloody dirrhea, vomiting and fever -onset: 6-48 hrs. -symptoms last 2-7 days
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What are the symptoms of food poisoning by Staphylococcus aureus?
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Nausea, vomiting ab. cramping, watery diarrhea within 1-6 hrs; lasts about 24 hrs.
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Most pathogenic Vibrio cholerae are of what serotype?
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O1 and O139
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Where are two post streptococcal complications that can occur (as outlined)?
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-Rheumatic Fever -Acute Glomerulonephritis
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What are two terms for a bloodstream infection?
|
Bacteremia and Septicemia
|
|
|
What are the infections associated with Staphylococcus epidermidis?
|
Wound/incision infections and endocarditis in seriously ill patients
|
|
|
What bacteria is said to be Vancomycin Resistant?
|
Enterococcus faecalis
|
|
|
What are the symptoms of (TEN) scalded skin syndrom?
|
-Initial local red rash with posible conjuctivitis and URI -Followed by a large flacid bullae which rupture and cause epidermis to peel off revealing "scalded" appearence
|
|
|
What causes Necrotizing fascitis?
|
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
|
What causes Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis in children under 5 y/o?
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
|
What causes nearly 9% of bacteremia cases?
|
Enterococcus faecalis
|
|
|
What causes pneumonia and meningitis in neonates?
|
Group B Streptococcus
|
|
|
What causes post streptococcal complications (as outlined in lecture)?
|
Autoimmune reaction of Ag-Ab complexes
|
|
|
What causes scalded skin syndrome?
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Salmonella enteritidis?
|
Acute gastroenteritis
|
|
|
What is a normal flora of the skin and the most common coagulase negative staphylococcus?
|
Staphylococcus epidermidis
|
|
|
What is the mortality rate associated with untreated Vibrio cholerae?
|
50%
|
|
|
What is the primary manifestation of Vibrio parahemolyticus?
|
Gasteroenteritis due to the ingestion of contaminated seafood.
|
|
|
What is the second most common cause of UTI in women of CB age?
|
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
|
|
|
What microbe initially invades the terminal portion of the S. Int., multiplies in the lymph nodes and migrate to the blood stream?
|
Salmonella Typhi
|
|
|
What microbe is responsible for nearly 20% of sore throats (that have been cultured)?
|
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
|
What term is given to Enterococcus faecalis based on ite antimicrobic susceptibility?
|
Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus
|
|
|
What two microbes combine to cause 90% of skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysielas?
|
Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
|
What virulence factors are associated with Staphylococcus aureus?
|
-Several toxins and invasive enzymes (coagulase, fibrinolysin, lipase and a number of proteases)
|
|
|
What virulence factors are associated with Streptococcus pneumoniae? (3)
|
-Antiphagocytic capsule -IgA protease -Increase in penicillin resistance
|
|
|
What virulence factors are associated with Streptococcus pyogenes? (4)
|
-hyaluronic acid capsule
-CW "M" protein is antiphagocytic -erythrogenic toxin -Streptolysin toxin O and S |
|
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae is an etiologic agent of: (4)
|
Lobar and bronchial pneumonia
Sinusitis Otitis Media Meningitis |
|
|
What is a cause of Meningitis especially in individuals over the age of 10 y/o?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
|
What are the symptoms of Acute Exudative Pharyngitis (5 listed)?
|
-Fever
-sore throat -exudative tonsillitis -pharyngitis -tender cervical lymph nodes |
|
|
What is the leading cause of lobar and bronchial pneumonia? What percentage of cases?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae 50% - 90%
|
|
|
How do neonates come into contact with Group B Streptococcus?
|
Normal vaginal flora of the mother
|
|
|
Describe the morphology of Vibrio cholerae?
|
GNB, curved
|
|
|
What causes TSS?
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
|
How does Staphylococcus aureus cause food poisoning?
|
Ingestion of heat-stable enterotoxin
|
|
|
How is Salmonella spp. transmitted?
|
(Fecal to oral) comtaminated food and water, especially: -improperly cooked/cleaned meat -eggs and dairy -foods preparted on contaminated surfaces
|
|
|
What microbe usually localizes in the gallblatter, spleen, liver, and sometimes bones
|
Salmonella Typhi
|
|
|
What percent of Pneumonia is atributed to Staphylococcus aureus?
|
Less than 5%
|
|
|
What symptoms are associated with an infection of Vibrio cholerae?
|
hypersecretion of water and chloride caused reverse ion transport
-"rice water stool"; up to 16 liters a day |
|
|
How is Vibrio cholerae normally transmitted?
|
In areas with poor sanitation cholera is found in contaminated water supplies.
|
|
|
In relative terms, how many Vibrio cholerae must be ingested to develope symptoms? Time of incubation?
|
-"Many" or "large numbers" -a few hours to five days
|
|
|
What are the four invasive pyogenic infections associated with Staphylococcus aureus?
|
-Impetigo -Folliculitis -Furuncles -Wound or internal infection
|
|
|
What are the symptoms associated with Salmonella typhi?
|
Fever: 10-14 days after ingestion -HA, myalgia and malaise: between 5-10 days -GI symptoms:15-20 days (local necrosis lead to hemorrhage and lesions
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Salmonella typhi?
|
Typhoid fever
|
|
|
What disorder is associated with rapid distruction of muscle and fat tissue with high fever and pain and what causes it?
|
-Necrotizing fascitis -Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
|
Which bacteria has a hyaluronic acid capsule which appears similar to "self"?
|
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
|
What is a GNB that is found in soil and water environment of vietnam, afganistan and Iraq. This is natural and nosicomial?
|
Acinetobacter baummnanii
|
|
|
What the etoiology of Acinetobacter baumannii?
|
Opportunistic pathogen-- post traumatic wound abscess and septicemia
|
|
|
What is an increasingly antibiotic resistant bacteria of GNB found in our war zones?
|
Acinetobacter baumannii
|
|
|
What is the GPB, pleomorphic, that causes diptheria
|
Corynebacterium diptheriae - pseudomembrane; toxin affects myocardium/other tissues; Necrotic surface epithelium enmeshed in fibrous exudate
|
|
|
What GPB who's toxin affects the mycardium and other tissues? - causes necrotic surface epithelium enmeshed in fibrous exudate.
|
Corynebacterium diptheriae
|
|
|
What GNCB would require you to perform a breath test to detect urease?
|
Helicobacter pylori
|
|
|
What GNB, pleomorphic, is sometimes called the Pontiac fever?
|
Legionella pneumonia - IFA, immunoassays for Ag in urine
|
|
|
What is the GNB that is contracted via fecal-oral route that is an oportunistic nosocomial pneumonia?
|
Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
|
|
What GNB, grown on MacConkey agar, associated with Viet Nam?
|
Acinetobacter baumannii - oportunistic; increasingly resistant to antibiotics
|
|
|
What is defined as pus-producing/abscess forming?
|
pyogenic
|
|
|
What are the enzymes that are associated with Staph A. toxins?
|
coagulase, lecithinase, hyaluronidase, fibrinolysin, hemolysin, and streptokinase
|
|
|
What is the name of the Staph A. GPC that is characterized by small pustules followed by a thin crust over the area?
|
Impetigo - skin infection
|
|
|
What bacteria causes folliculitis, feruncles (boils), and wound and internal tissue infections?
|
Staph A. (GPC)
|
|
|
What is another name for scalded skin syndrome caused by the Staph A GPC?
|
Toxic Epidermal Necrosis - flaccid bullae; bacteria recovered from initial site of infection
|
|
|
Staph A. (GPC) produces a toxin mediated by a plasmid? Requires a toxin test.
|
Toxic shock syndrome - causes massive & unregulated stimulation of the immune system
|
|
|
What bacteria is the leading cause of food poisoning?
|
Staph A. (GPC) - produce enterotoxin
|
|
|
Blood stream infection resulting from deep, poorly draining infections which invade the bloodstream and spread to numerous body sites?
|
Septicemia/bacteremia caused by Staph A. (GPC)
|
|
|
Type of infection that generally follows a device implantation or trauma most often caused by Staph A.?
|
osteomyelitis & septic arthritis - pneumonia
|
|
|
Caused by the normal predominant flora of the skin, this bloodstream bacterial infection is cause for endocarditis in seriously ill patients?
|
Staph A. (Coag Neg.) - 2nd most frequent pathogen from blood stream
|
|
|
Is the 2nd most frequent cause of UTI in women of child-bearing age?
|
Staph A. (Coag Neg) - E. coli leading cause UTI
|
|
|
Skin rash due to erythrogenic toxin is characteristic of ______. IgG antibody to toxin prevents rash in future infections.
|
Scarlet fever - type of Streptococcus pyogenes, group A
|
|
|
Characterized by GPC in chains and associated with beta hemolytic colonies?
|
Streptococcus pyogenes, Group A
|
|
|
Characterized by acute toxic and rapid necrotic invasion by enzymes of tissue? Highly invasive and life threatening
|
Necrotizing fascitis/Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome - requires debridement of affected tissue to remove toxin
|
|
|
Also known as streptococcal gangrene, invasive cellulitis, "flesh-eating bacteria"? Member of the streptococcal pyogenes, group A
|
Necrotizing fascitis
|
|
|
Two Post Streptococcal complications? Result from autoimmune rx of Ag-Ab complexes.
|
-Rheumatic fever (Ag-Ab complexes attack heart tissue after throat infection)
-Acute glomerulonephritis (Ag-Ab complexes attack kidney tissue after throat or skin infection) |
|
|
Causes pneumonitis and meningitis in neonates due to inoculation from vaginal flora?
|
Group B Streptococcus - Culture b4 delivery
|
|
|
Lobar bronchial pneumonia (50-90%), sinusitis, otitis media, meningitis (esp. > 10yr) are associated with this bacteria?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae (GPC in pairs) - A hemolytic colonies
|
|
|
Virulence factors include antiphagocytic capsule, IgA protease and penicillin resistance increasing, which requires Ag indentification from CSF?
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae (GPC in pairs)
|
|
|
Known for frequent cause of surgical wound infections and nosocomial UTS' s? Requires vancomycin resistant enterococcus (VRE).
|
Enterococcus faecalis (formerly member of group D Streptococcus)
|
|
|
The "O" in defining the enteric antigen is descriptive of ?
|
Cell wall antigen
|
|
|
The "H" in defining the enteric antigen is descriptive of ?
|
Flagella antigen
|
|
|
The "K" in defining the enteric antigen is descriptive of ?
|
Capsule antigen
|
|
|
In order to test for Vibrio cholerae, a special request must be made for which special media?
|
Alkaline and selective
|
|
|
A form of gastroenteritis from the ingestion of seafood, esp. shellfish?
|
Vibrio parahemolyticus
|
|
|
GNB-thin curved rods-causing gastroenteritis 2nd to Salmonella is known for ulceration of intestinal mucosal epithelium? Caused by toxins and invasive enzymes resulting in watery to bloody stools
|
Campylobacter jejuni - selective plating w/ antibiotics; microaerophile
|
|
|
Characterized by "O" & "H" antigens with serogroups B & D predominating this GNB requires large amounts of bacteria present to cause gastroenteritis?
|
Salmonella - sudden onset of diarrhea
|
|
|
Bacteria invade epithelial cells->migrate to blood stream (local necrosis lead to hemorrhage and rose spots on skin) ->localization of bacteria in gall bladder, spleen, liver, & sometimes bone -> carrier state in 5% pts. Describes which bacteria?
|
Salmonella typhi - fever after 10-14 days; headache, myalgia, malaise persist 5-10 days; mild diarrhea 15-20 days after ingestion
|
|
|
Serogroup A cause more severe form of dysentary than other species
|
Shigella dysenteriae
|
|
|
Serogroup B 25% of shigella species that are located in the US (most common)?
|
Shigella flexneri
|
|
|
Serogroup D most frequent isolate (74% of isolates)
|
Shigella sonnei
|
|
|
This GNB is transmitted fecal-oral needing only a very small # bacteria to establish infection in which children under 10 account for over 2/3 of all cases?
|
Shigella spp.
|
|
|
Refers to those members that are normal flora of the intestinal tract: primarily escherichia, klebsiela, enterobacter
|
Coliform
|
|
|
What is the GNCB that causes whooping cough?
|
Bordatella pertussis - effects of the toxin that has produced mucus; IFA
|
|
|
What is the route of infection of E. coli bacteria causing UTI's?
|
fimbriae attach to epithelial cells - fecal contamination
|
|
|
Primarily responsible for outbreaks in newborn nurseries and infant summer diarrhea, causes microvilli of intestinal lining to dissolve?
|
Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
|
|
|
E. coli that produces a shigella-like toxin; necrosis of epithelial cells which invades intestinal epithelium?
|
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) - blood and leukocytes in stools (dysentary)
|
|
|
Type of E. coli that causes "traveler's diarrhea" (cholera-like toxin) ?
|
Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC) - stools profuse and watery WITHOUT mucus and blood
|
|
|
Type E. coli known as hemorrhagic colitis that may cause hemolytic remic syndrome and presents with SEVERE abdominal pain, watery diarrhea followed by grossly bloody diarrhea and inflammation; "NO FEVER"?
|
Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli - "O157:H7";verotoxin (shigella-like); Sorbitol MacConkey
|
|
|
Would use Kinyoun acid-fast stain or Truant's flourochrome stain to identify this commonly recover bacteria from AIDS patients?
|
M. avium-intracellulare - chronic pulmonary lesions and lymphadenitis
|
|
|
Epiglottitis & laryngitis in children; otitis media; sinusitis; pneumonia (2-18%); this GNB with a type B polysaccharide capsule attaches to epithelia cells via fimbriae where it releases IgA proteases?
|
Haemophilus influenzae - chocolate agar for hemin & NAD (growth inhibited on sheep, horse, and human blood due to enzymes which destroy V factor). Serological test of CSF
|
|
|
This bacterium causes chancroid and has a school of fish arrangement?
|
Haemophilus ducreyi
|
|
|
Bacteria that causes meningitis which needs a Ag indentification from CSF? - #2 major cause of meningitis.
|
Neisseria meningitis - GNC in pairs
|
|
|
What the morphology of HIV?
|
Medium sized, enveloped RNA virus
|
|
|
Describe the structure and composition of HIV?
|
-Envelope: Glyccoprotein 41 and 120 -Capside: Protein 24 -Core: 2 RNA strands and reverse transcriptase (produces DNA from RNA)
|
|
|
What are the two serotypes of HIV?
|
-HIV type 1: presents world wide -HIV type 2 presents primarily to western Africa
|
|
|
Describe the interaction between HIV and host cells.
|
-GP120 attach toCD4 of T-cell
-RNA enters cell -makes new viral DNA from RNA -viral DNA is encorperated into the host cell DNA -alters the ability of the cell to produce cytokynes -new virons are released by budding |
|
|
What types of cells typically are infected by HIV?
|
T-cells, Monocytes, and macrophages
|
|
|
How is HIV transmitted (3)?
|
-Unprotected sex -blood products -perinatally
|
|
|
What is the name of HIV stage 1? Average duration?
|
"Primary/Acute HIV infection" lasts from 1 to 4 months.
|
|
|
What is the name of HIV stage 2? Average duration?
|
The "latent" stage lasts for an undetermined period of time (sometimes years).
|
|
|
What is the name of HIV stage 3? Average duration?
|
Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopathy (PGL) or AIDS Related Complex (ARC) usually lasts between 2-4 years.
|
|
|
What is the name of HIV stage 4? Average duration?
|
"AIDS" usually lasts 1-2 years
|
|
|
What are the symptoms associated with HIV stage 1?
|
Flu-like infection usually lasting 1-3 weeks.
Mono w/ night sweats, fever, malaise, rash, muscle/joint pain |
|
|
What are the symptoms associated with HIV stage 2?
|
Patients are asymptomatic
|
|
|
What are the symptoms associated with HIV stage 3? (5)
|
-PGL ( Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopathy), diarrhea, weight loss, night sweats. "Kaposi's sarcoma": Visible tumor nodules both cutaneous and in the oral cavity- yeast ; Recurrent shingles, bact. skin infec.
|
|
|
What are the symptoms associated with HIV stage 4?
|
Patient is extremely suceptable to opportunistic infection
|
|
|
What is a cancer typically seen in elderly but an AIDS skin lesion sarcoma ?
|
Karposi's sarcoma
|
|
|
What is a chronic pulmonary and lymphadenitis?
|
MAI or MIC-- Mycobacterium avium complex-- disseminated; along with Cryptococcal meningitis (yeast)
|
|
|
Virus that causes 15% of gastrointestinal disease---types 40,47?
|
Adenovirus
|
|
|
Discuss treatment methods during Stage 3 (GPL) of HIV infection.
|
As p24 begins to accumulate due to rapid replication of virus, CD4 levels begin to decline. Treatment is aimed at maintaining low levels of p24.
|
|
|
What is virulence in Stage 4-- HIV? What is tx?
|
LOW CD-4 (below 200 and dropping) and low CD-8 cells, HIGH Ag p24; Ab ineffective along with Cell-Med. and Humoral Immunity
|
|
|
What is a general definition of hepatitis?
|
An infection of the liver caused by one of several major distinct viral agents.
|
|
|
What is the incubation period of HBV?
|
Usually 45 to 180 days
|
|
|
What are the surface markers of HBV? (4)
|
--HBsAg: earliest indicator of acute infection --HBeAg: indicator of acute infection, viral replication, and most infectious period --AntiHBe: seroconversion suggests resolution of transmissibility --AntiHBs: serological marker of recovery and major protective antibody against HBV
|
|
|
What major markers, which indicates chronic HBV?
|
Failure to seroconvert HBsAg to Anti-HBs or HBeAg to Anti-HBe
|
|
|
Describe the morphology of HCV.
|
Small lipid enveloped RNA virus
|
|
|
Describe the morphology of HAV.
|
Small non-enveloped RNA virus with a small capsid protein
|
|
|
How is HAV transmitted?
|
Primarily fecal-oral route via food or water
|
|
|
What is the incubation period of the Rabies Virus?
|
About 8 weeks
|
|
|
How is Rabies virus transmitted?
|
Virus-laden saliva of an infected animal introduced into a bite or scratch wound
|
|
|
What is the primary manifestation of Rabies virus?
|
-Respiratory paralysis (death)
|
|
|
Known as "acute repiratory disease" this virus is common in 80% of military recruits?
|
Adenovirus type 4,7 - vaccine available
|
|
|
What are some general symptoms characteristics of Hemoragic Fever Viruses?
|
-Acute fever, flu-like Sx, muscle aches -Hemorrage/ capilary leakage (leads to shock)
|
|
|
Describe the morphology of Hemoragic Fever Viruses.
|
Enveloped RNA viruses
|
|
|
What is the level of contagion of Hemoragic Fever Viruses?
|
Moderate
|
|
|
What are the primary characteristics of Hantavirus Pulminary Syndrom?
|
Interstitial pulminary edema and respiratory failure
|
|
|
Discuss Hantavirus Hemoragic Fever in terms of Frequency/Vector/ and geographic location.
|
Very Frequent/Rodent Ecreta/Northern Asia & Europe
|
|
|
Discuss Hantavirus Cardiopulminary Syndrome in terms of Frequency/Vector/ and geographic location.
|
Rare/Rodent Ecreta/North America
|
|
|
Discuss Rift Valley Fever in terms of Frequency/Vector/ and geographic location.
|
Frequent/Mosquitoes/Africa
|
|
|
Discuss Dengue Hemoragic Fever in terms of Frequency/Vector/ and geographic location.
|
Frequent/Mosquitoes/Tropical Africa & Amazon basin
|
|
|
Discuss California - La Crosse- encephalitis in terms of Frequency/Vector/ and geographic location
|
Frequent/ mosquito/ North mid-west and northeast US-- RNA virus
|
|
|
Discuss St. Louis encephalitis virus in terms of Frequency/Vector/ and geographic location.
|
Frequent US/ Mosquito/ US-- RNA virus
|
|
|
Discuss Japanese encephalitis virus in terms of Frequency/Vector/ and geographic location
|
Frequent/Mosquito/ / SE Asia-- RNA virus
|
|
|
What is the predominant vector for Encephalitis viruses?
|
Mosquitoes
|
|
|
What is the mortality rate of Encephalitis viruses?
|
20-40%
|
|
|
How is Variola virus primarily spread?
|
Aerosolized scabs or skin
|
|
|
What disease does Variola virus cause?
|
Smallpox
|
|
|
These surface antigens (Hemagglutinin & Neuraminidase) which are sites of attachment on the virus envelope are identifiers for which virus? New major antigenic types sweep the world every 2-4 years.
|
Influenza virus - Grp A,B high rate of gene recombination & mutation; RNA 8 strands ssRNA; ELISA, PCR
|
|
|
Which virus is the overall most prevalent cause of the common cold?
|
Rhinovirus
|
|
|
What is the more prevalent virus causing the common cold in infants & young children?
|
Respiratory syncytial virus
|
|
|
What is the name of the virus that causes SARS?
|
Corona virus - transmitted by droplets and contact (esp. hands and eyes) and by inhalation; cell culture; PCR
|
|
|
One of the predominant causes of conjunctivitis "pink eye" is associated with this virus?
|
Adenovirus
|
|
|
Virus that causes croup, bronchitis, cold-like symptoms; especially in children?
|
Para influenza virus
|
|
|
Virus that causes fever blisters, cold sores, gingivostomastitis, keratoconjunctivitis, genital lesions, meningitis (neonates)
|
Herpes simplex (1,2) - virus hides in nerve ganglia serving region of primary lesion; DNA virus
|
|
|
Cause of infectious mononucleosis? Non recurring, non latent
|
Epstein Barr virus
|
|
|
What causes congenital cytommegalic inclusions in children via vaginal flora during birth and damages CNS? Cuases Jaundice, multiple organ, microcephaly. Mental and physical retardation.
|
Cytomegalovirus
|
|
|
Activated when CMI is reduced in predominantly immunocompromised Pt's
|
Cytomegalovirus
|
|
|
What causes genital warts and rapidly increasing # of infection. Vaccine in 2006
|
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
|
|
|
Is an atypical pneumonia type 37 caused by this virus?
|
Adenovirus
|
|
|
Termed Coxsackie, is transmitted fecal to oral and causes several diseases-myocarditis, pleurodynia, vesicular rash...
|
Enterovirus
|
|
|
Virus known as Varicella-Zoster that causes chicken pox (trunk) and shingles
|
Herpes zoster - virus held in check via CMI
|
|
|
What causes epidemic diarrhea in infants
|
Rotavirus
|
|
|
What is the mortality rate of Variola virus?
|
30%
|
|
|
What is a preventative of Ab production or the failure to seroconvert to Anti-HBe? And Anti-HBs?
|
Chronic carrier state and chronic liver damage; chronic infection of HBV (HBs)
|
