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704 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Protozoa, single-celled or multicellular?
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Single-celled
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Metazoa, aka?
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Helminths
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Metazoa, single-celled or mulicellular?
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Multicellular
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Name the three types of helminths we discussed
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Cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes
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Cestodes, aka?
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Segmented worms
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Trematodes, aka?
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Flatworms
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Nematodes, aka?
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Roundworms
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Hexopoda, aka?
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Lice, 6 legs, eg. crabs
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Arachnida, aka?
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Mites, 8 legs, eg. scabies
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Most prevalent parasitic infection worldwide
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Toxoplasmosis
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What are the four species of Plasmodium causing malaria? (that we are concerned with)
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P. Falciparum, P. Vivax, P. Ovale, P. malariae
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Life-stage of Plasmodium injected into human by mosquito
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Sporozoites
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Plasmodia infecting liver cells is in this life-cycle
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Exoerythrocytic cycle (out of blood)
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Life-stage of plasmodia developing in hepatocytes
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Merozoites
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Life-stage of Plasmodia in blood cells
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Ring-form trophozoites
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Red cells infected with plasmodia that has undergone replication cycle(s)
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Schizont
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Life-stage of plasmodia taken up by uninfected mosquito that will allow for infection of new host
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*gametocyte
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Species of Plasmodium that typically causes more rapid disease onset
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P. falciparum
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RBCs that can be infected by P. falciparum
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All stages of RBC development
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Does P. falciparum persist in liver after main bout of infection?
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No
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Can many stages of life-cycle be seen in RBCs infected with P. Vivax?
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Yes
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Which species can be identified in a blood smear by visible schizonts? (P. falciparum or P. vivax)
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P. vivax
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Main problem with malaria
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anemia
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Which species of Plasmodium shows >3% infection of RBCs on a blood-smear
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P. falciparum
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Which species of Plasmodium shows >1 ring-form trophozoite in a given RBC
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P. falciparum
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Two nuclear "dots" in a ring-form trophozoite is characteristic of what Plasmodium species
|
P. falciparum
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What are the life-stages of P. falciparum visible in the blood
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Ring-form trophozoite, and gametocyte
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Differentiate between P. falciparum and P. vivax gametocytes
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P. falciparum - small, banana shaped
P. vivax - large, diffuse |
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An added danger from P. falciparum
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Microthrombi (brain especially)
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Which plasmodium is associated with drug resistance
|
P. falciparum
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Is babesia endemic in the US?
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Yes
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Transmission of babesia is through?
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Ticks
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Person at increased risk of severe reaction to babesia infection might have
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Splenectomy, immunosuppression
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Leishmania is transmitted by
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Sand-flies
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Life-stage of leishmania causing initial infection
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Promastigote
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Three main species of Leishmania
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L. tropica, L. braziliensis, L. donovani
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What cell type is the main target of Leishmania
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Macrophages
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What life stage of Leishmania multiplies in macrophage
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Intracellular amastigotes
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Leishmania tropica is characterized by (externally apparent)
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Progressive lesion, non-responsive to standard antibiotics
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Leishmania is diagnosed by
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Biopsy of lesion edge, presence of macrophages with intracellular asmastigotes
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Leishmania amastigotes can be identified by
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presence of a "bar" (mitochondrion)
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What is a characteristic of L braziliensis that differs from other species?
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Can escape blood and infect mucosal tissues
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What is characteristic of L donovani that differs from other species?
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Causes a "higher level", disseminated infection - Kala-azar dermal reaction
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What part of the adaptive immunity is protective against Leishmania infections?
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Th1 cells, (Th2 for Kala-azar of donovani infection)
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How does Trypanosoma transfer from its insect vector into a person
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Trypomastigotes are present in kissing bug defecation and invade bite site or mucosa
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What life-stage is Trypanosoma in when it infects an individual?
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Trypomastigote
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What type of cells will T. cruzi infect?
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All nucleated cells
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What life-stage of T. cruzi generally resides in tissue?
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Amastigotes
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What life-stage of T. cruzi can be found in circulating blood?
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Trypomastigotes
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What are some of the pathologies associated with T cruzi infections
|
Cardiomegaly, megacolon, megaesophagus (and chagoma (swollen face))
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What are some common symptoms of acute Chagas disease (T cruzi infection)
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Fever, malaise, anorexia, edema, myocarditis, meningoencephalitis
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What is the intracellular life-stage of T cruzi?
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Amastigote
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How can the intracellular amastigote of T cruzi be identified histologically?
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Presence of a large mitochodrion within amastigote cytoplasm
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Which aspect of the adaptive immunity helps give the most protection against T cruzi infections?
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?Th1 cells?
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How are Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and T.b. rhodesiense transmitted?
|
Tsetse fly bites
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What life stage is T. brucei in when it infects an individual
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metacyclic trypanosome
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Where does the infection from T. brucei present
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Chancre forms in bite wound
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Are there any intracellular stages with the African trypanosoma (T. brucei)?
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No
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Encephalomyelitis caused by T brucei can result in
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Sleepiness (African Sleeping Sickness)
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What is winterbottom sign and what is it associated with?
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Enlarged cervical lymph node, caused by T brucei
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What is special about T brucei's relationship with immune responses?
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Surface antigen variation, causes recurrent "waves" of parasitemia
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How is Toxoplasma gondii transmitted?
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Animal feces, especially cats.
|
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What parasitemia is often associated with owning cats
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Toxoplama gondii
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What life-stage is T gondii transmitted to humans in
|
Oocyst
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What life-stage of T gondii infects liver cells
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Tachyzoites
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What pathologies are associated with a Toxoplasma gondii infection
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Brain lesions, chorioretinitis, hepatitis, lymphadenitis
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What are the risks to a fetus with a mother newly infected with toxoplasma
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Congenital hydrocephalus, mental retardation
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How is Entamoeba histolytica transmitted?
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Fecal-oral transmission
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What life-stage is Entamoeba histolytica transmitted to a new individual in?
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Quadranucleate cysts
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What pathologies are associated with E hystolitica
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Liver abscess, brain abscess, flask-shaped ulcers in colon
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What life-stage of E histolytica invades colon tissue
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Trophozoites
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What are the histological indicators for E histolytica over other protozoa?
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Dark staining ring around nucleus, and phagocytosed RBCs
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How is Giardia lamblia transmitted?
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Fecal-oral pathway
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What life-stage is G lamblia in when transmitted to an individual
|
Quadranucleate cyst
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What life-stage of G lamblia infects surface of intestinal villi?
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Trophozoite
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What histological changes does a G lamblia infection cause
|
flattening of intestinal villi
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What symptoms are commonly associated with a G lamblia infection
|
Explosive, watery diarrhea
|
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What part of the adaptive immunity is protective against a giardia infection
|
Secretory IgA
|
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How is Cryptosporidium parvum transmitted
|
Fecal-oral transmission
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What life-stage is Cryptosporidium parvum transmitted in
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Sporulated oocyst
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What life-stage of Cryptosporidium parvum begins the spreading of infection to intestinal epithelia
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Sporozoites
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On intestinal surface Cryptosporidium parvum does what
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Undergoes sexual cycle, making macrogamont which releases oocysts
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What does Cryptosporidium parvum cause
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Severe diarrhea
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What can Cryptosporidium parvum cause in immunosuppressed individuals
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Wasting syndrome
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What is the mode of transmission for Trichomonas vaginalis
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Sexual intercourse
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What life-stage is Trichomonas vaginalis usually transmitted in
|
Trophozoite
|
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What type of pathogen is Trichomonas vaginalis
|
Extracellular GU pathogen
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Which microorganism has either DNA or RNA (not both)
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Viruses
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Are the ribosomes in bacteria the same ours?
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No
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Are the ribosomes in fungi the same as ours?
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Yes
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Are the ribosomes in viruses the same as ours?
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Trick question, viruses don't have ribosomes
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Describe the outer surface of a bacteria
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rigid wall, coated in peptidoglycan
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Describe the outer surface of fungi
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chitinous, rigid wall
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Describe the outer surface of viruses
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protein capsid
lipoprotein envelope |
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Describe the outer surface of protozoa/helminths
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flexible membrane
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What is the target of many antibiotics (ie penicillin)
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peptidoglycan layer of wall
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Do bacteria have a nucleus?
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No, they have a nucleoid
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Describe transcription/translation in bacteria and its significance
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Transcription and translation are coupled, can occur at same time in same place, yields fast production and rapid growth
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Describe transcription/translation in bacteria and its significance
|
Transcription and translation are coupled, can occur at same time in same place, yields fast production and rapid growth
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How many chromosomes are in a typical bacteria?
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One
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Describe the membrane bound organelles in a typical bacteria
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There are none
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How many chromosomes are in a typical bacteria?
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One
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List the components of a Gram-positive bacterial cell wall
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Protein, multiple layers of peptidoglycan, teichoic acid, lipoteichoic acid
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Describe the membrane bound organelles in a typical baceria
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There are none
|
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List the components of a Gram-positive bacterial cell wall
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Protein, multiple layers of peptidoglycan, teichoic acid, lipoteichoic acid
|
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List the components of a Gram-negative bacterial cell wall
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Lipopolysaccharide, outer membrane, wall peptidoglycan, cell membrane
|
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List the components of a Gram-negative bacterial cell wall
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Lipopolysaccharide, outer membrane, wall peptidoglycan, cell membrane
|
|
Describe transcription/translation in bacteria and its significance
|
Transcription and translation are coupled, can occur at same time in same place, yields fast production and rapid growth
|
|
Describe transcription/translation in bacteria and its significance
|
Transcription and translation are coupled, can occur at same time in same place, yields fast production and rapid growth
|
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How many chromosomes are in a typical bacteria?
|
One
|
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How many chromosomes are in a typical bacteria?
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One
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Describe the membrane bound organelles in a typical baceria
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There are none
|
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Describe the membrane bound organelles in a typical bacteria
|
There are none
|
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List the components of a Gram-positive bacterial cell wall
|
Protein, multiple layers of peptidoglycan, teichoic acid, lipoteichoic acid
|
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List the components of a Gram-negative bacterial cell wall
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Lipopolysaccharide, outer membrane, wall peptidoglycan, cell membrane
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List the components of a Gram-positive bacterial cell wall
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Protein, multiple layers of peptidoglycan, teichoic acid, lipoteichoic acid
|
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List the components of a Gram-negative bacterial cell wall
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Lipopolysaccharide, outer membrane, wall peptidoglycan, cell membrane
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What color do Gram-positive bacteria stain?
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Purple
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What color do Gram-negative bacteria stain?
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Pink/red
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Which type of bacteria have porins? (Gram-positive/negative)
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Gram-negative
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What main molecular subunits make up the peptidoglycan glycan chains?
|
N-acetylglucosamine (NAG), and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
|
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How do antibiotics like penicillin function?
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By blocking the peptido-glycan cross-linking
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What is the toxic component of LPS?
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Lipid A
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What are the main components of the LPS molecule on a bacterial cell wall?
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Lipid A, Core polysaccharide, O-specific chain polysaccharide
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Which type of bacteria will have LPS in their cell wall
|
Gram-negative
|
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Are their introns in bacterial DNA?
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No
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Are there exons in bacterial DNA?
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Yes
|
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What are bacterial capsules made of?
|
Polysaccharides
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Name a bacteria that does not have a capsule
|
Anthrax (?actual name? anthracine?)
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Pneumococcal and meningiococcal vaccines target what bacterial structure
|
Polysaccharide of capsule
|
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Gram-positive cocci include
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Streptococcus and staphylococcus
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Gram-positive, spore-forming rod, that is aerobic
|
Bacillus (anthrax)
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Gram-positive, spore-forming rod, anaerobic
|
Clostridium
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Gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod, nonfilamentous
|
Cornybacterium, Listeria
|
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Gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod, filamentous
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Nocardia
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Gram-negative cocci
|
Neisseria
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Gram-negative rod, facultative, straight, respiratory
|
Haemophilus, bordetella, legionella
|
|
Gram-negative rod, facultative, straight, zoonotic
|
Brucella, Francisella, Pasturella, Yersinia
|
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Gram-negative rod, facultative, straight, enteric
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E.coli, Enterobacter, Serratia, Klebsiella, Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus
|
|
Gram-negative rod, facultative, curved
|
Campylobacter, heliobacter, Vibrio,
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|
Gram-negative rod, aerobic
|
Pseudomonas
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Gram-negative rod, anaerobic
|
Bacteroides
|
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Extracellular, acid fast
|
Mycobacteria
|
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Obligate intracellular
|
Rickettsia, Chlamydia
|
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Flexible, thin-walled bacteria ?spirochetes?
|
Treponema, Borrelia
|
|
Wall-less cells
|
Mycoplasma
|
|
Describe basic composition of normal flora
|
mostly bacteria, some fungi
|
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Normal flora of skin
|
Staphylococcus epidermidis
|
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Normal flora of nose
|
Staphylococcus aureus
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Normal flora of mouth
|
Viridans streptococci
|
|
Normal flora of dental plaque
|
Streptococcus mutans
|
|
Normal flora of gingival crevices
|
various anaerobes; Bacteroides, fusobacterium, streptococci, actinomyces
|
|
Normal flora of throat
|
Viridans streptococci
|
|
Normal flora of colon
|
Bacteroides fragilis, Eschericha coli
|
|
Normal flora of vagina
|
Lactobacillus, E.coli, group B strep
|
|
EXAM QUESTION
What part of the adaptive immune system mainly handles pyogenic infections |
Humoral
|
|
Granulomatous infections are normally handled by what part of the adaptive immunity?
|
Cell-mediated
|
|
Define virulence
|
quantitative measure of pathogenicity (number required to cause infection), infectious dose
|
|
Define reservoir
|
normal habitat of organism
|
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Define fomites
|
inannimate objects that can be a source of transmission
|
|
List the stages of bacterial pathogenesis
|
Transmission, Evasion, Adhesion, Colonization & Spread, Damage, Response, Progression or Resolution of disease
|
|
Do certain Gram-positive or -negative bacteria produce exotoxin
|
Either can
|
|
Do gram-positive or -negative bacteria produce endotoxin
|
Most Gram-negative (LPS)
|
|
Is exotoxin secreted from the cell
|
Yes
|
|
Is endotoxin secreted from the cell
|
No (LPS released during breakdown of bacterial cell wall)
|
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What type of molecule is exotoxin
|
Polypeptide
|
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What type of molecule is endotoxin
|
Lipopolysaccharide
|
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Where are the genes located for exotoxin
|
Plasmid or bacteriophage
|
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Where are the genes located for endotoxin
|
On the bacterial chromosome
|
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Which is relatively more toxic exotoxin or endotoxin?
|
Exotoxin
|
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Clinical effects of endotoxin
|
Fever, shock
|
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Mode of action of endotoxin
|
Includes TNF and IL-1
|
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Antigenicity of exotoxin
|
Induces high-titer Abs called antitoxins
|
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Antigenicity of endotoxin
|
Poorly antigenic
|
|
What is more heat-stable, endotoxin or exotoxin
|
endotoxin
|
|
List Koch's postulates
|
1) Must always be found in similarly diseased animals, not in healthy ones. 2) Must be isolated from diseased animal and grown in pure culture. 3) Isolate must cause original disease in inoculated susceptible animal. 4) Must be reisolated from experimentally infected animal
|
|
Name a bacteria that is considered to be uniformally penicillin resistant worldwide
|
Neisseri gonorrhoeae
|
|
Is antibiotic resistance an acquired trait?
|
Y-E-S!
|
|
What drug can be combined with certain antibiotics to increase their efficacy?
|
Augmentin
|
|
What can chloramphenicol cause?
|
Aplastic anemia
|
|
What is synergism?
|
Combined antibiotic therapy
|
|
List four reasons why bacteria may be drug resistant
|
They acquire genes that encode resistance, Develop resistance on their own by mutation, Natural resistance, Pharmacokinetic factors
|
|
What are plasmids?
|
Small circular pieces of episomal (outside of chromosome) DNA
|
|
Would it be appropriate to call the structure of plasmids "modular"
|
Why of course
|
|
What is the only important part of a plasmid in order for it to exist
|
The site controlling replication, copy number, and incompatibility
|
|
What are the four main module types that are found on a plasmid
|
Replication, Conjugation, Mobilization, Passenger Genes
|
|
What is conjugation as it relates to bacteria?
|
Bacterial sex
|
|
Is conjugation species specific?
|
No, not really
|
|
How do genes end up on plasmids?
|
Transposons, jumping genes
|
|
What are transposons?
|
Short segments of DNA that have the ability to move from one length of DNA to another
|
|
What are the essential parts of a transposon?
|
Enzyme (transposase), specific labelling terminus (inverted repeats)
|
|
Can antibiotic resistance genes become associated with transposons?
|
Yes, we believe that this is part of how these genes can be transferred
|
|
What is a potential mode of long-distance transmission of genes in bacteria
|
Phage transmission
|
|
What is a phage
|
A bacterial virus
|
|
If a patient has a susceptible strain to an antibiotic and adheres to the prescribed treatment are they likely to develop resistance? Why?
|
No, acquisition is a rare event
|
|
Will prophylactic administration of antibiotics promote the occurrence of resistance?
|
Data suggests no
|
|
If a patient initially responds to antibiotics and then becomes more ill, what most likely happened
|
Infection from a second type of microbe ( as in nosocomial infection)
|
|
What is the number one predictor of having a drug resistant ear infection
|
The patient has used that antibiotic previously
|
|
Main weapons against antibiotic resistance?
|
Decreased use and appropriate use (removal of selective pressure)
|
|
What is the number one cultured bacteria in a microbiology laboratory?
|
Staphylococcus
|
|
What do staphylococci look like on a gram-stained slide?
|
Gram-positive (purple), cocci (rounded), in clusters. Look like bunches of grapes
|
|
Gram-stain of staphylococci
|
Gram-positive
|
|
If you have gram-positive cocci that are catalase positive, what might you have
|
Staphylococcus (?or micrococcus?)
|
|
If you have gram-positive cocci that are catalse negative, what might you have?
|
Streptococcus or enterococcus
|
|
How would you differentiate between Staph aureus and other Staph (eg S. epidermidis)
|
Coagulase test. (+) = S. aureus, (-) Coagulase negative (eg. S. epidermidis)
|
|
Is S. aureus hemolytic or non-hemolytic
|
hemolytic
|
|
Staphylococci are normal flora of what parts of the body
|
Anterior nares, Mucous membranes, skin, GI tract, vagina
|
|
List some of the virulence factors of S. aureus
|
Protein A, Fibronectin-binding protein, Hemolysins, PV Leukocidin, Secreted enzymes (lipases, proteases, DNAses, Hyaluronidase, Catalase, Coagulase)
|
|
What is Protein A of S aureus and what is its significance
|
Major cell wall protein, binds Fc of IgG and prevents complement activation, reducing opsonization and phagocytosis
|
|
What is the significance of fibronectin-binding protein in S aureus
|
Assists as adhesion factor and helps colonize host
|
|
If you have a patient with S aureus expressing PVL, where was it acquired
|
Community acquired MRSA
|
|
S aureus expressing PVL is associated with what diseases
|
Skin infections, furunculosis, severe hemorrhagic pneumonia
|
|
What does hyaluronidase do
|
hydrolyzes matrix of connective tissue
|
|
What does catalase do
|
converts H2O2 to H2O, may counteract neutrophil attack
|
|
What does coagulase do
|
converts fibrinogen to fibrin (via prothrombin activation), May help prevent phagocytosis through poor WBC motility in fibrin clots
|
|
What are the S aureus superantigen toxins
|
Stephylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome Toxin (SSSS), Toxic Shock Syndrom Toxin (TSST-1), Enterotoxins A-G
|
|
What chemicals cause food poisoning from S aureus
|
Enterotoxins A-G, heat stable
|
|
What bacteria can cause impetigo
|
S aureus or Group A Strep
|
|
What is erysipelas
|
Superficial cellulitis of skin with prominent lymphatic involvement
|
|
With endocarditis caused by S aureus, what might one see on a patient
|
Janeway spots, small embolic skin lesions
|
|
What is SSSS caused by
|
exfoliative toxins ETA and ETB (in infants)
|
|
What are the symptoms of TSST-1
|
High fever, rash resembling sunburn, desquamation, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, multi-organ involvement
|
|
Short-onset food poisoning suggests
|
S aureus
|
|
Is S aureus susceptible to penicillin
|
No, most strains are resistant
|
|
What protein incurs penicillin resistance in S aureus
|
beta-lactamase
|
|
Can coagulase negative Staph (CONS) cause infection
|
Yes, they are opportunistic
|
|
Which coag. neg. Staph. is often associated with UTIs
|
S saprophyticus
|
|
Which coag. neg. Staph. is often associated with infections of implanted artificial devices? Why?
|
S. epidermidis, produces "slime layer" which facilitates adherence and is a barrier to antibiotics
|
|
Which Strep. are beta-hemolytic
|
Group A strep, Group B strep
|
|
Streptococci will have which result for a catalase test?
|
Negative
|
|
What does beta hemolysis mean?
|
Complete hemolysis
|
|
What determines a streptococcus "group"
|
Carbohydrate antigens on cell surface
|
|
What does alpha hemolysis mean
|
Incomplete hemolysis, can see a "greening" on a blood-agar plate
|
|
What is the "real" name for Group A Strep?
|
S. pyogenes
|
|
What is the "real" name for Group B Strep?
|
S. agalactiae
|
|
S. pyogenes is also known as
|
Group A strep
|
|
S agalactiae is also known as
|
Group B strep
|
|
What is the habitat for Group A strep
|
Skin and mucous membranes
|
|
What is the habitat for Group B strep
|
GI tract, vagina, urethra
|
|
What is the habitat for S. pneumoniae
|
nasopharynx
|
|
Enterococci and Group-D non-enterococci are found in
|
GI tract
|
|
Viridans strep are found in
|
mouth, gums, teeth
|
|
What is the appearance of streptococci on a gram-stained slide
|
Gram positive (purple), cocci (rounded), in chains
|
|
Which Strep is bacitracin susceptible
|
Group A (S pyogenes)
|
|
Describe some important S. pyogenes exotoxins
|
Spe A & C (superantigens), Spe A,B,C cause scarlet fever
|
|
Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are involved in
|
pathogenesis of strep. toxic shock syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis
|
|
How does S pyogenes prevent attraction of phagocytic cells to infection site
|
C5a peptidase
|
|
What does streptokinase do
|
Dissolves clots
|
|
What virulence factor(s) do Strep and Staph have in common?
|
Hyaluronidase
|
|
Describe some ways that S pyogenes infectionscause damage
|
Supprative - direct damage by organism and secreted enzymes, Post-infectious sequelae - from autoimmune response cause by strep Ags, Toxin-mediated - strep exotoxins secreted into bloodstream
|
|
What is the number one cause of bacterial pharyngitis
|
Group A strep (S pyogenes)
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|
What are the symptoms indicative of a Group A strep caused pharyngitis
|
Red throat, petechiae on soft palate, grayish-whitish tonsillar exudates, enlarged and tender anterior cervical lymph nodes
|
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A patient presents complaining of a sore throat, you note a reddening of the pharynx, petechiae on soft palate, gray-white tonsillar exudate and enlarge lymph nodes... diagnosis?
|
Bacterial pharyngitis caused by S pyogenes (Group A)
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|
S pyogenes is associated with what post infectious sequelae
|
Acute rheumatic fever, and Acute glomerulonephritis
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|
What is a major reason to treat an S pyogenes infection in throat
|
Prevention of acute rheumatic fever (NOT acute glomerulonephritis)
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What are some indicators of scarlet fever?
|
Recent (?or current?) infection of S pyogenes followed by a "sandpaper-type" rash beginning on torso and spreading, white strawberry tongue proceeded by a red/pink strawberry tongue
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What are some diseases that Group B strep can cause and in whom
|
Sepsis, meningitis, and pneumonia in newborns, elderly, and immunocompromised
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What function does the polysaccharide capsule of S agalactiae serve
|
antiphagocytic
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Is S pneumoniae alpha, beta, or non-hemolytic
|
Alpha
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Which Strep is optochin sensitive
|
S pneumoniae
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How would S pneumoniae appear on a gram-stained slide
|
Gram-positive (purple), diplococci (two rounded attached circle)
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On a culture of S pneumoniae with an antibiotic disc, what does the P stand for
|
Pneumococcus (testing for optochin sensitivity)
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What bacteria is a common cause of otitis media
|
S pneumoniae
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What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia
|
S pneumoniae
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What is the number one virulence factor for S pneumoniae
|
Its polysaccharide capsule
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What part of the adaptive immunity is protective against S pneumonia infection
|
Humoral/Antibodies directed against the capsule
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Other than its capsule, what is a virulence factor for S pneumoniae
|
Autolysins allowing release of pneumolysins that attack mammalian cell membranes
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You have a alpha-hemolytic strep. that is optochin resistant, what might this be
|
Viridans streptococci
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What is the major risk of viridans (oral) strep.
|
endocarditis
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How would enterococci appear on a gram-stained slide
|
Gram-positive (purple), cocci (rounded) in pairs and short chains
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Which gram-positive cocci (that we have discussed) is bile salt tolerant
|
Enterococci
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Enterococci are important causes to consider in which diseases?
|
UTIs, endocarditis, intra-abdominal infections, bacteremia
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What are two species of enterococci that are commonly seen
|
E. faecalis and E. faecium
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Are groups A,B,C, and G beta-hemolytic strep penicillin susceptible?
|
Yes
|
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What common antibiotics might S pneumoniae be resistant to?
|
Penicillin, erythromycin, clindamycin, trimetoprim/sulfamethoxazole
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|
Metazoa (Helminths) have what three main life-stages
|
Eggs, larvae, adults
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|
What type of immunity is associated with controlling helminthic infections
|
Type 2 immunity. Eosinophilia
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|
Describe the main characteristics of nematodes
|
Nonsegmented roundworms, separate sexes, four larval molts
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What are the main infections caused by nematodes (generalized)
|
Intestinal and tissue infections
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|
Ascaris lumbricoides in known commonly as
|
giant roundworm
|
|
How is Ascaris lumbricoides acquired in humans
|
Eggs are ingested from soil or improperly prepared foods
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Where do the larvae of Ascaris lumbricoides hatch and where do they travel to (first)
|
Small intestines, travel through blood to liver and then on
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Describe the path of migration of Ascaris lumbricoides after hatching
|
Small intestines, liver, heart, lung capillaries, alveolar space, up trachea, reswallowed into small intestines
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How does an ascaris lumbricoides infection result in pneumonitis
|
Th2 induced eosinohpilia in alveolar tissue caused by larval stage passing through can cause inflammation
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|
What is the major interleukin associated with the Th2 response to an helminthic infection
|
?IL-5?
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|
How is a Trichuris trichiura infection acquired
|
eggs are ingested from soil
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Where do the larvae of a Trichuris trichiura hatch
|
Hatch in small intestine
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Does Trichuris trichiura invade body tissues?
|
No
|
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Does Ascaris lumbricoides invade body tissues
|
Yes (or at least they will puncture through tissues to get where they're going)
|
|
Where do adult Trichuris trichiura mature
|
Large intestine
|
|
Where do Trichuris trichiura females "like" to lay their eggs? What does this cause
|
Eggs lain around pararectal tissues, causes intense inflammation and can lead to a prolapsed rectum
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What is the common name for Trichuris trichiura?
|
Whip worm
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What is the common name for Enterobius vermicularis?
|
Pin worm
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How is an Enterobius vermicularis infection acquired?
|
Eggs contaminate fingers or surfaces and are then ingested
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Where do Enterobius vermicularis larvae hatch
|
Small intestine
|
|
Where do adult Enterobius vermicularis mature?
|
Large intestine
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Do Enterobius vermicularis invade body tissues?
|
no
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What is the common name for Strongyloides stercoralis
|
Threadworm
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|
How is a Strongyloides stercoralis infection acquired?
|
Larvae penetrate unbroken skin, perhaps through hair follicle
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|
Describe the pathway that Strongyloides stercoralis larvae will travel before becoming an adult?
|
Skin, Blood, Lungs, Up trachea, Small intestines
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|
What is a life-threatening complication of Strongyloides stercoralis in certain individuals
|
In immunocompromised, eggs can hatch in intestines and invade large intestines leading to autoinfection and potentially hyperinfection and/or lead to bacterial sepsis
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What is the common name for Necator americanus
|
Hookworm
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How does Necator americanus enter the body?
|
Larva penetrates unbroken skin (like Strongyloides stercoralis)
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|
Describe the pathway that Necator americanus takes once it enters the body
|
Skin, Bloodstream, Lungs Trachea, Small intestines
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|
Where do the adults of Necator americanus mature
|
Small intestine
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|
What is a particular complication of Necator americanus infection
|
Anemia due to metabolic demands put on body
|
|
What is a difference that might be seen in a CBC between intestinal nematodes and tissue nematodes?
|
Elevated peripheral eosinophils with tissue nematodes
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|
How does Trichinella spiralis enter the body
|
Larvae are ingested in undercooked meat
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Describe the immediate events of Trichinella spirallis after entering the body
|
Larvae released from nurse cells while in stomach, larvae enter small intestine and mature into adults
|
|
How do female Trichinella spiralis "give birth" to progeny
|
Newborn larvae are "shed" from female
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What happens to Trichinella spiralis larvae born in the small intestines
|
Enter lymph, travel through bloodstream to various tissues
|
|
What are some very serious pathologies associated with trichinella spiralis infection
|
Heart failure and CNS damage ?due to severe inflammation?
|
|
How does Dracunculus medinensis enter the body?
|
Ingested as larvae inside copepods
|
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Once in the body, how does a Dracunulus medinensis infection proceed
|
Larvae freed from copepods in small intestine penetrate intestinal wall then abdominal wall entering subcutaneous tissues and maturing to adults
|
|
Where do adult Dracunulus medinensis reside and what happens to their progeny
|
Adults mature in subcutaneous tissue and lymph nodes and larval progeny are released from blister
|
|
What is the main clinical manifestation of a Dracunulus medinensis infection
|
Lymphedema from blocked lymph nodes
|
|
What Metazoan infection might someone with dogs or cats be at risk for
|
Toxocara canis/cati
|
|
How does Toxocara canis/cati spread to humans
|
Eggs from dog/cat are ingested by human
|
|
Where do Toxocara canis/cati larva hatch
|
Small intestine
|
|
What do Toxocara canis/cati larva do once hatched
|
Penetrate intestinal wall and migrate via bloodstream. Disseminate similarly to Trichinella spiralis
|
|
What are the complications associated with Toxocara canis/cati
|
Intense inflammation in body tissues like the eye, CNS, and liver ~ 1 month after ingestion
|
|
How does Wuchereria bancrofti enter the body
|
Infected mosquito bites and deposits larvae on skin which enter through bite wound
|
|
Once in the body, how does Wuchereria bancrofti spread
|
from skin larvae enter lymphatics where adults mature, microfilariae then enter bloodstream at night
|
|
What is one possible complication of Wuchereria bancrofti
|
Sever lymphedema (elephantiasis)
|
|
How does Onchocerca volvulus enter the human body
|
infected blackfly deposits (vomits) larvae on skin which enter through bitewound
|
|
Where do Onchocerca volvulus mature into adults
|
within subcutaneous tissues and release microfilariae
|
|
What is a potential complication of Onchocerca volvulus
|
Blindness when larvae are deposited near eye causing intense Th2 response
|
|
How does Loa loa enter the human body
|
Infective fly deposits larva during meal onto skin and larvae enter through bite wound
|
|
Where do adult Loa loa mature
|
Subcutaneous tissues
|
|
When do adult Loa loa release microfilariae into blood
|
During the day (opposite of Wuchereria)
|
|
What are the intermediate hosts for trematodes (in general)
|
Snails and shellfish
|
|
What are some general characteristics of trematodes
|
Nonsegmented flatworms (flukes), adults have two suckers
|
|
What is the infectious stage of trematodes for shelfish
|
"Miracidia"
|
|
What is the infectious stage of trematodes for mammals
|
"Cercaria"
|
|
What is the common name for Schistosoma mansoni/japonicum
|
Blood/liver fluke
|
|
What is the common name for Schistosoma haematobium
|
Blood/bladder fluke
|
|
What is the common name for Clonorchis sinensis
|
Oriental liver fluke
|
|
What is the common name for Paragonimus westermani
|
Lung fluke
|
|
How does Schistosoma mansoni enter the body
|
Generally, from snail or shellfish, cercariae enter skin, such as through hair follicle
|
|
Path of Schistosoma mansoni after entering body
|
From skin, migrate to lungs the to liver
|
|
Where do adult Schistosoma mansoni live
|
Liver venules (in "constant copulation")
|
|
How do Schistosoma mansoni eggs laid in liver venules escape body
|
Proteases dissolve path either through biliary tree to intestine or directly to intestine, passed in feces
|
|
What are some complications of Schistosoma mansoni infection
|
Hepatitis leading to cirrhosis, portal hypertension
|
|
What is an identifying feature of Schistosoma mansoni in a stool sample
|
A lateral spine on the egg
|
|
How does a Schistosoma japonicum infection differ from a Schistosoma mansoni infection?
|
Larval forms may penetrate into other tissues causing problems other than hepatosplenomegally, CNS issues, cardiopulmonary issues, also possible for transverse myelitis. Otherwise the same
|
|
How does a Schistosoma haematobium infection differ from a Schistosoma mansoni infection?
|
Adults migrate to bladder and live in venous plexus releasing eggs into bladder/urine (different subsequent complications)
|
|
What are some complications of S haematobium?
|
Bladder inflammation/calcification and cancer
|
|
If you think your patient has Schistosoma haematobium, what should you order to confirm this diagnosis
|
Urine sample test
|
|
How does Clonorchis sinensis enter the body
|
Undercooked infected fish with metacercaria is ingested
|
|
Describe the events after Clonorchis sinensis enters the body
|
Larvae hatch in small intestine, larva enters bile ducts and adults mature there
|
|
How does Clonorchis sinensis cause issues
|
adults and their released eggs cause biliary obstructions
|
|
How does Paragonimus westermani enter the body
|
Consumption of raw or undercooked shellfish
|
|
What are the events after Paragonimus westermani enters the body
|
Worms hatch in small intestine, adults mature in lung, eggs released in lungs as cyst
|
|
How do paragonimus westermani eggs escape the body
|
Eggs dissolve path into alveoli and are coughed up
|
|
What tests would you order for a patient you suspected of having Paragonimus westermani
|
Sputum test
|
|
What are some basic characteristics of Cestodes (tapeworms)
|
They are segmented flatworms, have a scolex (head), and proglottids (body segment, infectious units)
|
|
How is Taenia saginata contracted
|
Cysticerci are ingested in undercooked beef
|
|
Where do cysticerci escape and mature
|
Escape in stomach, worms live and mature in small intestine
|
|
How does Taenia saginata resist peristaltic contractions forcing it out of the body
|
Scolex has four suckers which hold onto intestinal wall
|
|
How does Taenia solium differ from Taenia saginatum
|
T solium is from pigs and if you are infected with a gravid proglottid or eggs, onchospheres hatch in small intestine, penetrate tissues and form cysticercus in body tissues = inflammatory or scarring issues
|
|
What is cysticercosis
|
Infection from Taenia solium infecting various body tissues
|
|
What is a possible CNS issues caused by cysticercosis
|
Grand mal seizure
|
|
How does Diphyllobothrium latum differ from Taenia saginata
|
Contracted from fish
|
|
How is Echinococcus granulosus contracted
|
Eggs are ingested, passed from animal to human
|
|
Describe the events immediately after Echinoccocus granulosus enters the body
|
Oncospheres hatch in small intestine then enter bloodstream and penetrate tissues where cysts develop
|
|
What is the most common cause of significant pneumonia in a newly diagnosed AIDS patient
|
Pneumocystis
|
|
What should you think about/consider when an immunocompromised (HIV/AIDS) patient presents with a GM seizure
|
Toxoplasmosis
|
|
What are the two main Neisseriae that we are concerned with?
|
N. gonorrhoeae & N. meningitidis
|
|
What is the appearance of Neisseria on a Gram-stained slide?
|
Gram-negative (pink), diplococci (paired round), opposing ends flattened in kidney bean appearance
|
|
What are some general features of Neisseria
|
Gram-neg., diplococci, oxidase (+), strict aerobes, require added CO2 and enriched medium for growth
|
|
Are Neiserria aerobes/anaerobes, oxidase (+)/(-), Gram (+)/(-)
|
Strict aerobes, oxidase (+), Gram-neg.
|
|
What is gene conversion, as it relates to bacteria (ie N gonorrheoeae)
|
Recombination and shuffling of genes so that bacteria can express multiple pilins with different AA sequences
|
|
What role to pili play in N gonorrhoeae
|
Major virulence factor, enhance attachment of bacterium to host epithelial and mucosal cell surface, also inhibit phagocytosis
|
|
What are the major virulence factors of N gonorroeae
|
Pili, Outer membrane proteins (OMP I and OMP II, inhibit complemnet, promote invasion), IgA protease
|
|
What is the primary manifestation of a non-disseminated N gonorrhoeae infection
|
Pain and purulent discharge
|
|
What are the possible results of an N gonorrhoeae infection in men? Women?
|
Men-urethritis
Women-cervicitis, salpingitis, PID (could lead to ectopic pregnancy or sterility) |
|
What can be the manifestations of a disseminated N gonorrhoeae infection
|
Fever, polyarthralgia, rash
|
|
Other than reproductive organs, where might one observe an N gonorrhoeae infection
|
Within the rectum or pharynx
|
|
What is a risk to a baby being born to a mother with gonorrhea?
|
Gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum, prevent with eyedrops at birth
|
|
What is presumptive evidence for a N gonorrhoeae infection in males?
|
Gram stain of uretral exudates showing intracellular gram-negative diplococci (in females, neither sensitive nor specific)
|
|
What is the gold standard for N gonorrhoeae diagnosis?
|
Nucleic acid amplification
|
|
What are some things that help N meningitidis evade the immune system
|
Pili and IgA proteases
|
|
What type of immunity is protective against N meningitidis infection
|
Antibody to capsule
|
|
What is it about N meningitidis that can induce shock
|
Lipooligosaccharide (LOS), triggers TNF and IL-1
|
|
What does LOS on N meningitidis cause
|
Can induce shock, also activates coagulation system causing disseminated intravascular coagulation
|
|
What animal is the only natural host to N gonorrhoeae and N meningitidis
|
Humans
|
|
How is N menigitidis transferred from person-to-person
|
via close respiratory droplets
|
|
In whom do most cases of N meningitidis occur?
|
Infants and young adults, 3-12 months most at risk
|
|
What microbe is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome associated with?
|
N meningitidis, (endotoxic shock, DIC, bilateral hemorrhagic destruction of adrenal glands, circulatory collapse, death)
|
|
Meningiococcemia
|
Septicemia with petechial rash, associated with N meningitidis
|
|
Among survivors of N meningitidis, what are the significant sequelae
|
Neurological disabilities, amputation, hearing loss
|
|
What is echymosis
|
Coalesceing petechia
|
|
How would a N meningitis infection be identified
|
Gram stain of CSF, Culture of CSF and blood (on chocolate agar and increased CO2)
|
|
Is it common for N meningitis to have penicillin resistance
|
No
|
|
What should be done for close contacts of a patient with N meningitis
|
Prophylactic antibiotics
|
|
What are the vaccine option for N meningitis
|
Polysaccharide-diptheria toxoid conjugate vaccine - MCV4 (11-55yrs), Pollysaccharide vaccine (very young/old)
|
|
What are the general characteristics of acinetobacter
|
Gram-negative coccobacilli, oxidase neg., aerobic (SAME AS MORAXELLA)
|
|
What does "exposure" to acinetobacter cause?
|
Hospital acquired infections, particularly ventilator-associated pneumonia
|
|
What are the general characteristics of Moraxella catarrhalis
|
Gram-negative coccobacilli, oxidase positive, aerobic (SAME AS ACINETOBACTER)
|
|
What can a Moraxella catarrhalis infection cause
|
Otitis media, pneumoniae, conjunctivitis, and rarely CNS and joint infections
|
|
Describe the general characteristics of Corynebacteria
|
Small gram-positive, pleomorphic rods, tend to clump, non-motile, non-encapsulated, non-spore forming
|
|
What is the normal habitat of Corynebacteria? exceptions?
|
Normal flora of skin and respiratory tract, except for C. diptheriae
|
|
In what populations does diphtheria occur?
|
Non-immunized populations
|
|
What does C diphtheriae cause and how is it spread?
|
Causes local infection of throat or skin, spread as respiratory droplet
|
|
How does C diphtheriae cause damage
|
Local and systemic effects of diphtheria toxin which (ultimately) causes inhibition of preotein synthesis in the host
|
|
What is the respiratory form of C diphteriae likely to present with
|
A thick grayish exudate called a pseudomembrane on the tonsils, can obstruct airways
|
|
If a patient presents with a swollen neck and a thick grayish, adherent exudate on their tonsils, what might a diagnosis be
|
Respiratory form of C diphtheriae
|
|
What are the generalized symptoms of a C diphtheriae infection caused by absorption of toxin
|
Myocariditis (leads to congestive heart failure), Reversible paralysis of soft palate or eye muscles (or others), death from respiratory obstruction
|
|
Describe how Cutaneous diptheria might appear
|
Range from simple pustule to chronic non-healing ulcer, resolves with antitoxin Ab formaiton
|
|
What other infection does cutaneous diphtheria look like
|
Anthrax
|
|
What is the diphtheria vaccine?
|
DPT
|
|
What is Corynebacterium jeikeium associated with? Why might it be difficult to treat?
|
Wound infection, septicemia, endocarditis. Usually multi-resistant to antibiotics
|
|
What is Corynebacterium urealyticum associate with?
|
Chronic, recurrent UTIs
|
|
Describe the general characteristics of Bacillus anthracis
|
Gram-positive (purple), bacillus (elongated rod), "boxcar" or bamboo rod arrangement in chains, spore forming
|
|
Describe the spores of Bacillus anthracis
|
oval, central or terminal, do not take up stain
|
|
Is Bacillus anthracis hemolytic or non-hemolytic
|
Non-hemolytic
|
|
What is the rod-form of Bacillus anthracis also known as?
|
Vegetative form
|
|
What is germination, as it relates to Bacillus anthracis
|
Conversion of spores to vegetative (rod) bacilli
|
|
What is the process of Bacillus anthracis converting from the vegetative (rod) form into the spore form
|
Sporulation
|
|
What are the three virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis
|
poly-D-glutamic acid capsule, edema factor, lethal factor
|
|
Describe the properties of the capsule surrounding Bacillus anthracis
|
Composed of poly-D-glutamic acid, neg. charge inhibits phagocytosis by leukocytes
|
|
What are the three proteins associated with exotoxins that Bacillus anthracis elaborates
|
Protective antigen (PA), Edema factor (EF), Lethal factor (LF)
|
|
What is the role of protective antigen elaborated by Bacillus anthracis
|
Mediates internalization of edema factor and lethal factor into host cells
|
|
Describe the effect of edema toxin (EF + PA) on cells from Bacillus anthracis
|
Acts as calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase, increases cAMP, changes membrane permeability and EDEMA results
|
|
If a patient has inhaled Bacillus anthracis, what might one expect to see as a result
|
Widening of mediastinum with pleural effusions without infiltrates... (edema)
|
|
Describes the effect of Lethal toxin (LF + PA) on cells from Bacillus anthracis
|
Zinc dependent protease that interferes with signaling pathways of major phagocytic cells and can induce apoptosis and necrosis, hemorrhagic necrosis in tissues)
|
|
What are the three clinically presenting forms of anthrax
|
Cutaneous, Inhalational (Pulmonary), Gastrointestinal
|
|
How might a person acquire gastrointestinal anthrax
|
Consumption of contaminated materials such as with rotting meat
|
|
What is the appearance of cutaneous anthrax
|
Papule that develops into a painless black/red pustule - eschar
|
|
What are the early symptoms of an inhalational Bacillus anthracis infection
|
Malaise, fatigue, myalgia, mild fever, non-productive cough "FLU-LIKE"
|
|
What are the intermediate symptoms of an inhalational Bacillus anthracis infection
|
Positive blood cultures, mediastical lymphadenopathy, hemorrhagic pleural effusions (require drainage), severe dyspnea, hypoxemia, cyanosis, tachydcardia
|
|
What are the late fulminant symptoms of an inhalational Bacillus anthracis infection
|
Respiratory failure requiring intubation, meningitis, shock, high fatality rate
|
|
How might you sample to diagnose a Bacillus anthracis infection in each of its three forms
|
Cutaneous - swab of vesicle fluid, elcer/eschar
Inhalational - blood (CSF in meningeal) Gastrointestinal - feces, vomitus, blood |
|
What cells does Listeria monocytogenes infect
|
Monocytes, it's in the name
|
|
Describe the characteristics of Listeria monocytogenes
|
Gram-postive rod with "Chinese character clumping" pattern, may look like cocci in pairs, Catalase positive, tumbling motility at room temp
|
|
What might Listeria monocytogenes on Gram-stain be confused with? How can you tell the difference
|
Group B streptococcus. Listeria is catalase positive
|
|
Is Group B strep catalase positive or negative
|
Negative
|
|
Is Listeria catalase positive or negative
|
Positive
|
|
What would be seen on a blood agar culture of Listeria monocytogenes
|
Beta-hemolysis
|
|
Does refrigeration suppress Listeria growth
|
No
|
|
What species of Listeria will infect humans
|
Only L monocytogenes
|
|
What is a risk of unpasteurized dairy products
|
Listeria contamination causing food poisoning
|
|
Which groups of people are at the highest risk for lysteriosis
|
AIDS patients (300X), Pregnant women (20X, can be fatal to fetus), others normally at risk for infection
|
|
Is listeria an intracellular or extracellular pathogen
|
Intracellular
|
|
What are the steps in pathogenesis of Listeria monocytogenes
|
Phagocytosis; escape from phagolysosome by listeriolysin O (damages membranes); growth in cytosol and assemply of actin filament tail that form a pseudopod, spread to adjacent cells
|
|
After initial infection with Listeria monocytogenes, is there an extracellular stage
|
No, passes directly from one cell to the next
|
|
What are the two most common clinical presentations of Listeria monocytogenes infections
|
Septicemia and meningitis
|
|
What are the risks of a pregnant mother contracting listeriosis (other than normal risks)
|
Infection of child during birth, can also cause abortion or preterm delivery
|
|
Does humoral immunity play a role in fighting a Listeria infection
|
No
|
|
How would Listeria monocytogenes infections be identified in a lab
|
Culture of blood or CSF
|
|
What are the general characteristics of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
|
Gram-positive filamentous rod, catalse negative
|
|
If you have a patient who is a butcher, veterinarian. or fisherman with a skin infection, what might you consider as a cause
|
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
|
|
What bacteria might we have if our patient presents with a gram-positive anaerobic rod
|
Clostridium
|
|
What bacteria might we have if a patient presents with a gram-negative anaerobic rod
|
Bacteroides
|
|
What enzymes that break down toxic oxygen intermediates are anaerobes missing
|
Catalase, peroxidase, superoxide dismutase, etc.
|
|
What might a clostridia species be confused with on a simple gram-stain slide
|
A bacillus species, must take into account aerobic vs anaerobic
|
|
What are the general characteristics of Clostridia
|
Gram-positive anaerobic spore-forming rods, large & boxcar shaped, catalase negative
|
|
What species of Clostridia (that we are concerned with) are found in soil
|
C tetani, C botulinum
|
|
Where is Clostridium perfringens normally found in humans
|
Normal flora of vagina and GI tract
|
|
What pathologies can Clostridium perfringens cause
|
gas gangrene (myonecrosis), cellulitis, sepsis, food poisoning
|
|
What is the most important exotoxin produced by C perfringens and what does it do?
|
Alpha-toxin, phospholipase activity causing cell lysis,
|
|
What is a result of the enterotoxin released by C perfringens
|
Alters intestinal epithelial permeability, releasing fluid into the lumen
|
|
What are some of the enzymes that promote gas gangrene caused by C perfringens
|
Proteases, DNases, Hyaluronidase, Collagenases... liquefy tissues
|
|
Other than Clostridium perfringens, what bacteria might cause gas gangrene (myonecrosis)
|
Clostridium septicum
|
|
What is gas gangrene usually due to?
|
introduction of clostridium spores into tissues
|
|
What are some risks from gas gangrene other than loss of tissue
|
Toxins may be carried to other organs causing systemic effects such as shock, renal failure, or intravascular hemolysis... death
|
|
What is an infection that has been associated with colon cancer
|
Clostridium septicum
|
|
A patient presents with nausea, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea between 8-18 hours after eating at a potluck party, you're thinking food-poisoning (it's not diabetes and not a broken arm). What organism might be responsible?
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
Enteritis necroticans (nectrotizing bowel disease) has a high mortality rate, what organism can be responsible for this
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
What disease is associated with abortions performed with inadequately sterilized instruments or "illegal abortions", what organism causes this
|
Clostridial endometritis, caused by C perfringens
|
|
What is a notable characteristic of C perfringens on a blood agar culture
|
A double zone of hemolysis
|
|
What is a common cause of botulism in the US
|
Home canning of foods (improper)
|
|
What is a cause of wound botulism
|
Injection/use of black-tar heroin
|
|
Botulism is caused by what organism
|
Clostridium botulinum
|
|
What does botulinum toxin do
|
Blocks neurotransmitter release of Ach by blocking vesicles, muscle paralysis results
|
|
Is the botulinum toxin release by Clostridium botulinum neutralized by stomach acid
|
No
|
|
What are the symptoms of food-borne/classic botulism
|
double vision, blurred vision, symmetrical paralysis, difficulty swallowing, no fever or signs of sepsis
|
|
What is a risk of feeding infants honey
|
Infant botulism
|
|
What are symptoms of infant botulism
|
Constipation, feeding problems, lethargy, poor muscle tone, possible paralysis and respiratory arrest
|
|
An infant presents with constipation, feeding problems, lethargy and poor muscle tone. He is wearing a Winnie the Pooh shirt with a sticky substance on it. What might your diagnosis be
|
Infant botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum spores in honey
|
|
What are the general characteristics of Clostridium tetani
|
Anaerobic gram-positive, spore-forming, found in soil, animal feces
|
|
What are most cases of Clostridium tetani infections caused by
|
Puncture wounds
|
|
What cells does tetanus toxin attack
|
Peripheral neurons
|
|
What does tetanus toxin do
|
Blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitter in peripheral neurons, causes unopposed contraction of muscles
|
|
What is the vaccine against tetanus toxin
|
DPT
|
|
What does Clostridium difficile cause in humans
|
antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis
|
|
What is the toxin produced by C difficile that is responsible for virulence
|
Toxin B
|
|
What is a risk for the patient after antibiotic treatment to cure a C difficile infection
|
Relapse
|
|
What is the number one nosocomial infection
|
Clostridium difficile
|
|
What is the predominant bacteria found in the human gut
|
bacteroides
|
|
What is an anaerobic gram-negative rod associated with head and neck infections pulmonary infections, brain abscesses, and genital tract infections
|
Prevotella/Porphorymonas
|
|
Fusobacteria are normal flora of what body parts
|
Mouth, female genital tract, colon, can cause disease at any of these locations
|
|
What anaerobic gram-positive rod should be of concern with implantable devices
|
Propionibacterium acnes
|
|
What conditions are associated with gram-negative enteric organisms
|
Sepsis, Gastrointestinal infections, Urinary tract infections
|
|
Almost all gram-negative enteric rods have their reservoirs where (either in humans or animals)
|
GI tract
|
|
What are the seven "F"s and what are they associated with
|
Feces, finger, flies, food, fluids, fomites, fornication; associated with the fecal oral transmission of gram-negative enteric rods
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of gram-negative enteric rods
|
Toxin mediated or invasive (or both): fluid loss; inflammation/cell death; vascular effects
|
|
Enterotoxins from gram-negative enteric rods typically effects what location and causes what
|
Small intestine, causes watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting
|
|
Invasins released by gram-negative enteric bacteria are typically associated with what location and what can they cause
|
Large intestines: bloody diarrhea, fever, cramps, leukocytes in stool, immune evasion
|
|
What are the laboratory diagnostic tools used in evaluating gram-negative enteric rods
|
Gram stain, lactose fermentation, H2S production, oxidase reaction, motility, presence of leukocytes in stool,
|
|
How might a lactose test (organism grown on MacConkey agar) be helpful in identifying organisms in a stool sample
|
Differentiating between lactose(+) organisms of normal flora (ie E coli) and lactose (-) organisms that are abnormal (ie Shigela)
|
|
What genus might a gram negative anaerobic rod be
|
Bacteroides, Fusobacterium or Prevotella
|
|
What genus might a gram negative cocci be
|
Neisseria, Moraxella, Acinetobacter
|
|
What genus might a fastidious gram negative facultative/aerobic rod found intracellularly be from
|
Legionella
|
|
What genus might a fastidious gram negative facultative/aerobic rod found extracellularly be from
|
Haemophilus, Bordetella, Campylobacter, Helicobacter
|
|
What genus might a gram negative facultative/aerobic that is oxidase positive be from
|
Pseudomonas, Vibrio, Campylobacter, Helicobacter
|
|
What genus might a gram negative facultative/aerobic that is oxidase negative and lactose positive be from
|
Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, Citrobacter (also E coli)
|
|
What genus might a gram negative facultative/aerobic that is oxidase negative and lactose negative be
|
Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus, Yersinia
|
|
What species (and type) might a gram negative facultative/aerobic that is oxidase negative, lactose positive and sorbitol negative be
|
E coli O157:H7
|
|
What genus might a gram negative rod that is urease positive be from
|
Proteus, Klebsiella, Helicobacter, Ureaplasma
|
|
What are the Enterobacteriaceae?
|
Facultative, oxidase neg, ferment glucose: E coli, Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus, Yersinia
|
|
Describe the Vibrionaceae
|
Facultative, curved rods, oxidase positive
|
|
Describe the campylobacteriaceae
|
Curved microaerophilic, oxidase positive
|
|
Describe Helicobacter
|
curved, microaerophilic, oxidase positive, urease positive
|
|
Describe the Pseudomonadaceae
|
aerobes, oxidase positive
|
|
Which gram negative organisms tend to be less pathogenic Lactose positive or lactose negative
|
Lactose positive
|
|
What are the four types of E coli that can cause GI disorders
|
Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
Enteropathogenic (EPEC) Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC) Enteroinvasive (EIEC) |
|
What is the type of E coli that causes UTIs
|
Uropathogenic E coli
|
|
What is the type of E coli associated with sepsis and meningitis in neonates
|
Encapsulated E coli
|
|
What is the presentation of Enterotoxigenic E coli
|
Traveller's diarrhea, watery for several days. Toxin mediated infection causes nausea, vomiting, NO blood or mucus in feces. Self limiting
|
|
What type of immunity protects against Enterotoxigenic E coli
|
IgA
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of Enterotoxigenic E coli
|
Eterotoxin release causes hypersecretion of chloride ions and water due to increases in cAMP and cGMP
|
|
What are the virulence factors of Enterotoxigenic E coli
|
Colonization factor antigens (CFA) on pili helping to bind to small intestine. Heat labile and heat stable enterotoxins
|
|
An increase of intracellular cAMP in the small intestine epithelia caused by bacteria will cause what
|
Increased leaking of Na and Cl into the intestinal lumen (water follows) causing watery diarrhea
|
|
What is the reservoir of Enteropathogenic E coli
|
The human colon (no animals)
|
|
What is the presentation of Enteropathogenic E coli
|
Watery diarrhea, mostly in infants and children in developing countries; fever and vomiting may occur; self-limiting
|
|
What are the virulence factors of Enteropathogenic E coli
|
Bundle-Forming Pili (BFP), can cause loss of microvili, No particular toxin
|
|
What is the presentation of Enterohemorrhagic E coli (EHEC - O157:H7)
|
Mild to copius Bloody diarrhea; severe abdominal pain/cramps; little or no fever
|
|
If Enterohemorrhagic E coli (EHEC - O157:H7) progresses to hemorrhagic collitis, what can follow
|
Hemolytic uremic syndrome leading to acute renal failure
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of Enterohemorrhagic E coli (EHEC - O157:H7)
|
Consumption of contaminated foods, less than 100 organisms is needed
|
|
How does Enterohemorrhagic E coli (EHEC - O157:H7) cause its most severe damage
|
Release of shiga-toxin that destroy LARGE intestine microvilli, toxin enters blood stream causing endothelial damage and platelet aggregation leads to kidney damage
|
|
What is the presentation of Enteroinvasive E coli
|
Fever and scant-bloody diarrhea with pus in young children in developing countries
|
|
Where does Enteroinvasive E coli bind in the human body
|
Large intestine (That's why we can see blood in patients' stool)
|
|
Which two forms of E coli bind in the small intestine
|
ETEC, EPEC
|
|
In which form of E coli is fever common? Absent?
|
Common in EIEC, absent in ETEC
|
|
What is the presentation of uropathogenic E coli
|
UTI (more common in women); Cystitis (bladder infection with dysuria and frequent urination); Pyelonephritis (kidney infection with dysuria, fever, shaking chills, flank pain, nausea, vomiting)
|
|
An eighteen year old, sexually active, patient complains of pain on frequent urination, flank pain, nausea, and fever. What is your diagnosis
|
uropathogenic E coli
|
|
Is uropathogenic E coli motile or non-motile
|
Motile, helps in travelling up urinary tract
|
|
What is the presentation of Extraintestinal (systemic) E coli
|
Neonatal meningitis (can also be caused by Group B strep and Listeria), nosocomial (urinary catheter) infections in compromised
|
|
What organisms can cause neonatal meningitis
|
Extraintestinal E coli, Group B strep, Listeria
|
|
What are some complications associated with Extraintestinal E coli infections
|
Sepsis, endotoxic shock, pneumonia
|
|
What organism causes a "true" dysentery type diarrhea? Describe this diarrhea
|
Shigella; scant, bloody, mucus/pus, leukocyets in stool
|
|
What is the presentation of Shigella
|
Initial watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever, dysentery diarrhea follows
|
|
Where/what does Shigella bind and what happens to them, what are the immediate results
|
Selectively binds M cells in LARGE intestine, taken in and escapes endosome to enter cytoplasm -> inflammation and cell death
|
|
What can Shigella dysenteriae cause
|
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome leading to renal failure similar to EHEC
|
|
Does a shigella infection resolve itself?
|
In most cases of healthy individuals, yes
|
|
Both Shigella and Salmonella are lactose negative, how can they be told apart in the lab
|
Shigella is H2S negative
|
|
How often does Shigella enter the blood stream
|
rarely
|
|
What is the main reservoir of Shigella? Salmonella?
|
Shigella-humans; Salmonella-animals
|
|
Which requires more organisms to cause infection Shigella or Salmonella
|
Salmonella
|
|
Which can more easily invade the bloodstream, shigella or salmonella
|
Salmonella
|
|
Where does salmonella bind during initial infection
|
BOTH small and large intestines
|
|
In a patient you suspect of having Salmonella, what samples should you send to the lab
|
BOTH stool and blood samples
|
|
Is salmonella motile or non-motile
|
Motile
|
|
What is the reservoir of Salmonella typhi
|
Chronic human carriers
|
|
Why is Salmonella typhi so dangerous
|
It can easily get into the bloodstream and can survive in macrophages
|
|
"Rose spots" are associated with what microbe infection
|
Salmonella typhi
|
|
What species is most common bacterial cause of diarrheal disease
|
Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
Does campylobacter have a high or low infectious dose
|
Low
|
|
What is the presentation of campylobacter
|
Watery to bloody diarrhea with fever and sever abdominal pain
|
|
What tissues does campylobacter invade
|
jejunum, ileum, and colon
|
|
What autoimmune reaction is campylobacter jejuni associated with
|
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
|
|
Describe the labs for Campylobacter
|
Fastidious, Gram(-) curved rod, oxidase (+)
|
|
What is the presentation of Yersinia
|
Bloody diarrhea, enterocolitis similar to salmonella and shigella after exposure to contaminated foods
|
|
What is the source and what is the reservoir of Vibrio
|
Animal source, human reservoir
|
|
Is the infectious dose of vibrio high or low
|
Very high
|
|
What is the presentation of Vibrio
|
"Rice Water" stools, watery and cloudy, copious amounts
|
|
Where does Vibrio adhere
|
Small intestines
|
|
What toxin does Vibrio secrete
|
Cholera toxin
|
|
Other than Vibrio cholera, what are the other two Vibrio species to be aware of
|
V parahemolyticus (dysenteric diarrhea), V vulnificus (septicemia risk)
|
|
What are the lab diagnosis features of Vibrio
|
Gram(-) curved rod, oxidase (+), very motile
|
|
What organisms cause copious watery stool with no blood or pus, no tissue invasion, and is in the small intestine
|
Vibrio cholerae, ETEC
|
|
What organisms cause scant bloody stool with mucus and pus, has tissue invasion, and is in the large intestine
|
Shigella, Entamoeba histolytica
|
|
What organisms cause copious, thickened blood with no leukocytes, has tissue invasion and is in the large intestine
|
EHEC
|
|
What organisms cause copious liquid, bloody, or blood-tinged stool with pus, tissue invasion and is in the ileum and colon
|
Salmonella, Campylobacter jejuni, Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
Food poisoning with an onset of 1-6 hours could be caused by
|
Bacilus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
Food poisoning with an onset of 8-16 hours could be caused by
|
Clostridium perfringens, Bacilus cereus
|
|
Food poisoning with an onset of >16 hours could be caused by
|
Campylobacter jejuni, Clostridium botulinum, E coli, Shigella
|
|
What tissue does helicobacter colonize
|
Stomach
|
|
What enzymes does helicobacter release that help it to colonize the stomach
|
Mucinase, ureases (releases ammonia)
|
|
What are the laboratory diagnostic features of Helicobacter
|
Gram(-) curved rod, oxidase(+), urease (+), motility(+), microaerophilic, urea breath test, endoscopy/biopsy culture
|
|
What is the presentation of Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
Bronchopneumonia, lung abscess, UTI, wound infections
|
|
What is a notable virulence factor of Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
Luxurious complex capsular polysaccharide
|
|
A patient with respiratory Klebsiella pneumoniae infection will have sputum with what appearance
|
Like currant jelly
|
|
What are the laboratory diagnostic features of Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
Short plump Gram(-) rod, lactose (+), Urease (+), non-motile
|
|
What bacteria has a "swarming motility"
|
Proteus
|
|
What bacteria secrete urease
|
Proteus, klebsiella, helicobacter
|
|
What are some characteristics of Haemophilus influenzae
|
Gram negative pleomorphic rods with fastidious growth requirements
|
|
Are Haemophilus influenzae capsulated or unencapsulated
|
Could be either depending on type
|
|
Do Haemophilus influenzae require aerobic or anaerobic environments to grow
|
Could be either (or both)
|
|
What growth factors might Haemophilus influenzae require that are found in blood
|
X factor - protoporphyrin IX, hemin precursor
V factor - NAD or NADP |
|
Which form of Haemophilus influenzae are normal flora of the upper respiratory tract
|
Unencapsulated strains
|
|
Haemophilus influenzae normally cause infections in what group of people
|
Children
|
|
Invasive diseases that can be caused by Haemophilus influenzae include what
|
Meningitis, Epiglottitis, Cellulitis, Osteomyelitis, Sepsis, Pneumonia, Septic arthritis
|
|
Noninvasive diseases that can be caused by Haemophilus influenzae include what
|
Conjunctivitis, Sinusitis, Otitis media
|
|
Why will Haemophilus influenzae not grow on normal blood agar, why does it require chocolate agar as growth media
|
V-factor is inactivated in blood-agar and therefore is not available to H influenzae
|
|
What is the major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae? What is protective against the bacteria?
|
The capsule (PRP in type B), Ab against capsule in protective (must be specific to type of H influenzae
|
|
What is an effect that the LOS on the outer membrane of Haemophilus influenzae has on respiratory epithelium
|
Exerts a paralyzing effect
|
|
List the major virulence factors of Haemophilus influenzae
|
Capsule, LOS, IgA proteases
|
|
Describe the pathogenesis of Haemophilus influenzae type b
|
Infection by inhalation of infection droplets, invasion of blood stream (type b capsule is essential for invasion), replication in blood and seeding of various sites
|
|
How might neurological sequelae occur in children who recover from Haemophilus influenzae type b
|
Damage caused by organism itself as well by cytokine release in host response.
|
|
Why might Haemophilus influenzae infection be rare during the first three months of life
|
maternal antibody
|
|
What organism is the cause of whooping cough in humans
|
Bordetella pertussis
|
|
What is whooping cough also known as
|
pertussis
|
|
What two organisms can produce pertussis-like symptoms in humans
|
Bordetella pertussis and Bordetella parapertussis
|
|
Describe the characteristics of Bordetella pertussis
|
Gram negative rod, non-motile, only grows on special media containing starch or charcoal to remove fatty acids
|
|
If you want laboratory confirmation that your patient has whooping cough, what must you indicate to the lab running samples
|
That you are looking for Bordetella pertussis so that they can culture the sample on special media
|
|
Is Bordetella pertussis invasive of body tissues
|
No?
|
|
What is the major virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis? Describe it
|
Pertussis toxin, classic A-B toxin (A portion is toxic and enters cell, B is receptor)
|
|
What does the Pertussis Toxin do upon entering the cell
|
A toxin splits NAD into nicotinamide and ADP-ribose which inactivates G1 protein controlling adenylate cyclase activity leading to build up of cAMP causing the cell to secrete massive amounts of fluids and electrolytes
|
|
What are the three stages of pertussis
|
Catarrhal phase - Runny nose, malaise, fever
Paroxysmal phase - cough, vomiting, leukocytosis Convalescence |
|
What stage of pertussis is the most contagious
|
Catarrhal
|
|
What are the diagnostic tools in identifying a patient with pertussis in the catarrhal (early) stage
|
DFA (direct fluorescent antibody)
PCR Serology (for IgG and IgA against B pertussis antigens) |
|
Describe the characteristics of Legionella
|
Fastidious Gram-negative aerobic bacilli
|
|
Most documented infections in the US by Legionella pneumophila have been
|
serogroup 1 strains
|
|
How is legionnaires disease (caused by legionella) acquired
|
Inhalation of aerosolized water contaminated with Legionella pneumophila
|
|
What organism is responsible for the short-onset disease known as Pontiac fever
|
Legionella
|
|
What people is Legionella most likely to infect
|
The elderly and immunocompromised
|
|
What are the expected symptoms of Legionnaires disease
|
Varies from mild to severe pneumonia characterized by fever, cough and proressive respiratory distress
|
|
An elderly patient presents with moderate pneumonia, fever, cough, and increasing respiratory distress. His wife reports that he had recently used their old jacuzzi. What might he have?
|
Legionnaires disease
|
|
What are the expected symptoms of Pontiac fever
|
No pneumonia, occurs in epidemic characterized by self-limited influenza-like manifestations
|
|
What are some diagnostic tests for a patient infected with Legionella
|
Sputum culture, DFA sputum stain, Urinary antigen, serum antibody
|
|
What are the three main non-invasive gram-negative bacteria that Dr. S discussed
|
Vibrio cholera, ETEC, EPEC
|
|
Where is Pseudomonas aeruginosa found (in general)
|
Everywhere, it is ubiquitous, "biofilm"
|
|
What are the major characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
Obligate aerobe, oxidase (+), motile, encapsulated by glycocalyx/slimelayer, minimal nutritional requirements, highly resistant to antibiotics, pigmented
|
|
Suppose you found, in the lab, an obligate aerobe that is oxidase (+), motile, and forms slimy blue/green colonies, what might you have?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
What is the only lactose negative organism that is oxidase positive?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
What is a common mode of transmission of Pseudomonas in a hospital setting
|
Respiratory therapy equipment
|
|
How might Pseudomonas be transmitted
|
On or in just about anything that is wet
|
|
What are the virulence factors of Pseudomonas
|
Pili & flagella for adherence/colonization
Glycocalyx Proteolytic Enzymes *Exotoxin A - like C diptheriae Endotoxin-LPS |
|
CF patients are at increased risk for infection by what type of Gram negative bacteria?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
What are likely sources or risk factors for development of a localized pseudomonas infection
|
Wounds (esp burns)
Whirlpools & tubs |
|
What are the complications of a systemic Pseudomonas infection
|
Just about everything you could imagine of systemic bacterial infections
|
|
A patient presents with an infected burn wound coated in a white-ish green pus and smells of a fruity odor. What organism might be responsible for this infection
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
Is there a vaccine for Pseudomonas
|
No
|
|
What are the characteristics of Brucella
|
Aerobic facultative intracellular parasite, small poorly staining, very hardy, prolonged incubation to culture
|
|
What is the major virulence factor of Brucella
|
LPS
|
|
How is Brucella transmitted
|
Contact with or consumption of infected fluids from animals (esp. cows)
|
|
Does Brucella have a high or low infective dose
|
Low
|
|
What is it important to know about Brucella pathogenesis
|
It can easily penetrate into the blood
|
|
A dairy farm worker presents with chills, weight loss, depression, and pain in his joints. He also has a fever that rises during the day and decreases at night. What might he be infected with
|
Brucella
|
|
What organism causes tularemia (rabbit fever)
|
Francisella tularensis
|
|
Describe the characteristics of Francisella tularensis
|
Gram-neg., small pleomorphic coccobacilli, lipid-rich capsule, strict aerobe, has endotoxin, no exotoxin, Facultative intracellular parasite)
|
|
What is the mode of transmission for Francisella tularensis to humans
|
Arthropod vectors (and deerfly) or animal contact/abrasions
|
|
Is the infectious dose of Francisella tularensis high or low
|
Very low
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of Francisella tularensis
|
Begins cutaneously as erythematous papule, ulcerates, persists, then organism spreads to RES system via lymph
|
|
What are the symptoms of Tularemia
|
Acute onset, flu-like chills, fever, headache, malaise, fatigue, anorexia and papules on skin as well as lymphadenopathy
|
|
Is there a vaccine for tularemia
|
Experimental live vaccine
|
|
How is Tularemia diagnosed
|
Clinical history (exposure), lab growth, Serodiagnosis is best (IgG titers)
|
|
What organism causes "The Black Plague"
|
Yersinia pestis
|
|
What are the characteristics of Yersinia pestis
|
Gram-neg. rod, bipolar staining, oxidase neg., LPS capsule, facultative intracellular
|
|
What are the major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis
|
LPS, capsule, many Yersinia Outer Proteins that inhibit effectiveness of immune response
|
|
What is the infectious dose of Yersinia pestis
|
Extremely low (1-10 orgs)
|
|
If Yersinia pestsis loses its capsule, can it still cause disease?
|
No
|
|
What is the mode of transmission of Yersinia pestis
|
Fleas transmitting bacteria from infected animals (squirrels and rats, etc)
|
|
A patient presents with an enlarged lymph node, on physical exam you notice scratches on their hand. You ask if they have a cat, they say yes. What might the cause of the lymphadenopathy be
|
Bartonella
|
|
A patient presents with a wound from a dog bite that is developing cellulitis around it. Should you suture the wound? Why/Why not?
|
No, Pasteurella grows better when wound is sutured
|
|
What are the general characteristics of Spirochetes
|
Long, slender, motile, flexible, gram(-) bacilli (corkskrew)
|
|
What are the three spirochetes that we need to know
|
T pallidum, Borrelia, Leptospira
|
|
What organism causes syphilis
|
T pallidum
|
|
What organism causes lyme disease
|
Borrelia
|
|
How is T pallidum cultured in vitro
|
It can't be, only grown in rabbit testes
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of T. pallidum
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Transmission either sexual contact or transplacentally, enters via break in skin or penetration of mucous membranes, no exotoxin or endotoxin, **Injury may be due to prolonged DTH response**
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Primary syphilis presents with what approximately how long after innoculation
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3 weeks (at least), chancre on site of innoculation
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Secondary syphilis presents with what
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Rash that starts on plams and soles of feet, can also have systemic appearances (hepatitis, meningitis)
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Tertiary syphilis presents with what
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Gumma on skin (granulomatous lesion), degeneration of nervous system and cardiovascular problems
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What are some added risks of congenital syphilis
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Fetal death, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth
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How is the organism identified in a patient you suspect of having syphilis
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Can be visualized under darkfield microscopy from primary and secondary lesions (sometimes), Usually diagnosed by serological tests
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Which is larger T pallidum or Borrelia burgdorferi
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Borrelia burgdorferi
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What are some characteristics of Borrelia burgdorferi
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Large spirochete, flagellated, Do not make endo or exotoxins
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What is the most common vector-borne infection in the United States
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Lyme disease
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What is the pathogenesis of Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
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Vector-born infection transmitted by deer/rodent tick
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What are some clinical findings associated with Borrelia burgdorferi
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Tick bite, Erythema migrans (potentially bulls-eye shaped rash) within 1-4 wks, joint pain and neruological complications (wks to mos), chronic arthritis and CNS disease (mos to yrs)
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What are the ways of identifying the organism in labs looking for Borrelia burgdorferi
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Can be cultured, but slow and difficult, serological tests, PCR
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What organisms that we have discussed present with relapsing fever
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Bartonella (~5 days), Borrelia recurrentis (~4-10 days)
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How is Leptospira interrogans contracted
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transmitted by food or water contaminated with animal urine or feces (swimming in contaminated water)
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How might one identify an atypical bacterial respiratory infection caused by mycoplasma or chlamydia instead of staph or strep
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Gradual onset of symptoms, non-productive and scant sputum, no bacteria on sputum smear, patchy pneumonia (not lobar)
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What bacteria have no cell wall
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Mycoplasma
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What are some characteristics of Mycoplasma
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No cell wall, lipid bilayer contains sterols, fastidious (require cholesterol) "fried egg" colony appearance
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Would penicillin be effective against Mycoplasma? Why?
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No, no cell wall for penicillin to act on
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What is the transmission of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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Inhalation of infected respiratory droplets
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How does mycoplasma pneumoniae cause damage
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Binds and inhibits ciliary action so mucosa desquamates
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How is Mycoplasma pneumoniae identified in lab tests
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Seroligically (cultures too slow growing)
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What are two genital Mycoplasma
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Ureaplasma and M hominis
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What are the organisms that you would expect to produce Urease
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Helicobacter, Proteus, Klebsiella, Ureaplasma
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What organism is an obligate intracellular organism
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Chlamydiae
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What are the characteristics of Chlamydiae
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Obligate intracellular, dual-lipid bilayer, no peptidoglycan (still has LPS)
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What are the two forms that Chalmydiae are found in, in the body
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Reticulate body and elementary body (spore like)
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What organism is responsible for the most common STD
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Chalmydia trachomatis
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Is Chlamydia trachomatis invasive?
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Rarely
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What are some risks aside from those directly related to the infection of a Chlamydia trachomatis infection
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PID, sterility, atopic pregnancy
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How will Chlamydia trachomatis appear on a gram-stain
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it won't
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What does Chlamydophila pneumoniae cause
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Atypical pneumonia
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What does Chlamydophila psittaci cause and how is it transmitted
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Acquired from dried feces of parrot family birds, Atypical pneumonia
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Rickettsiae mainly cause problems where
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within the vasculature
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The rickettsiae are normally transmitted by what
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Arthropod vectors
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A patient presents with rash, fever, and headache, what should you be considering at this point?
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Rickettsia and other tick-borne infections
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What is a major virulence factor for Rickettsia
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Phospholipase A, causes damage and escape from phagolysosomes
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What organisms mobilize actin
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Listeria, Shigella, Rickettsia
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The vasculatory effects of Rickettsia will/may lead to what
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Rash, high fever, malaise, headache, vascular collapse (tissue anoxia, drop in BP, shock)
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Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by what organism
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Rickettsia rickettsii
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The rash associated with Rocky mountain Spotted Fever could be confused for what other disease
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Syphillis
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Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) is transmitted by what
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NOT by arthropods (exception among rickettsia) transmitted by inhalation or abrasion
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Coxiella burnetii causes what?
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Atypical pneumonia
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