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315 Cards in this Set

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List the chambers/valves of the heart that blood flows through in order, beginning with the inferior & superior vena cava. (14)
inferior & superior vena cava

right atrium

tricuspid valve

right ventricle

pulmonic valves

pulmonary artery

lungs

pulmonary veins

left atrium

bicuspid (mitral) valve

left ventricle

aorta valve

aorta

all parts of body
What are the 2 atrioventricular (AV) and 2 semilunar (SL) valves?
AV: tricuspid and bicuspid (mitral)

SL: pulmonic and aortic
Name the 2 main arteries of the heart.
left coronary artery

right coronary artery
Name the 3 parts of left coronary artery and which part of the heart they each perfuse.
left main coronary artery - does not perfuse anything directly but divides to form the next 2 arteries listed...

left anterior descending artery (LAD) - anterior wall of heart

left circumflex artery - left lateral wall of heart
Which part of the heart is also known as "the widowmaker" and why?
LAD bc there is only a 5 minute window to treat any malfunction of this artery before death is imminent
Name the 2 parts of the right coronary artery and what part of the heart they perfuse.
right main coronary artery - inferior wall of heart

posterior descending artery - posterior wall
What do the coronary veins do?
drain blood from coronary sinus which then empties into the right atrium
What are the 3 layers of the heart wall from outermost part of heart to innermost?
epicardium

myocardium

endocardium
Describe what the myocardium is made up of and its function.
specialized cardiac muscle cells (called myofibrils)

physical pumping of heart
Describe the pericardium and its function.
layered sac with fluid in between the layers

protects and helps stabilize heart
What pericarditis?
inflammation of the pericardium
What valves close during the S1-lubb & S2-dubb sounds (hint: they are different)?
S1: AV valves close

S2: SL valves
What valves cause the split S2 sound?
SL valves not closing together
What causes a murmur (swishing sound)?
any valve not closing fully

(swishing of blood back up into where it was coming from is what is heard)
Describe, in order, the path that electrical impulses travel in the conduction system of the heart? (4)
SA node

AV node

right & left Bundle of His

Purkinjie fibers
Where is the SA node located and what is also known as?
right atrium

pacemaker of heart
How many electrical impulses does the SA node begin per minute (correlates with normal heart rate)?
60-100
What acts as a TEMPORARY backup if the SA node is not functioning and how long will it last?
AV node

a few days
How many electrical impulses does the AV node begin per minute?
40-60
What takes over if the SA and AV nodes fail and how long will it last?
nodal cells

minutes-hours, depends
How many electrical impulses do the nodal cells begin per minute?
30-40
Where are the nodal cells found?
in ventricles near purkinjie fibers
What is the amount of blood pumped by the ventricles and what is the normal volume (L/min)?
cardiac output

5L/min
What is the amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat and what is the normal volume (ml/beat)?
stroke volume

70ml/beat
What is the term for amount of cardiac muscle fiber "stretch" that exists at the end of diastole, just before contraction of the ventricles and what is this also known as?
preload

LVEDP, left ventricular end diastolic pressure
What is the term for force the ventricles must overcome to eject their blood volume?
afterload
What is the term for capability of the cardiac muscle fibers to contract (how hard the muscle is pumping)?
contractility
What is preload directly proportional to (2)?
stroke volume

contractility
What is preload inversely proportional to (1)?
afterload
What does dehydration do to preload and stroke volume (directly proportional)?
decreases both
What does anxiety do to afterload and preload (inversely proportional)?
lowers preload

raises afterload
When the ventricles contract, does they completely empty?
no, some blood remains
What is the term for the percentage of blood that is ejected from the ventricles and what is the normal range (%)?
ejection fraction

55-65%
What ejection fraction (%) would be a definitive diagnosis for heart failure?
<40%
What are the areas to assess during the interview when suspecting/treating a cardiovascular disorder (CVD)? (10)
medication

nutrition

elimination

activity

sleep

self-perception and concept

roles/relationships

sexuality/reproduction

coping

prevention
What symptom would indicate acute coronary syndrome (ACS), disrhythmias, valvular heart disease or angina pectoris?
chest pain
What symptom would indicate ACS, valvular heart disease, cardiogenic shock or heart failure?
SOB/dyspnea
What disease would peripheral edema, weight gain, abdominal distension due to enlarged speel and liver, ascites indicate?
heart failure
What symptom would be an early warning sign of ACS, valvular heart disease or heart failure?
vital fatigue/exhaustion
What symptom would indicate ACS, valvular disease,ventricular aneurysms?
palpitations
What 3 symptoms would indicate dysrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, cerebrovascular disorders, hypotension, postural hypotension (easy one)?
dizziness

syncope

LOC changes
What would the nurse assess in the physical assessment when suspecting/treating a CVD (4)?
general appearance

LOC

skin

extremeties for edema, cap refill
In what 2 positions would the nurse want the patient in to check BP when suspecting/treating a CVD and why?
sitting

standing

to check for postural hypotension
What 3 places should the pulse be checked when suspecting/treating CVD?
apical

radial

pedal
When a murmur is heard, what 4 things should be assessed about that murmur?
location

timing

presence during diastole/systole

intensity
What is the grading scale for murmurs and what does each digit represent?
1-barely heard, hard to hear without special training

2-soft, can only hear with experience

3-anyone can hear

4-loud, associated with thrill

5,6-really loud, can heart without stethoscope
What are the 5 most common terms we students should be familiar with when talking about location of heart sounds?

(ICS location listed for each, but Jennings mentioned we are not required to know those)
aortic area (2nd ICS, right of sternum)

pulmonic area (2nd ICS, left of sternum)

Erb's point (3rd ICS, left of sternum)

tricuspid area (4-5th ICS, left of sternum

point of maximum impact (PMI) (5th ICS, midclavicular line)
What does a chest x-ray indicate about the heart?
size
What does an ECG indicatae about the heart?
electrical activity
How is a cardiac stress test performed?
give meds to stress heart OR exercise to stress heart
It is imperative that the patient not consume ___ or ____ prior to a cardiac induced stress test.
stimulants (caffeine)

anything that would slow heart (beta blockers)
What is a transthoracic echocardiagram (TTE) used to observe?
heart size

look through chest wall
What is a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) used to observe?
heart size and structure formation
What are 2 things to remember about the transesophageal echo (TEE)?
trachea will be numbed

pt must be NPO before procedure and after until gag reflex comes back
What makes a CT scan or MRI a more detailed test than others (TTE, TEE, chest xray) that allow us to visualize the heart?
it shows the crossections of the heart
Why are MRIs not used as often as they used to be? (2)
any movement -at all- messes up the pictures.

absolutely no metal anywhere near the MRI (impants, name badges)
How long must a patient be NPO before a cardiac catheterization?
8-12 hours
What are the 4 reasons a cardiac catheterization is used?
measures cardiac chamber pressures

assess patency of coronary arteries

determine if patient needs CABG

used for stent placement
How long must a patient remain on bedrest after a venous and arterial cardiac catheterization (hint: they're different)?
venous 4-6 hours

arterial 6-8 hours
Why is leg rest so important after a cardiac catheterization?
moving the legs could break up clot forming at entry site and start bleeding
Describe a balloon angioplasty procedure. (extremely brief)
balloon inserted through cardiac cath to where blockage is located

balloon inflated to break up blockages
What is a balloon angioplasty used to do?
break up blockages
When is a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) done?
when a coronary artery is COMPLETELY blocked.
After a cardiac catheterization, if the dressing over entry site is saturated, what should the nurse do?
apply clean dressing on top and notify doctor
What must be done to the vessels during a CABG?
they must be completely replaced
What is commonly used to replace a cardiac artery in a CABG?
safenous vein from pt's own leg
What are the 4 lab values used to determine whether or not an MI has occured?
CK-MB

LDS

Troponin

Myoglobin
What is CK-MB (creatinine-kinase myofibrils)?
enzyme found mainly in cardiac cells
CK-MB (creatinine-kinase myofibrils) in MI (rise, peak and return to normal, hours)
rise - 4-8 hours

peak - 24 hours

normal - 3-4 days
What is LDH (lactic dehydrogenase)?
enzyme found in body made of 2 types, LDH1 and LDH 2
LDH in MI (__ > __)
LDH1 > LDH2
What is troponin?
proteins found only in cardiac muscle
describe Troponin level changes during an MI
increases for 1-3 hours

elevated for 1-3 weeks
Myoglobin in MI (increases, return to normal, hours)
increases within 1-3 hours

return to normal -12 hours
What 2 other diseases can elevated myoglobin be found in?
renal disease

musculoskeletal disease
What is the gold standard for MI?
Troponin
What are the 2 lab values used to gather a lipid profile?
LDL

HDL
Why are the lipid profile norms different for patients with coronary artery and heart disease?
because people with those disorders have to be very controlled due to damaged arteries and veins (usually atherosclerosis)
Normal HDL value (men and women)

coronary artery disease/heart disease HDL value
normal - males, 35-70 mg/dl
females, 35-85 mg/dl

CAD >40
Normal LDL value

coronary artery disease/heart disease LDL value
normal <160 mg/dl

CAD <100 mg/dl
What is BNP (brain naturetic peptide)
a neurohormone that helps regulate BP and fluid volume
What is the BNP used to indicate?
heart failure
What BNP value indicates heart failure (pg/ml)?
>100pg/ml
What is CRP (C-reactive protein)?
protein produced by liver in response to systemic inflammation thought to play a role in athersclerosis
normal CRP

value that indicates risk for cardiovascular disorder
normal <1mg/dl

CVD risk >3mg/dl
What is homocysteine?
amino acid that correlates with a high risk of cardiovascular and peripheral disease and stroke
optimal homocysteine

borderline homocysteine

high risk homocysteine
optimal: <12umol/L

borderline: 12-15 umol/L

high risk: >15 umol/L
What is the most prevalent type of cardiovascular disease in adults?
coronary artery disease (CAD)
What is the most common cause of CAD?
atherosclerosis
What is CAD?
lipid or fibrous tissue that causes decreases in blood flow to the myocardium of the heart and cause blockages through the coronary arteries
What are the nonmodifiable risk factors for CAD?
family history

increasing age

males

race
What are the modifiable risk factors for CAD?
hyperlipidemia

HTN

cigarette smoking

diabetes

obseity (especially abdominal fat)

physical inactivity
What should the A1C be for a diabetic?
<7
What is the cure for CAD?
there isn't one.

once you have it, you've got it forever
What medications are used to control cholesterol?
statins

nicotinic acids

bile acid sequestraints
What medications are used to control BP?
ACE

ARB

BB
What medications are used to control diabetes?
oral hypoglycemics

insulin
Why are stents placed in patients?
to prevent vessel collapse.
Why are patients placed on anticoagulant medications after placement of a cardiac stent?
to prevent blood from sticking to stent while endothelial cells grow around it
What is the term for a clinical syndrome usually characterized by episodes of pain in the anterior chest due to insufficient blood flow resulting in decreased oxygen supply when there are increased myocardial oxygen demands?
angina
What are the clinical manifestations of angina (8)?
pain that may radiate to other areas

weakness/numbess

SOB

anxiety

pallor

diaphoresis

dizziness

n&v
Are there any lab changes when a patient suffers from anginal attacks?
nope
What can be used to verify an anginal attack has occured? (2)
EKG

family history
What is the goal of treatment of angina?
decrease oxygen demand and increase oxygen supply to heart
As a nurse, when you have a patient complain of chest pain, what should you do? (3)
administer 2L oxygen

call doctor

call respiratory
When a patient is experiencing frequent episodes of angina, what should the nurse suspect?
that blockages may be forming in the heart
To check for blockages when a patient is experiencing frequent episodes of angina, what 2 procedures can be performed?
percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

CABG
What is the most common medication administered for episodes of angina and what is the recommended dosing?
sublingual nitroglycerin (SL NTG)

1 tab sublingually every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses

if no relief after 3 doses, call 911.
In what forms is nitroglycerin available?
SL

spray

patch

paste (applied to chest)
What are 3 other medications used to treat angina in adjunct to nitroglycerin and how do they work to relieve angina?
BB - decrease oxygen consumption

CCB - decrease oxygen demands

aspirin - prevent clots and keep vessels open
What is nitroglycerin?
a vasodilator
HORRIBLE definition: An area of the myocardium is permanently destroyed caused by reduced blood flow in a coronary artery due to rupture or an atherosclerotic plaque that occluded the artery by a thrombus.

What's the term for this?
myocardial infarction
What is the diagnostic test performed for an MI and what will the abnormal findings be?
ECG

abnormal Q wave
What is a STEMI and a NSTEMI?
STEMI-sudden thrombotic occlusion of coronary artery

NSTEMI- unstable plaque causing platelet aggregation leads to occlusion of coronary artery
What is the difference in the ACG for a STEMI and a NSTEMI?
STEMI- ST elevation

NSTEMI- no ST elevation
What is the goal of treatment for an MI? (3)
to minimize myocardial damage

to preserve myocardial function

to prevent complications
What can used to treat an MI? (4)
angioplasty (PTCA)

CABG (when multiple vessels blocked)

thrombolytics only when pt not candidate for angioplasty or CABG

meds
What is the window for treatment of MI with thrombolytics and why?
must use within 3-6 hours and no later due to bleeding risk
What meds is a patient normally on while in the hospital waiting on results of diagnostic tests for an MI? (4)
aspirin

NTG

morphine (reduces preload and afterload, pain and anxiety)

IV beta-blocker (reduces HR, shown to decrease incidence of future events when given in acute events)
HWat is the term for a heart muscle disease associated with cardiac dysfunction and is classified according to the structure and functional abnormality of the heart muscle?
cardiomyopathy
What are the 3 types of cardiomyopathy?
dilated

hypertropic

restrictive
What is dilated cardiomyopathy?
dilated ventricles with weakend muscular walls
What is hypertropic cardiomyopathy?
ventricles and muscles dilate assymmetrically
What is restrictive cardiomyopathy?
no ventriclar stretch that impaires diastolic filling
What do all myopathies result in?
impaired CO that can lead to heart failure
Which cardiomyopathy is autosomal dominant and thus requires frequent ECGs?
hypertropic
What are the clinical manifestations of cardiomyopathy?
the same as in heart failure

syncopy, fluid retention, dyspnea, cough, fatigue...
What are the diagnostic tests that can be used to determine cardiomyopathy?
ECG

CXR

TEE, TTE
What medications/diet restrictions/lifestyle changes are used to treat cardiomyopathies?
(same as in heart failure)

beta blockers

vasodilators

low salt diet, fluid limi, exercise, rest
What is nonsurgical septal reduction therapy?
ethanol is injected into septal cells to kill excess cells and decrease size of heart.
When would nonsurgical septal reduction therapy be used?
When septum in between ventricles is enlarged.
Describe what the surgery would do in the event of an enlarged septum?
cut out extra myocardium in septum
What is the cure for an enlarged septum?
heart transplant
In a patient who receives a heart transplant, is there a sympathetic connetion with the implanted heart?
no
What are 3 infectious cardiac diseases and which is most severe?
endocarditis - most severe

myocarditis

pericarditis
What are 2 types of endocarditis and whom are they common in?
rheumatic endocarditis - children

infective endocarditis - ppl with valve defets/replacements
What can lead to rhuematic endocarditis?
untreated or insufficiently treated strep (Group A betahemolytic strep)
What is endocarditis?
a microbial infetion of the endothelial surface of the heart
What are the clinical manifestations of endocartidits (either type)?
fever

heart murmur

Osler nodes

Janeway lesions

Roth spots
What are Osler nodes (endocarditis)?
painful nodues on fingers and toe pads
What are Janeway lesions (endocarditis)?
super small bruises/macules on palms of hands and soles of feet
What are Roth Spots (endocarditis)?
small hemorrhages in retinal seen with ophthalmoscope
What are the diagnostic tests use to determine endocarditis?
blood cultures

elevated WBC

TTE, TEE
What is the prophylactic treatment of endocarditis in patients with valve replacements?
antibiotics before any type of procedure (i.e. dentist appointments)
What is the treatment of endocarditis?
IV antibiotics that can be outpatient or via home health
When is surgical treament done in endocarditis?
if the valve must be replaced again due to the infection
What is myocarditis?
NOT SERIOUS

an inflammatory process involving the myocardium that is usually viral (but can be fungal or parasitic)
What are the clinical manifestations of myocarditis?
depends on type of infection and extent of damage

can be completely asymptomatic to trouble breathing
What are the symptoms similar to in viral myocarditis?
flu-like
Biopsies are used to diagnose endocarditis if...
an infection has spread somewhere other than the heart.

(basically, you don't biopsy someone's heart)
What is the prophylactic treatment of myocarditis?
immunizations
What is the treatment of myocarditis?
bedrest, let body heal on its own

NSAIDS as things improve (never in acute phase)
When are antibiotics used to treat myocarditis?
if cause is determined (but it's usually not)
What is pericarditis?
NOT SERIOUS

inflammation of the pericardium that can be primary or secondary to major surgery
What are the clinical manifestations of pericarditis? (4)
pleural friction rub

increased WBC

elevated ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) or CRP (c-reactive protein)

nonproductive cough with pain
What are the diagnostic tests for pericarditis? (3)
ECG

TEE, TTE

CT scan
What is the treatment for pericarditis?
bedrest, let body heal on its own

analgesics, NSAIDS for pain

if needed, pericardiocentesis
When is a pericardiocentesis performed in primary and secondary (hint: they're different reasons)?
primary - to relieve symptoms

secondary - to culture fluid to determine primary cause
What is the inability of the heart to pump sufficient amounts of blood to meet the needs of the tissues for oxygen and nutrients?
heart failure
What are the 4 types of heart failure?
right sided

left sided

diastolic

systolic
Which 2 types of heart failure are the most common and can they occur at the same time?
right and left

yes
What are the clinical manifestations of left sided heart failure? (6)
dysnpea

SOB with activity and when lying flat

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspean (PND)

adventitious lung sounds

cough

fatigue
What are the clinical manifestations or right sided heart failure? (6)
peripheral edema

hepatomegaly

ascites

anorexia/weight gain

nauea

weakness
What are the diagnostic tests used to determine heart failure?
TEE, TTE

chest xray

ECG

lab tests
The TEE and TTE are generally used to look at the heart in a crossectional manner. In the instance of heart failure, what are the TTE and TEE used to measure?
ejection fraction
What lab test is indicative of heart failure?
BNP
What is the goal of treatment in heart failure? (3)
to relieve patient symptoms

to improve functional status, quality of life

to extend survival
What are the medications used to treat heart failure?
(anything to decrease demand and improve contractility)

ACE

ARBS

diuretics

digoxin

IV drops of these things in an acute exacerbation while in ICU
Besides medications, what are 4 other treatments for heart failure?
lifestyle recommendations

oxygen

PTCA

implantable defibrillators
What is the cure for heart failure?
heart transplant
What do implantable defibrillators do?
improve SA node firing by firing in its place when it malfunctions
What is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the lungs, intersitial spaces and alveoli?
acute heart failure

AKA

pulmonary edema
What is the onset like for acute heart failure (pulmonary edema)?
very, very quick
What are the clinical manifestations of acute heart failure (pulmonary edema)? (8)
pink frothy sputtum ;-)

restlessness, anxiety

sudden breathlessness/sense of suffocation

cyanotic nail beds

ashen skin

weak, rapid pulse

decreased oxygen sats

feeling of being "full"
What are the diagnostic treatments for acute heart failure (pulmonary edema)
chest xray

physical exam
What are the treatments for acute heart failure (pulmonary edema) (4)?
upright positioning with feet depedent (to decrease venous return and allow heart to rest)

oxygen

morphine

other meds (only in ICU)
What meds are administered to a patient in acute heart failure while in the ICU? (4)
diuretics

dobutamine

primacor

natrecor
What are 2 other causes of acute heart failure that are not directly related to the heart itself?
renal failure

oncologic conditions
What is the term to describe when decreased cardiac output leads to inadequate perfusion and initiation of shock syndrome?
cardiogenic shock
What are the clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock? (4)
pain r/t angina

dysrhythmias

fatigue

feelings of doom
What is the goal of treatment in cardiogenic shock?(4)
to correcy underlying problem

to reduce furher demand on heart

to improve oxygenation

to restore tissue perfusion
What 4 things should the nurse do for a patient in cardiogenic shock?
monitor hemodynamic status

administer iv fluids/meds (NTG)

enhance safety and comfort
In patients with heart problems, what should the nurse always be vigilant for doing?
identifying patients at risk for cardiogenic shock as early as possible
What order do you carry out the abdominal assessment? (4)
Inspection

Auscultation

Palpation

Percussion
Why do you have to do an abdominal is a certain order?
percussion and palpation may alter sounds
Define Normal auscultation, hypoactive sounds and hyperactive sounds
Normal auscultation is noise every 20sec;

hypo is one sound in 2 min;

hyperactive is constant sound (5 or 6 in 30secs)
What is the difference between light and deep palpation? (i.e. what are you checking for in each)
light = tenderness

deep = masses
define actinic cheilitis
cracking of the lips, esp in the corners
define leukplakia
white patches on insides of cheeks
define Candidiasis
thrush=yeast infection produces white coating in mouth and tongue
define Karposi’s sarcoma
oral cancer most commonly associated with HIV pts
difference bw/ gingivitis and periodontitis
Gingivits- gums grow over teeth, inflamed

Periodontitis- gums recede from teeth
Opening in diaphragm through which the esophagus passes becomes enlarged and part of the upper stomach moves up and down into the lower portion of the thorax.
hiatal hernia
management of Hiatal hernia
Frequent, small feedings that pass easily through esophagus

Advise not to recline for 1 hour after eating

Elevate Head Of Bed (HOB) 4-8 inches to prevent hernia from sliding upward
When would surgical intervention be used for a Hiatal Hernia?
if home care isn't working
disorder characterized by: Back flow of gastric contents or duodenal contents into the esophagus (sphincter is incompetent and doesn’t stay closed)
Gastro-esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
How is GERD diagnosed? (3)
endoscopy, barium swallow, pH probe
How barium swallow is a diagnostic tool:
pictures show if barium comes back up
explain pH probe
probe inserted through nose, measures pH for 12-36 hrs to determine if anything is coming up
Management of GERD
Elevate HOB

Avoid aggravating foods

Antacids,

Nissan fundoplication
What is a Nissan fundoplication?
they surgically wrap the upper part of the stomach around the esophagus so that it acts like sphincter and doesn’t allow things to come back up
What age group is a Nissan fundoplication more commonly done on?
babies
Define Barrett's Esophagus
Lining of esophageal mucosa becomes damaged by stomach acid over time
What condition is Barrett's Esophagus typically seen in conjunction with, and what can it be a precursor to?
GERDS

precursor to esophageal cancer
What is a common GI problem characterized by inflammation of the stomach that can be acute or chronic?
Gastritis
Causes of acute gastritis (6)
dietary indiscretion

medications,

alcohol,

bile reflux, and

radiation therapy.

Ingestion of strong acid or alkali (may cause serious complications).
What is acute gastritis usually caused by?
dietary indiscretion
What is chronic gastritis usually caused by?
prolonged inflammation due to benign or malignant ulcers of the stomach or by Helicobacter pylori.
What are the other 6 causes of chronic gastritis?
some autoimmune diseases,

dietary factors,

medications,

alcohol,

smoking, or

chronic reflux of pancreatic secretions or bile.
S/S of acute gastritis (5)
abdominal discomfort,

headache,

lassitude (lack of energy),

nausea, vomiting,

hiccuping.
S/S of chronic gastritis (7)
epigastric discomfort,

anorexia,

heartburn after eating,

belching,

sour taste in the mouth,

nausea and vomiting,

intolerance of some foods.
What may some patients with chronic gastritis have a deficiency of over time, and why?
Vitamin B12 deficiency, due to malabsorption
How is gastritis usually diagnosed?
UGI X-ray or endoscopy and biopsy.
What levels of hydrochloric acid may gastritis be associated with?
achlorhydria, hypochlorhydria, or hyperchloryhydria
medical management of acute gastritis
refrain from alcohol and food until symptoms subside,

begin with bland non-irritating diet and advance as tolerated.

usually resolves in 1-2 days
What is the management of acute gastritis if caused by ingestion of strong acids or alkalis?
dilute and neutralize offending agent

(ie antacids if acidic or lemon juice if alkaline)
What is the medical management of chronic gastritis?
modify diet,

promote rest,

reduce stress,

avoidance of alcohol and NSAIDS,

treatment of H.pylori if indicated
nursing management of gastritis (5)
Reduce Anxiety

Promote Optimal Nutrition

Promote Fluid Balance

Relieve Pain

Education
Disease in which Erosion of a mucous membrane forms an excavation in the stomach, pylorus, duodenum, or esophagus
peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
What is PUD associated with (i.e. cause)?
H. pylori

(not too much stress like previously thought)
Risk factors for PUD (6)
excessive secretion of stomach acid,

dietary factors,

chronic use of NSAIDs,

alcohol,

smoking, and

familial tendency.
manifestations of PUD (3)
dull gnawing pain or burning in the mid-epigastrium;

heartburn and

vomiting
Why might anorexia form due to PUD?
because pain is at its worse after eating (postprandial)
treatments for PUD (3)
meds (antibiotics to clear up H. pylori)

lifestyle changes

surgery if it's perforated / penetrating
What is the difference between a perforated and penetrating ulcer?
perforated=open to abdominal cavity

penetrating=eroded into other organ
WHat does IBS result from?
functional disorder of intestinal mobility
How is IBS diagnosed?
after excluding other disorders (takes time to diagnose)
What is the criteria necessary for diagnosis?
Recurrent abd pain or discomfort for at least 3 days a month in the past 3 months and

2 or more of the following:
improvement of pain with defecation,
onset associated with change in frequency of stool,
onset associated with change in appearance (form) of stool
How do the s/s of IBS manifest?
Wide variability in symptom presentation, range in intensity and duration from mild and infrequent to severe and continuous
What are the primary symptoms of IBS? (4)
alteration in bowel pattern: constipation, diarrhea, or combo

Pain,

bloating, and

abdominal distention may be present.
nursing management for IBS (4)
good dietary habits,

avoidance of triggers

Eat at regular times,

chew food slowly and thoroughly
What is the medical management of IBS aimed at? (3)
relieving abdominal pain,

controlling the diarrhea or constipation, and

reducing stress
What are the medical managements of IBS? (4)
Try to identify foods that are irritants (food diary)

High Fiber Diet

Exercise and Stress Reduction

Medications
What are the 3 types of meds that may be prescribed with IBS and what they do.
antidepressants to increase serotonin to help with motility

antispasmotics/anti-cholernergic to help with cramping and help with pain
definition of diarrhea
Increased frequency of bowel movements( 3+/day)

Increased amount of stool (200g/day)

Altered consistency of stools (increased liquidity)
manifestations of diarrhea (5)
Abdominal cramps,

distention,

intestinal rumbling,

anorexia,

thirst
If the cause of diarrhea is not obvious, what are the diagnostic tools used? (5)
CBC,

metabolic profile (for electrolytes),

stool sample

endoscopy

barium enema
What are you checking for the stool sample in a pt with diarrhea? (6)
infectious or parasitic organisms,

bacterial toxins,

blood,

fat,

electrolytes, and

WBCs
What is the most commonly identified agent in antibiotic associated diarrhea?

(prolonged use of antibiotics kills the good bacteria, so what takes over?)
Clostridium Difficile (C-Diff)
What 3 things is the management of diarrhea directed towards?
controlling symptoms,

preventing complications, and

eliminating or treating underlying disease
3 types of meds that may be given to a diarrheal patient
antibiotics,

anti-inflammatory agents,

anti-diarrheals (Immodium)
3 complications that can arise from diarrhea
cardiac dysrhythmias

skin break down

hypovolemic shock
Why might a patient with diarrhea get cardiac dysrhythmias?
if there is significant fluid and electrolyte loss
What are the s/s of hypovolemic shock? (6)
Urinary output less than 30ml/hr for 2-3 consecutive hours,

muscle weakness,

paresthesia,

hypotension,

anorexia, and

drowsiness with a potassium level of <3.5mEq/L
3 definitions for constipation
Abnormal infrequency or irregularity of defecation (more than 4 days)

Abnormal hardening of stools that makes their passage difficult and sometimes painful

Decrease in stool volume or retention of stool in the rectum for a prolonged period
manifestations of constipation (8)
abdominal distention,

pain and pressure,

decreased appetite,

indigestion,

headache,

fatigue,

sensation of incomplete evacuation;

straining at stool
ways to diagnose constipation (4)
patient's hx, physical exam

barium enema (X-ray of large intestine)

sigmoidoscopy,

KUB
What is a KUB?
x-ray of kidneys, ureters, bladder

shows bowels and how much stool is in there
medical management of constipation
Identify underlying cause and aim to prevent recurrence

Medication
What are the 5 types of meds can be prescribed to treat
bulk forming
lubricant
stimulant
fecal softener
osmotic agent
nursing management of constipation (2)
Health hx interview focusing on symptoms of constipation

Teaching/Education of
appropriate diet, exercise
5 complications caused by constipation
hemorrhoids

anal fissures

megacolon

fecal impaction

valsalva maneuver
What exactly is a megacolon?
so much stool that it backs all the way through the colon, nothing can get through causing the colon to perforate and spill into the abdominal cavity
What is the difference between a megacolon and a fecal impaction?
Fecal Impaction- stool blocking just an area of the colon instead of the whole area like in a megacolon
how does constipation cause a valsalva maneuver, and what can that cause?
straining causes you to hold your breath (the maneuver) which causes BP to drop, then goes back up higher than needs to be then normalizes
What is the leading cause of acute abdominal surgery in ages 10-30?
appendicitis
manifestations of appendicitis (7)
Epigastric or periumbical pain that progresses to RLQ pain,

N/V,

low grade fever,

loss of appetite,

tenderness at McBurney’s point (middle of RLQ),

rebound tenderness,

possible constipation
3 ways to diagnose appendicitis
physical exam,

labs, and

imaging studies
What 2 lab values change during appendicitis?
WBC and platelets elevate
medical management of appendicitis
Emergent Appendectomy unless perforation has occurred

if perforated…given antibiotics to wipe out bacteria/infection then come back in for appendectomy
What are a sac-like herniations of the lining of the bowel that extend through a defect in the muscle layer?
diverticulum

or singularly a diverticula
definition: multiple diverticula without inflammation not really causing problems (no infection)
diverticulosis
definition:
infection and inflammation of diverticula
Risk factors that increases chance of diverticular disease (2)
increased age

low fiber diet
How is diverticular disease usually diagnosed?
colonoscopy
manifestations of diverticular disease (5)
rabbit pellets

n/v

increase WBC

chills/fever

extreme abdominal pain
Acute cases of diverticular disease may require hospitalization, what would treatment include? (3)
NPO until symptoms subside, given IV fluids,

antibiotics for 7-10 days,

opioid analgesics/antispasmodics for pain
What are the 5 outpatient treatments for diverticular disease?
Rest,

analgesics, and antispasmodics

Clear liquid diet until inflammation subsides, then high-fiber, low fat diet

Antibiotics for 7-10 days

Bulk-forming laxatives
4 complications that can arise due to diverticular disease (when they bust open)
Peritonitis (diverticula bust open and spread bacteria causing an infection called ^),

abscess,

fistulas, and

bleeding
What can cause peritonitis?
external or internal source (does not randomly occur on it’s own)

Leakage of contents from abdominal organs into abdominal cavity,
What's the pathology of peritonitis?
Leakage of contents from abdominal organs into abdominal cavity,

bacterial proliferation occurs,

leads to tissue edema and

exudation of fluid.
What are the manifestations of peritonitis based on, and what might they be? (4)
Based on location and extent of inflammation

fever,

pain,

board like abdomen,

some rebound tenderness
3 ways to diagnose peritonitis
X-ray,

abdominal Ultra/Sound,

CT scan
4 management strategies for peritonitis
Supportive tx of symptoms,

antibiotics
fluids,

surgical interventions to repair what has damaged the area causing the infection
What are the supportive tx of symptoms to manage peritonitis?
pain meds,

NG tube to suction,

antiemetics
What is another name for Crohn's disease?
Regional Enteritis
What is the disease characterized by Subacute and chronic inflammation that extends through all layers of GI tract wall?
Crohn's disease
Where does Crohn's disease most commonly occur?
distal ileum (works from top down)
What are 3 complications common in Crohn's disease?
Fistulas, Fissures, and Abscesses common
What age range is Crohn's disease diagnosed?
young
How is Crohn's disease diagnosed?
endoscopy (usually)

colonoscopy (not common)
Whats the pathology of Crohn's Disease?
inflammation causes mucosa to thicken, and ulcers appear on the mucosa

making the intestinal walls thicker and fibrotic making lumen in the bowels smaller and then

adhesions occur b/w the loops blocking off the bowel
What are the manifestations of Crohn's disease? (7)
wt loss

malnutrition

chronic diarrhea

cramp abdominal pains after eating

steatorrhea

fever

n/v
Does Crohn's disease have a familial tendency?
yes
Which chronic inflammatory bowel disease has periods of remissions and exacerbations?
both Crohn's and Ulcerative Colitis.
What chronic inflammatory bowel disease is described as an ulcerative and inflammatory disease of mucuosal and submucosal layer causing blockage?
Ulcerative Colitis (UC)
Where does UC most commonly occur?
rectum and colon (works its way up)
What is a common complication associated with UC?
abscesses


(NOT fistulas or fissures)
manifestations of UC (3)
mucus and puss in stool from shedding of epithelial cells,

diarrhea

LLQ pain
how is UC diagnosed?
colonoscopy
Nutritional therapy for Crohn's or UC (3)
Oral Fluids

Low Residue High Protein High
Calorie Diet

Vitamin Replacement
3 types of meds that could be prescribed to manage Crohn's or UC and what they are used for
Corticosteroids (antiinflammatory) ,

Immunomodulators, alters how body acts to disease / modifies response

Aminosalicylates, reduces inflammation
4 surgical management strategies for Crohns or UC
Stricturplasty-opens the narrow area of the bowel

Intestinal transplant-

Colectomy-

small bowel resection
What 2 surgical management strategies are more for Crohn's patients than UC? Which one is used more for UC?
Crohns = intestinal transplant, small bowel resection

UC = colectomy
What is the downside to a colectomy?
ileostomy for life
Characteristics of bowel obstructions (3)
mechanical or function

partial or complete

in small or large bowel
Where do most bowel obstruction occur, and what are they caused by?
small intestine and are caused by adhesions
manifestations of small bowel obstruction (5)
come on quickly ( 24-48 hrs)

crampy pain that is wave-like and colicky when peristalsis happens.

vomiting (possibly of stool),

dehydration,

abdominal distention.
manifestations of large bowel obstructions (7)
develop and progress relatively slowly.

constipation that can last for months,

weakness,

weight loss,

anorexia.

Eventually distended abdomen and crampy lower abdominal pain
How are bowel obstructions typically diagnosed? (2)
x-ray

CT
management of bowel obstruction
Decompression of bowel through NG tube, if unsuccessful or if obstruction is complete surgical intervention is necessary.
2 types of gastric tubes and what they are used for
levin and gastic pump

used to remove fluid or gas for decompression

inserted through the nose to the stomach
3 types of enteric tubes and what are they used for?
gastric, duodenal, jejunal

used to feed
term for a tube surgically inserted directly into the stomach for feeding or decompression
gastrostomy
two types of gastrostomies
PEG tube

low profile PEG (used in kids)
What type of nutrition regimen is indicated if the patient is unable to ingest/digest adequate oral food or fluids for 7+ days?
Parenteral nutrition
What does parenteral nutrition provide, and how is it administered?
provides nutrients by IV to be absorbed by the blood

given through PICC or Central Line
What type of nutrition is given to meet requirements when oral intake is inadequate or not possible and the middle and lower portions of the GI tract are functionally normal?
enteral nutrition
What are the 4 ways to administer enteral nutrition?
NG

ND

G-Tube

J-tube
How many grams a day is considered high fiber?
>25g/day
How many grams of fiber must a food have before it is considered high fiber?
5 g
What is a low residue diet?
similar to low fiber,

don't eat foods that remains in your intestinal tract and contributes to stool.
When would a low residue diet be advised?
following abdominal surgery or

during a flare-up of a digestive disorder such as diverticulitis or IBD
Why should a low residue diet only be used for a short time?
because it cannot provide all the nutrients necessary for staying healthy.
Describe the difference in location and stool characteristics of a colostomy and an ileostomy.
Colostomy is opening into large colon
more formed b/c its lower down

Ileostomy is opening into the ileum or small intestine
more liquid because it is higher up and water hasn’t been absorbed yet.