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151 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What percent of pt's taking lithium develop toxicity during therapy?
75-90%
pg 1211
Lithium competes with other cations (Na, K, Mg, Ca) displacing them from ___ and ___ sites.
intracellular and extracellular
pg 1211
What happens to pts on lithium when RSI is performed with succ's, vecuronium or pancuronium?
prolonged neuromuscular blockade
pg 1212
T/F: Lithium levels correspond to central nervous system effects.
False. Lithium distro is slow in and out of the brain and generally lags behind serum levels.
pg 1212
What are the most common side effects seen with lithium therapy?
Hand tremor, fatigue, poluria, decreased concentration of urine, anorexia, N/V/D
pg 1212
Acute lithium ingestions generally produce more __ side effects and less neuro toxicity.
GI
pg 1213
Lithium induced seizures that are refractory to benzos should be treated with what?
Phenobarbital, Phenytoin decreases lithium excretion and is ineffective
pg 1213
Severe toxicity (>4mEq/L acute, 3.5mEq/L chronic) should be treated how?
hemodialysis
pg 1213
24yo M admits to taking 30 of sibling's Lithium SR 400mg capsules after breakup with girlfriend. Level is 0.8mEq/L. IVF given and pt is doing well. At what hr can you send pt home?
Don't! Any acute ingestion of sustained release must be admitted regardless of level.
pg 1214
The duration of action for barbiturates depends on ____.
the distrobution into the tissues rather than half life, due to their lipid solubility
pg 1214
Mild to moderate barbiturate intoxification resembles ____ intoxification.
ETOH
pg 1215
What are the most common signs of barbiturate overdose?
hypothermia, respiratory depression, and hypotension
pg 1215
Early deaths from barbiturate overdose result from what?
respiratory arrest
pg 1215
What are barbiturate serum levels good for in the toxic pt?
establishing the diagnosis. Serum levels do not correspond to brain levels and are not reliable for txmt purposes
pg 1215
What are the txmt goals of barbiturate overdose?
ABCs, Activated Charcoal, Urinary Alkalization, and/or hemodialysis
pg 1215
T/F: Dialysis is recommended for all types of barbiturate overdoses if not responding to other txmts.
False: only good for phenobarbital
pg 1216
T/F: Urinary Alkalization is only useful for long acting barbiturate overdoses.
True. it is not effective for short acting barbiturates.
pg 1216
Because of rapid development of tolerance in barbiturates, what is the concern during the txmt process?
Withdrawal symptoms
pg 1216
Which nonbenzo sedative has been associated with serotonin syndrome?
Buspirone
pg 1220
Which nonbenzo sedative has been associated with myoclonic jerks?
Carisoprodol
pg 1220
Which nonbenzo sedative has been associated with gastric bezoars and prolonged coma?
Meprobamate
pg 1220
Which nonbenzo sedative has been associated with cardiac instability and ventricular arrhythmias?
Chloral Hydate
pg 1220
What med should be used for Chloral Hydrate overdose induced ventricular arrhythmias?
Beta Blockers
pg 1220
T/F: GHB has a short duration of action, low dependence/abuse, and little withdrawal symptoms.
False. 2 Step withdrawal syndrome. First stage, 2hrs after last dose - insomnia, confusion, anxiety, GI distres
Second stage - 2 days - 3 weeks, tachycardia, confusion, hallucinations
pg 1221
The nonbenzo's for insomnia (Zolpidem, Zaleplon, Zopiclone) produce dependence and withdrawal. Which has the least?
Zaleplon (Sonota)
pg 1222
Which 3 commonly abused hallucinogens can result in hyperthermia requiring active cooling?
LSD, PCP, and MDMA
pg 1238 (chart)
What clinical features are more commonly seen in hallucinogen overdoses?
Mydriasis, tachycardia, muscle tension
pg 1238
What are the main treatment options for hallucinogen toxicity?
ABCs, Supportive, benzos, hydration and cooling
pg 1238
Methylxanthines posses similiar clinical effects, which is likely the most potential for significant toxicity?
Theophylline - increases endogenous adrenergic stimulation, and adenosine antagonism
pg 1257
Most common side effects of methylxanthine toxicity?
GI (N/V), Neuro (tremor, agitation, seizure), Cardiovascular (HoTn, tachycard, arrhythmias), Metabolic (hypoK, acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdo)
pg 1257
The best predictor of theophylline toxicity is ____, whereas the best predictor in chronic exposure is _____.
peak serum concentration, increased pt age
pg 1258
Methylxanthine txmt includes?
ABCs, GI decon, and enhanced elimination
pg 1258
What seizure txmt medication is contraindicated in theophylline overdose?
Phenytoin - increase seizure risk
pg 1259
When is dialysis considered in methylxanthine toxicity? (2)
1) acute ingestion, symptomatic, serum level >90mcg/mL;
2) chronic ingestion, symptomatic, serum level >40mcg/mL
pg 1259
T/F: Txmt options for nicotine overdose includes: activated charcoal w/in 1hr, soap/water dermal exposure, urine acidification, and benzos.
False: activated charcoal and urine acidifcation not recommended.
pg 1260
What is the first line txmt option in antihypertensive overdoses?
Fluid restoration
pg 1273
Which antiHTN overdose may respond to naloxone (max 10mg)?
ACE-I and Clonidine
pg 1276
Thiosulfate should be administered in the overdose of this antiHTN.
Sodium nitroprusside
pg 1274
Corticosteroids, diphenhydramine, epi, and zantac may be administered for these overdoses.
ACE-I and ARBs
pg 1274
Even a single tablet can cause significant symptoms in a child due to alpha-2 stimulation; causing bradycard, HoTn?
Clonidine
pg 1275
What is the most consequential adverse effect associated with ACE-I and ARBs?
angioedema
pg 1276
What is the safest course after an episode of angioedema?
D/C all ACE-I and ARBs
pg 1276
Which antiHTN can you see "Steal Syndrome" in?
Hydralizine - peripheral vasodilation with reflex tachycardia
pg 1276
In severe HoTn, using hydralizine or minoxidil, which vasopressor is recommended?
phenylephrine (alpha-1) minimizes tachycardia and prevents myocardial ischemia, unlike dopamine (B agonist)
pg 1276
The most important predictors of toxicity in nitroprusside use are _____ and _____.
rate of infusion (production) and rate of elimination (renal fxn).
pg 1277
Most phenytoin related deaths have been caused by what two causes?
Rapid administration and hypersensitivity reactions
pg 1277
Why is Fosphenytoin preferred over Phenytoin?
less irritating in parenteral form (ie doesn't percipaitate in IV soln)
pg 1277
Oral absorption is slow, variable, and often incomplete with Phenytoin, so what is needed in overdose patients?
serurm serial measurment to determine peak levels.
pg 1277
T/F: Phenytoin is highly protein bound (90%) therefore hemodiaylsis is required for treatment.
False: highly protein bound means hemodialysis will be ineffective
pg 1278
Toxic effects of Phenytoin vary with route. Which route carries the greatest risk?
IV admin due to proplene glycol and ethanol in the mixture
pg 1278
34yo F presents with confusion, dizziness and diplopia after an intentional suicide attempt. EMS reports finding empty bottle of Phenytoin. What cardio risks are your concerned with?
None. Cardio risk limited to IV administration.
cardio risks- HoTn, brady, conduction delays, AV block, wide QRS, V-fib, asystole
pg 1279
What soft tissue effects can IV Phenytoin have?
localized crystallization, abscess, necrosis, compartment syndrome, bluish discoloration of extremity ("purple glove snydrome")
pg 1279
Is cardiac monitoring necessary after oral overdose of phenytoin?
No. cardiac toxicity limited to IV admin
pg 1280
T/F: The decision to discharge or medically clear a pt for psych eval after oral overdose of phenytoin can be based on a single serum level.
False: Can Not due to long and erratic absorption
pg 1280
Cardiac arrythmias are rare, but carbamazepine is one of the few drugs that can cause both ___ and seizures.
wide QRS
pg 1280
Txmt options for carbamazepine overdoses are?
activated charcoal, hemodialysis, sodium bicarb for conduction delays
pg 1280
What medication has been shown to increase valproate metabolism?
1-carnitine 50mg/kg/d
pg 1281
Disposition for Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate should be based on?
monitor serum drugs levels every few hours until they decline and pt is asymptomatic
pg 1281
Which of the second generation anticonvulsants are most toxic?
Topiramate, Levetiracetam, Lamotrigine
pg 1282
What are the three methods of abusing hydrocarbons?
1)huffing - a rag
2)bagging - plastic bad
3)sniffing - inhaled thru nostrils
pg 1287
Toxic potential of hydrocarbons depends on their physical characteristics like ___, ____, and ____.
Viscosity, surface tension, volatility
pg 1287
Pts ingesting substances w/ viscosities <__ SUS (Saybolt Uinversal Seconds) are at ___ risk for aspiration.
60 and greater risk
pg 1288
The initial radiograph in a hydrocarbon aspiration usually show what?
usually clear, changes usually appear 2-6hrs later
pg 1288
What is "sniffing sudden death syndrome" related to?
most worrisome complication from solvent abusers. Catecholamine sensitization of the heart by hydrocarbons resulting in vent dysrhythmias.
pg 1289
Toluene abusers of c/o muscle weakness in the ED due to what?
hypokalemia, usually K+ < 2.0
pg 1290
Hydrocarbon induced hemolysis occuring after acute ingestion usually presents with what symptoms?
lethargy, SOB, cyanosis
pg 1290
What two treatments are contraindicated in the txmt of hydrocarbon aspiration pneumonitis?
steroids and abx
pg 1291
When are catecholemines (epi, norepi, dopa) indicated during the txmt process for hypotension in a hydrocarbon overdose?
Never, as they may percipitate dysrhythmias.
pg 1291
What is the role of gastic decon in hydrocarbon overdoses?
limited. AC w/in 1hr may help but the risk of provoking vomiting may outweigh the benefits
pg 1291
Acids cause serious injury at a pH of <___.
pH < 3
pg 1292
Alkalis cause serious injury at a pH > ___.
pH > 11
pg 1292
____ acid or ____ reserve refers to the amount of acid or base needed to neutralize the agent of interest, greater the value, greater the potential for injury.
Titratable acid / Alkaline reserve
pg 1292
Alkaline injuries induce a deep tissue injury called ____ ___.
Liquefaction necrosis
pg 1293
Acid injuries induce ___ ___.
coagulation necrosis
pg 1293
Which type of acid produces a nonanion gap acidosis?
hydrochloric acid
pg 1294
Initial goal in txmt for caustic ingestion is ___.
first priority is airway maintence.
pg 1294
What type of airway is contraindicated in caustic ingestion injuries?
Blind nasotracheal
pg 1294
What should be attempted before any airway intubation attempt?
fiberoptic eval
pg 1294
Why is activated charcoal contraindicated in caustic ingestions?
charcoal does not adhere to most caustics and will impede visualization w/ endoscopy
pg 1294
Why is Ipacac syrup contraindicated in caustic ingestions?
inducing vomiting will result in repeated exposureof the airway and GI mucosa to the caustic agent
pg 1295
When should an NG tube be used after caustic ingestions?
after the fiberoptic scope and within 30min of ingestion
pg 1295
T/F: Intentional ingestions of caustic agents should undergo early endoscopy b/c suicide ingestions carry highest risk of clinically important injuries.
True
pg 1295
What are some obvious signs of caustic ingestion that require early endoscopy?
stridor, oropharyngeal burns, vomiting, drooling, food refusal
pg 1295
Most experts agree that endoscopy should be w/in the first several hrs after ingestion, ideally <__hrs and not >__hrs postingestion to avoid iatrogenic perforation.
<12hrs and not >24hrs
pg 1295
Animal models have demonstated benefit w/ steroid use in caustic ingestion injuries. what is the recommendation for steroids?
steroids not recommended
pg 1295
Role of abx in caustic ingestions?
None, unless pt given steroids
pg 1295
Laparotomy is perfered over laparscopy due to eval of the posterior gastrum. What are the emergency indications?
peritoneal signs, free intraparitoneal air, esophageal perf on xray, endoscopy or CT
pg 1295
What causes highest morbidity or death in alkaline injuries?
complications from direct tissue necrosis
pg 1296
What is the key txmt for ocular exposure to caustic agents?
key principle is not choice type of fluid, rather the immediacy and adequecy of irrigation
pg 1296
Disc batteries w/ a diameter > __ to __ are at increased risk for impaction and esophageal injury.
15-20mm
pg 1296
Which acid has the greatest potential for morbidity and death?
hydrofloric acid
pg 1297
Hydrofloric acid burns have been treated w/ intra-arterial calcium, what is calcium is contraindicated?
Calcium cholride
pg 1297
Why is it important to recognize the initial "index case" of metal poisoning?
prevent others from being poisoned when the metal source is enviromental or industrial
pg 1308
What is the most common cause of metal poisoning?
Lead
pg 1308
The combo of ___ and __ dysfxn w/ a hemolytic anemia should raise the suspicion of lead toxicity.
abdominal and neurologic dysfxn
pg 1310
Children presenting with the diagnosis of encephalopathy should be consider to have ___ toxicity as well.
lead
pg 1310
In lead toxicity, ___ is a major cause of morbidity and mortality and may begin with seizures and coma.
encephalopathy
pg 1310
Lab turnaround time for lead is days, diagnostic studies should focus on eval for ___ and exam of radiographs for lead exposure.
anemia
pg 1310
What meds are used for chelation therapy for lead toxicity?
Dimercaprol, edetate calcium disodium and succimer
pg 1310
What type of pt allergy is dimercaprol contraindicated for lead chelation therapy?
peanut allergy
pg 1310
Edetate calcium disodium can be easily confused with this medication when treating lead toxicity.
Edetate disodium used for hypercalcemia
pg 1311
Toxicologist consider ____ as the preferred chelator for lead poisoning in all but the most severe cases.
Succimer
pg 1311
This toxic metalloid is nearly tasteless, odorless, and distributes easily thruout the body, including hair, nails, and bone. Hallmark is a cholera-like diarrhea.
Arsenic
pg 1311
What are Mee's lines?
1-2mm wide transverse white lines in the nail due to arsenic poisoning
pg 1312
Arsenic poisoning should be considered in pts with HoTn of unknown etiology that was preceded by severe _____.
gastroenteritis
pg 1312
T/F: swallowing mercury in a glass thermometer produces severe adverse effects, especially if GI tract is damaged.
Fasle: does not produce adverse effects unless GI tract is damaged
pg 1313
Severe hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, ab pain, graying of oral mucosa, metallic taste, shock and rapid cardiovascular collapse are associated with ___ toxicity.
mercury
pg 1313
___ is contraindicated in methyl mercury poisoning owing to the potential for exerbation of CNS symptoms.
Dimercaprol
pg 1314
____ is defined as any chemical shown to be a health hazard or physical hazard.
Hazardous chemical
pg 1315
Why are children more sensitive to inhaltion injuries?
Physiologically, they have increased respiratory exposure, high minute ventilations
pg 1315
What are a couple of th first txmt steps in a toxic inhalation?
remove from source, 100% oxygen, and bronchodilators
pg 1316
Which toxin has an insidious onset, used in WWI, irritates the nose, eyes, throat and upper airway, forms a white cloud, and smells of freshly mown hay?
Phosgene
pg 1316
Whic toxin appears as a dense green-yellow gas, smells pungent, used in WWI, and can cause coughing, horseness, and pulm edema?
Chlorine
pg 1316
Which toxin is associated with "silo filler dz"?
Nitrogen oxides
pg 1316
This toxin is higher water soluble, colorless, alkaline, pungent odor, and results in bronchospam, pulm edema, and ocular irritation.
Ammonia
pg 1316
Which toxin was used by the Nazis in the gas chamber, found in the cassava melon, causes anxiety, palpitations, HA, and dyspnea?
Cyanide
pg 1316
What is the lethal dose of cyanide in an adult?
140-250mg
pg 1316
What are the anti-dotes for cyanide poisoning?
amyl nitrite for inhalation, 3% sodium nitrite, and 25% sodium thiosulfate
pg 1318
T/F: Sodium nitrite is a vasodilator and is contraindicated in hypotensive, bradycardic, comatose cyanide toxic pts.
False: Hypotension is not contraindicated in this setting
pg 1318
How do we adjust the sodium nitrite dose in peds?
according to the hemoglobin level
pg 1319
How does the rhodanese enzyme work with sodium thiosulfate in cyanide txmt?
catalyzes the transfer of sulfate from sodium thiosulfate to cyanide to form a less toxic substance excreted by kidneys
pg 1319
Which toxin smells like rotten eggs, rapid LOC, seizures and death in few breathes?
Hydrogen Sulfide
pg 1320
Vitamin A overdose causes blurred vision, appetite loss, skin pigmentation, loss of hair, dry skin, itching, and increase incidence of ___.
long bone fx
pg 1321
Consipation, coma, and confusion present with toxicity from which vitamin overdose?
Vitamin D
pg 1321
This vitamin in large doses can inhibit Vit K and should be monitored closely for bleeding.
Vitamin E.
pg 1321
Vitamin __ can be toxic in megadoses and produce hemolytic anemia, kernicterus, hemoglobinuria, renal tubular degeneration, and inhibit anti-coags.
Vit K.
pg 1321
Which B vitamin in high doses >5g/d over several weeks will cause nerve damage.
B6
pg 1322
Which vitamin in large doses is associated with gout and nephrolithiasis?
Vitamin C
pg 1323
This herbal is used for dementia and intermittent claudication.
Ginkgo Biloba
pg 1323
St. Johns Wort is used for ?
mild to moderate depression
pg 1323
Kava is used for ___ and saw palmetto for short term ____.
anxiety and prostatism
pg 1323
Why may herbals be dangerous to take? (3)
1) may contain toxic ingredients, 2) Quality and uniformity is unreliable, and 3) contaminated with drugs
pg 1324
Which antimicrobials have the greatest potential for toxic effects?
antimalarials (quinine, chloroquine, mefloquine, and primaquine)
pg 1325
What are the 3 classic features of isoniazid overdose?
seizures, metabolic acidosis, and protracted coma
pg 1326
Pt w/ seizures refractory to benzos, phenytoin and phenobarb should be considered to have a ___ overdose.
Isoniazid
pg 1326
What is the txmt for isoniazid seizures?
gram-gram equivalent of B6 to isoniazid, if unkn amount then B6 5g IV or peds 70mg/kg (max 5g)
pg 1326
Phenytoin has no role in treating isoniazid seizures and __ __ as little role for acidosis.
sodium bicar
pg 1326
Encephalopathy, agitation, and absence seizures have been reported in what abx?
ceftazidime, cefepime, and cefuroxime
pg 1326
____ are associated with QT prolongation and the potential for Torsades de Pointes.
Macrolides
pg 1326
Pts who have tumors that occlude the upper airway or have undergone a larnygectomy cannot be ____.
orally intubated
pg 1592
T/F: Pediatric tracheostomy tubes never have am inner cannula b/c of the small inner diameter.
True.
pg 1592
What is the issue with a tracheostomy that is <7 days old when needing to asses it?
tract will not be mature enough and manipulation may create a false passage.
pg 1593
Why must the obturator be removed quickly once the tracheostomy is in place?
pt cannot breath around obturator.
pg 1593
When attempting a trach placement you should always have an extra smaller trach in case of difficulty. What is the problem with smaller device though?
it will be shorter, and may not be long enough for pt's neck
pg 1594
What happens to the stoma if the trach is out for several hrs?
stoma may begin to close and dilation may be required
pg 1594
How can you tell the difference btwn laryngectomy and tracheostomy pts?
Laryngectomy pts cannot breathe or vocalize when tube is occluded
pg 1594
What pathogens often contaminat trach tubes?
staph aureus, psuedomonas, and candida
pg 1594
What % of pts present w/ a sentinel aterial bleed or hemoptysis with a tracheoinnominate fistula?
50%
pg 1595
If a tracheostomy pt presents with massive bleeding, what is the first maneuver?
control brisk bleeding by hyperinflating the cuff
pg 1595
Stomal hemorrhage is controlled with digital pressure of the ___ artery against the manubrium.
innominate artery
pg 1595
Who should remove stents and their associated tracheostomy tubes?
the surgeon familiar with the device and placement
pg 1595