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143 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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catalase -, no hemolysis, growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl
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enterococcus, E. Faecium
(endocarditis after GU procedures) |
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catalase -, no hemolysis, growth in bile but NOT 6.5% NaCl
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Nonenterococci, S. Bovis
*think if it's not eterococci, it's not resilient enough to survive in the NaCl endocarditis associated with colonic malignancy |
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3 things gram negs have that gram pos do not have
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gram negs
1. thin peptidoglycan wall (sugar backbone with cross linked peptide side chains) 2. outer membrane, site of endotoxin lipid A which induces TNF and IL-1 (gram pos has no outer membrane, but does have teichoic acid which is a major surface antigen that also induces TNF and IL-1) 3. periplasmic space (space between thin peptidoglycan and cytoplasmic membrane) - location of many B-lactamases |
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what is unusual about the cell walls in:
- mycoplasma - myobacteria - chlamydia |
- mycoplasma: contain sterols and have no cell wall
- myobacteria: contain mycolic acid. high lipid content. - chlamydia: lack peptidoglycan cell wall, lacks muramic acid. *interesting fact: mycoplasma and chlamydia are treated the same (tetracycline or erythromycin) because they both have no cell wall. |
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6 bacteria that do not gram stain well
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1. treponema (too thin to be visualized)
2. mycobacteria (high lipid content cell wall requires acid fast cell) 3. mycoplasma (no cell wall) 4. legionella** (primarily intracellular) 5. chlamydia (intracellular) 6. rickettsia (intracellular) |
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2 bacteria used for Giemsa stain
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1. borrelia burgdorferi (lyme disease)
2. chlamydia |
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Ziehl-Neelsen stain
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acid-fast organisms (mycobacteria, nocardia)
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Thayer-Martin media
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Cultures neisseria gonorrhea
Vancomycin inhibits gram + Polymixin inhibts gram - Nystatin inhibits fungi Thayer-martin aka VPN |
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culturing B. pertussis
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b. pertussis = bordet-gengou (potato) agar
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culturing C. diptheriae
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tellurite agar, Loffler's media
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culturing TB
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lowenstein-jensen agar
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culturing M. Pnueomonia
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eaton's agar
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pink colonies on MacConkey's agar and blue black colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar
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Lactose fermenter = pink on MacConkey
E Coli = blue/black on eosin-methylene blue agar |
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4 bacteria that are obligate aerobes
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psuedomonas
mycobacteria nocardia bacillus |
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3 bacteria that are obligate anaerobes
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clostridium
bacillus* (some are anaerobes some are aerobes) actinomyces |
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the 2 obligate intracellular bugs
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1. chlamydia
2. rickettsia |
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the 7 facultative intracellular bugs
-some nasty bugs may live facultatively |
1. salmonella
2. neisseria 3. brucella 4, mycobacteria 5. listeria 6. francisella 7. legionella |
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6 bacteria that are encapsulated
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Strep Pneumo
H. Influenz Neisseria meningitidis Salmonella group B strep Klebsiella *all have positive quellung reaction (capsule swells when anticapsular antisera is added) |
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4 urease positive bugs
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Proteus
Kebsiella H. Pylori Ureaplasma |
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how does pertussis toxin promote lymphocytosis?
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pertussis toxin promotes lymphocytosis by inhibiting chemokine receptors
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how does bacillus anthracis increase cAMP?
how does this differ from cholera, pertussis, E. coli |
bacillus anthracis toxin includes edema factor, which is itself a bacterial adenylate cyclase.
it causes neutrophil dysfunction and collection of fluid within and between cells --> edema cholera, pertussis and E. coli toxins are A-B exotoxins which ADP ribosylations and activate adenylate cyclase |
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superantigens cause widespread release of what?
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by binding directly to MHCII and T-cell receptor simultaneously they activate large amounts of T cells to release IL-2 and INF-Y.
The INF-Y activates macrophages, which release IL1,6, TNF-alpha (mediates sepsis) |
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shiga-like-toxin mechanism
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cleaves host cell rRNA (decreases 60S)
enhances cytokine release, causing HUS |
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3 qualities shared by SHiN bacteria
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1. all encapsulated
2. all produce IgA protease (allows them to colonize respiratory mucosa) 3. all can undergo transformation, the ability to take up DNA from environment. |
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transposition
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DNA can jump from plasmid to chromosome and vice versa. When excision occurs, it may get some chromosomal DNA along with it that can be incorporated in to plasmid and later transferred to another bacteria (via conjugation)
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generalized transduction vs. specialized transduction
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generalized: cleaved bacterial DNA can be transferred via bacteriophage
specialized: bacterial DNA is incorporated in to viral DNA plasmid and spread via bacteriophage |
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5 bacterial toxins that use a lysogenic phage:
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1. shigA-like toxin : cleave60s rRNA and increases chemokines --> HUS
2. Botulinum toxin : inhibts Ach release 3. Cholera toxin: activates Gs via ADP ribosylation 4. Diptheria toxin: ADP ribosylates and inactivates EF-2 5. Erythrogenic toxin of strep. pyogenes: scarlet fever erythrogenic toxin |
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4 bacteria that are beta hemolytic
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1. strep pyogenes
2. group B strep 3. staph aureus 4. listeria monocytogenes |
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what is the virulence factor for
- staph aureus - strep pyogenes |
- staph aureus: protein A - binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis
-strep pyogenes: M protein- helps prevent phagocytosis, decreases C3b and determines GAS subtype- whether its skin or pharyngitis, or whether it will do rheumatic or PSGN |
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lancet shaped in chains/pairs
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strep pneumoniae
*rusty sputum, sepsis in sickle cell and splenectomy |
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______ can bind to valves with pre-existing damage, whereas ______ can bind to valves with no damage.
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Strep viridans can bind to valves with pre-existing damage, whereas Staph aureus can bind to valves with no damage.
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Produces CAMP factor which enlarges the area of hemolysis
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Group B strep (strep agalactiae) - pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis in babies
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gram positive rods, metachromatic (blue and red) granules
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Corynebacteria diptheria
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Treatment for diptheria (in order of importance)
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1. administer diptheria antitoxin - must do rapidly, pointless after DT has gained access to CNS, heart.
2. penicillin or erythromycin - kills the bacteria so new DT is made 3. administration of DT vaccine |
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What causes C. botulinum in adults vs. children`
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adults = ingestion of preformed toxin
children = ingestion of preformed spores |
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what are the 2 toxins in C. diff
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toxin A, enterotoxin, binds to the brush border of the gut
toxin B, cytotoxin destroys the cytoskeletal structure of the enterocytes, causing pseudomembraneous colitis *diagnosed by one of these toxins in the stool This is the opposite of the A-B exotoxins which all ADP-ribosylate and activate cAMP (cholera, diptheria, pertussis, e coli) |
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only bacteria with a polypeptide capsule (contains D-glutamate)
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bacillus anthracis
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move cell to cell via actin rockets. have a characteristic tumbling motility.
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listeria monocytogenes
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facultative intracellular microbe that is gram + and has LPS
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listeria monocytogenes
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what are the effects of listeria monocytogenes on
-neonates -immunocompromised adults -healthy adults |
-neonates: sepsis, amnionitis, meningitis, spontaneous abortion
-immunocompromised adults: meningitis -healthy adults: mild gastroenteritis *caused by ingestion of unpasteurized milk/cheese/deli meats or vaginal transmission during birth. |
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gram + branching filament weakly acid fast aerobe
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nocardia asteroides - pulmonary infection in immunocomprimised
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gram + branching filament anaerobe
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actinomyces israelii
cause oral/facial abscess that may drain through sinus tract --> skin |
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differ N. meningiditis septic arthritis from reactive arthritis (reiter's)
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N. Gonorrhea: fever + asymmetric arthritis. Can co-occur with dermatitis.
Is the most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active young adults. Doesn't have eye symptoms (conjunctivits, uveitis) unlike chlamydia/post-GI Reiter's syndrome, which is an infection-induced autoimmune arthritis (HLA-B27) |
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Name 6 defining characteristics of infection caused by Haemophilus influenza
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H
Arthritis, IgA protease Epiglottitis Meningitis Otitis Media Pneumonia **does not cause influenza, the influenza virus does! **Also, only seen in unvaccinated |
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haemophilus influenza vaccine
-what's in it -what it stimulates -when given |
vaccine contains type B capsular polysaccharide (PRP) conjugated to diptheria toxoid or other protein.
can stimulate B cells and T-helper, so class switching can occur. given between 2-18mo |
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How is legionella stained, and how is it grown?
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gram stains poorly because mostly intracellular, use silver stain
grow on charcoal yeast extract, culture with iron and cysteine. |
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gram neg rod causing community acquired pneumonia; high fever, GI symptoms, confusion, cough/chest pain, propensity for smoker
how did person get it what is treatment |
legionella pneumophilia
aerosol transmission from environmental water source, no person to person transmission Rx: erythromycin |
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psuedomonas endotoxin
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exotoxin A which inactivates EF-2 (like diptheria)
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sepsis with black lesions on skin in patient hospital aquired pneumonia
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psuedomonas aeruginosa
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What are the E. Coli virulence factors for:
- cystitis - pneumonia, neonatal meningitis - septic shock |
- cystitis: fimbriae
- pneumonia, neonatal meningitis: K capsule (helps it survive in blood) - septic shock: LPS endotoxin (most commonly arise from urinary tract) |
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which E. Coli...
-cause dysentery using Shiga-like toxin -have no inflammation or invasion - prevent absorption in children -doesn't ferment sorbitol |
-cause dysentery using Shiga-like toxin: EIEC, EHEC
-have no inflammation or invasion: ETEC (travelers: labile/stabile toxin) - prevent absorption in children (EPEC- pediatric diarrhea) -O157:H7- causes HUS- anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure |
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gram neg rod, lactose non fermenter, oxidase neg, H2S producer
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salmonella
also have flagella and can disseminate hematogenously |
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typhoid fever
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salmonella typhi - fever, diarrhea, headache, rose spots on abdomen. can remain in gallbladder chronically and reninfect GI in 2-3 weeks
risk factors= travel to 3rd world countries |
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gram neg rod with actin polymerization
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shigella
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mechanism of entry for shigella
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- binds to M cells in peyers pathches, then travels laterally in mucousa
- shiga toxin is a (A-B exotoxin) A subunit inactivates 60S ribosome damaging mucosa must stay in mucosa to exert damage, does not enter bloodstream |
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bloody diarrhea caused by gram neg comma shaped oxidase +, grows at 42C
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campylobacter jejuni
comes from fecal-oral from poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk |
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person with achlorhydria is more susceptible to symptoms from this gram neg comma shaped oxidase + which grows in alkaline media
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vibrio cholera
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mesenteric adenitis, mimics crohns/appendicitis
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yersinia enterocolitica - from pet feces, contaminated milk/pork
also causes outbreaks of diarrhea in day care centers |
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triple therapy (cheap/expensive)
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cheap:
1. metronidazole 2. bismuth 3. erythromycin/tetracycline expensive: 1. metronidazole 2. omeprazole 3. clarithromycin |
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flulike symptoms, jaundice, conjunctivits from surfer in tropics
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leptospira interrogans, found in water contaminated with animal urine
*can progress to "weil's disease" which has liver and kidney dysfunction, anemia, hemorrhage |
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3 stages of borrelia burgdorferi
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stage1: erythema chronicum migrans, flulike symptoms
stage 2: bilateral bell's palsy, AV nodal block stage 3: chronic monoarthritis, migratory polyarthritis |
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False positive on VDRL test
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VDRL is nonspecific screening test for Syphillis that detects beef cardiolipin
Viruses = mononucleosis, hepatitis Drugs Rheumatic fever Lupus and leprosy |
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unpasteurized dairy products or contact with animals that gives you undulant (rising and falling) fever
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brucella
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cellulitis and osteomyelitis from animal bite
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pasturella multocida
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what bacterial infections come from:
-ixodes tick -lice -tick bite, rabbits, deer -flea bite, rodents, prarie dog |
what bacterial infections come from:
-ixodes tick: borriela burgdorferi -lice: borriela recurrentis -tick bite, rabbits, deer: Francisella tularensis -flea bite, rodents, prarie dog: Ysersinia pestis (the plague) |
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Rx for gray vaginal discharge with fishy smell
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Rx for gardnerella vaginalis = metronidazole
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Weil-Felix reaction
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Rickettsia antibodies agglutinate when mixed with Proteus antigens (weil felix is negative in coxiella)
Important rickettsia diseases: rickettsia rickettsi (RMSF) palms --> trunk, Rickettsia prowasekii (epidemic typhus) tunk and outward Endemic typhus: Rickettsia typhi. Rx for all = doxycylcline |
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Difference between Rickettsia rickettsii and Rickettsia Typhi
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Rickettsia rickettsii: tick, starts on hands and feet and moves centrally
Rickettsia Typhi: fleas, starts on Trunk and moves outward without involving the wrists or soles |
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what 3 infections cause palm and sole rash
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1. coxsackie A (hand, foot and mouth disease)
2. rickettsia rickettsii 3. secondary syphillis (maculopapular rash) |
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Cold (IgM) agglutinins
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mycoplasma pneumoniae
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systemic mycosis in states east of Mississippi river valley (and central america)
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Blasyomycosis
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Mississippi, Ohio river valley, bird or bat droppings
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Histoplasmosis
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Patient comes from beach and has white spots on suntanned back and body
Rx? |
Malassezia furfur
rx: miconazole, selenium sulfide |
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latex agglutination test detects polysacchardide capsular antigen
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cryptococcus neoformans
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Rx for sporothrix schenckii
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itraconazole or Potassium Iodide
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dormant form in liver of P.vivax/ovale is treated with
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primaquine
(in addition to chloroquine, and if resistant mefloquine) |
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which malaria is 48hr and which is 24hr?
Which is more severe? |
symptoms for both: cyclic fever, headache, anemia, splenomegaly
P. vivax/ovale: 48hr; dormant form is treated with primaquine P. Falciparum: severe; 24hrs; occlude capillaries in brain, kidneys, lungs Rx: chloroquine, if resistant use mefloquine |
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treatment for enterobius vermicularis
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-bendazoles
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swiss cheese appearance of brain is caused by what tapeworm?
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pork tapeworm (taenia solium)
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cysts in liver that can cause anaphylaxis if antigens are relased from cysts
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echinococcus granulosis
caused by ingested eggs in dog feces |
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after eating undercooked meat (pork), inflammation of muscle and periorbital edema
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trichinella spiralis
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what are the two nematodes (roundworms) that penetrate the skin and cause intestinal infections and anemia?
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1. strongyloides stercoralis
2. necator americanus (hookworms) |
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ixodes tick causing fever and hemolytic anemia
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babesia
Rx: quinine, clindamycin *same vector as borriela burgdorferi, may often coinfect) |
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dilated cardiomyopathym megacolon, megaesophagus in South America
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Trypansoma cruzi (Chaga's disease) from Reduviid bug "kissing bug"
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enlarged lymph nodes, recurring fever, somnolence, coma
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Trypansoma brucei/gambiense/rhodesiense
Rx: suramin (blood-borne), melarsoprol (for CNS) |
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squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
Rx? |
chronic infection of schistosoma haemotobium
Rx: praziquantel |
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biliary tract disease, pigmented gallstones, cholangiocarcinoma comes from what trematode (fluke)?
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clonorchis sinensis (undercooked fish)
Rx: praziquantel |
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hemoptysis and bacterial infection of lung from undercooked crab?
Rx? |
paragoniumus westermani (undercooked crab)
Rx: praziquantel |
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DNA enveloped viruses (3)
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Herpesvirus - DS linear
Poxvirus - DS linear Hepadnavirus - DS partial circular |
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DNA unenveloped (4)
*which is single standed? *which are circular? |
Parvovirus B19 - SS linear*
Adenovirus - DS linear Papillomavirus - DS circular Polyomavirus - DS circular |
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SS (+) RNA unenveloped
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Coronavirus - common cold, SARS
Flavivirus - HCV, yellow fever, dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, West nile Togavirus- Rubella (german 3-day), eastern/western equine encephalitis Retrovirus - HIV, HTLV - |
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which viruses must bring their own polymerase when infecting a cell?
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all negative strand RNA.
Orthomyxovirus - influenza Paramyxovirus - Parainfluenza, RSV, Measles (rubeloa), mumps Rhabdovirus Arenavirus - lassa, lymphocytic choriomeningitis Deltavirus - Hep D Bunyavirus - California, sandly, congo, hantavirus Filovirus - ebol/marburg hemorrhagic fever- often fatal! |
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What are the 4 RNA unenveloped viruses?
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Reovirus - colorado tick fever, rotavirus (diarrhea)
Hep E Calcivirus - norwalk Picorna - Polio, Echo, Rhino, Coxsackie, Hep A |
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Causes high fever, black vomit, and jaundice
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Yellow fever, spread by Aedes mosquitos
A flavivirus RNA encapsulated SS(+) virus |
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only single stranded DNA virus
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parvovirus B19
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only DNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm
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poxvirus, brings its own DNA-dependent-RNA polymerase
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the 4 segmented viruses
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All segmented viruses are RNA viruses.
Bunyavirus - California, sandfly, congo, hantavirus Orthomyxovirus - influenza* Arenavirus - lassa, lymphocytic choriomeningitis Reovirus - colorado tick, rotavirus* |
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Differences between Rubella (german measles) and Rubeola (measles)
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Rubella: 3-day german measles. Togavirus (RNA enveloped ss+)- fever, postauricular tenderness*, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, fine truncal rash - avoids hands/feet*
Rubeola = paramyxovirus (RNA enveloped ss-), koplik spots, rash from head to toe (includes hands and feet*), and can later cause SSPE. Defined by the 3 C's: cough, coryza, conjunctivitis |
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megaesophagus + megacolon with recent travel to S. America
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trypansoma cruzi
*can also cause dilated cardiomyopathy - reduviid bug |
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rx for trypansoma cruzi
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nifurtimox
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non-heterophil mononucleosis
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CMV
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Rx for staph epidermidis
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vancomyosin - most are MRSA - so can't treat with any penicillin derivative (incl. cephalosporins) because the PBP has changed
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why is strep viridans able to adhere to damaged heart valves?
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viridans produce dextrans from glucose that help it adhere to dental enamel and heart valves, because they adhere to fibrin and platelet.
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differences between fungal/TB and viral CSF findings in meningitis?
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fungal: high pressure, lymphocytes, high protein, low sugar.
viral = normal/high pressure, high lymphocytes, normal/high protein, NORMAL sugar. |
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osteomyelitis in:
-diabetics -prosethetics -vertebral - car and dog bites/scratches |
osteomyelitis in:
-diabetics: psuedomonas -prosethetics: s. aureus, s. epidermidis -vertebral: TB (pott's disease) - car and dog bites/scratches: pasteurella multocida *however, assume s. aureus if no other info- it often occurs without injury and has vague symptoms of fever, malaise, pain over `bone. |
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most common location of hematogenous osteomyelitis
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metaphysis due to rich vascularization and capillary fenestrae
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what does a positive leukocytes esterase test mean?
what does a positive nitrite test mean? |
leukocyte esterase + = bacterial UTI
nitrite test + = gram neg bacterial UTI (except s. saprophyticus) |
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top 3 causes of UTI
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1. e coli - colonies show metallic sheen on EMB agar
2. s. saprophyticus 3. klebsiella pneumoniae - large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies |
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UTi with motility that causes "swarming on agar"; produces urease; associated with sturvite stones.
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proteus mirablis
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classic triad of toxoplasma gondii neonatal infection
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chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
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classic triad of Rubella neonatal infection
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1. PDA (or pulmonary artery hypoplasia)
2. sensory loss: cataracts, deafness 3. blueberry muffin rash |
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classic triad of CMV neonatal infection
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- hearing loss
- seizures - peticheal rash |
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Syphilis neonatal infection
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often results in stillbirth, hydrops fetalis
-if patient survives: notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla, saber shins. |
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erythematous, sandpaper-like rash with fever and sore throat
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scarlet fever - strep pyogenes
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vesicular rash on palms and soles, ulcers in oral mucosa
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coxasackie virus A
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Haemophilus ducreyi
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painful genital ulcer, inguinal adenopathy
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genital ulcers, lymphadenopathy, rectal strictures
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c. trachomatis (L1-L3)
lymphogranuloma venerum |
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vaginitis that shows corkscrew motility on wet prep
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trichomonas vaginalis
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Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
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infection of the liver capsule and violin string adhesions of the perietal pertonium to liver secondary to pelvic inflammatory disease
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top 2 nosocomial infections are
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e coli (UTI)
s aureus (wound infection) |
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what is the replication sequence of HBV
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1. dsDNA partial ---> dsDNA full (virion DNA poly)
2. dsDNA (full) --> mRNA (host poly) 3. mRNA (+) --> DNA (-) reverse transcriptase 4. DNA (-) --> DNA (+) virion DNA poly. *virion DNA polymerase = DNA-dependent DNA polymerase |
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For a patient with acute HBV, what are the values for:
-HBsAg -anti-HBsAb -HBeAg -anti-HBeAb -anti-HBcAb |
-HBsAg +
-anti-HBsAb - -HBeAg + -anti-HBeAb - -anti-HBcAb + (IgM) |
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For a patient with chronic HBV, what are the values for:
-HBsAg -anti-HBsAb -HBeAg -anti-HBeAb -anti-HBcAb |
-HBsAg +
-anti-HBsAb - -HBeAg + -anti-HBeAb + (depending on how infectious) -anti-HBcAb + (IgG) |
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For a patient recovered from HBV, what are the values for:
-HBsAg -anti-HBsAb -HBeAg -anti-HBeAb -anti-HBcAb |
-HBsAg -
-anti-HBsAb + -HBeAg - -anti-HBeAb + -anti-HBcAb + (IgG) |
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For a patient who has been vaccinated for HBV, what are the values for:
-HBsAg -anti-HBsAb -HBeAg -anti-HBeAb -anti-HBcAb |
-HBsAg -
-anti-HBsAb + -HBeAg - -anti-HBeAb - -anti-HBcAb - |
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If you see anti-HBsAb what does that automatically mean?
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They have recovered or have been vaccinated
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if you see a patient with Anti-HBcAb, what does that mean?
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Indicates that at some point there was an infection.
*either IgM (recent) or IgG -in order to see if it is active, check anti-HBsAb (if this is positive you know they have fought off the infection) -if you see HBeAg, they have either acute or chronic with high infectivitiy. |
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what do the 3 structural genes of HIV: env, gag, and pol code for?
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env = gp120 (attach to T-cell), gp41 (fusion and entry)
gag = p24 capsid protein pol = reverse transcriptase |
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what do the regulatory genes of HIV; nef, rev, tat code for?
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nef: enhances viral replication by downregulating MHCI expression
rev: transports unspliced mRNA from nucleus --> cytoplasm tat = contributes to virulance |
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what does HIV bind to on T cells and macrophages
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-CXCR4 and CD4 on T-cells
- CCR5 and CD4 on macrophages |
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which tests for HIV are more sensitive, which are more specific
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sensitive = rule out = ELISA
specific = rule in = western blot *ELISA is falsely negative in first 1-2 months and falsely positive in babies born to infected mothers. |
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5 infections that occur with HIV with <400 CD4 count
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oral thrush*, tinea pedis, reactivation VZV, reactivation TB, bacterial infx (h. influenza, s. pneumoniae, salmonella)
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5 infections that occur with HIV with <400 CD4 count
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oral thrush*, tinea pedis, reactivation VZV, reactivation TB, bacterial infx (h. influenza, s. pneumoniae, salmonella)
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5 infections that occur with HIV with <200 CD4 count
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reactivation HSV, cryptosporidiosis*, Isospora, disseminated cocci, pneumocystis*
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5 infections that occur with HIV with <200 CD4 count
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reactivation HSV, cryptosporidiosis*, Isospora, disseminated cocci, pneumocystis*
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3 infections that occur with HIV with <100 CD4 count
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candidal esophagitis
toxo histoplasmosis |
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3 infections that occur with HIV with <100 CD4 count
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candidal esophagitis
toxo histoplasmosis |
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3 infections that occur with HIV with <50 CD4 count
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CMV retinitis and esophagitis
M.. avium-intracellulare cryptococcal meningoencephalitis |
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3 infections that occur with HIV with <50 CD4 count
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CMV retinitis and esophagitis
M.. avium-intracellulare cryptococcal meningoencephalitis |
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4 neoplasms associated with HIV
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Kaposi's sarcoma (HHV-8)
invasive cervical carcinoma (HPV) primary CNS lymphoma non-Hodgkins lymphoma *EBV is reactivated in HIV --> CNS lymphoma, non-Hodgkins, oral hairy leukoplakia |
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4 neoplasms associated with HIV
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Kaposi's sarcoma (HHV-8)
invasive cervical carcinoma (HPV) primary CNS lymphoma non-Hodgkins lymphoma *EBV --> CNS lymphoma, non-Hodgkins, oral hairy leukoplakia |
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differentiating bacillary angiomatosis (bartonella henselae) and Kaposi's sarcoma
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Both present with superficial vascualr proliferation- however, bacillary angiomatosis has neutrophilic inflam on biopsy and HHV-8 kaposi's has lymphocytic inflam.
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Dx for chronic watery diarrhea in HIV+ stool
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acid fast cysts in stool - cryptosporidium
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