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80 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are the differences between a patient history and signalment?
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A patient history is a description of current status while signalment is a description of unchanging specifics about an individual animal.
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How long should it take to acquire a patient history?
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It should take 5 minutes to acquire a patient history.
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What are the three components to acquiring medical information?
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Acquiring medical information is composed of: obtaining patient's history, performing a physical exam, and results from lab findings.
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What are the two objectives of veterinary personnel at the initial stage of a clinic visit?
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The two objectives at the initial stage of a clinic visit are: to collect information about past and present conditions, and to establish a doctor/client relationship.
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What are three major factors that are required for a good history?
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A good history depends on mechanics, interpersonal skills, and experience.
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What are the five components of the mechanics in a patient history?
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The five components of the mechanics in a patient history are: signalment, chief complaint or presenting issue, vaccination status, FeLV/HWT status, and specific history questions.
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What are the nine specific history questions to be asked?
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The nine specific history questions are: environment, appetite and diet, attitude, vomiting and diarrhea, coughing and breathing, water consumption, urinary habits, seizures, and lameness.
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Which two of the nine specific history questions may not be asked if not applicable?
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The two of the nine specific history questions that may not be asked are: seizures and lameness.
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What five pieces of information should be obtained about the chief complaint?
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Questions that should be asked about the chief complaint are: onset or duration, prior episodes as well as therapy and response, progression in symptoms, current medications and response, and past prognosis or treatments.
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What questions should be asked about environment?
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Environmental questions should include inquiries about living arrangements of the animal, such as indoor or outdoor, as well as other animals that share the living quarters.
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What questions should be asked about appetite and diet?
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Appetite and diet inquiries should be to determine if the animal's habits are currently normal for him, or whether appetite has increased or decreased.
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What questions should be asked about attitude?
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Attitude questions should determine whether animal is alert, bright, depressed, listless, or has had changes in behavior.
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What questions should be asked about vomiting and diarrhea?
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Vomiting and diarrhea questions should inquire about the description of substance, whether onset is in relation of eating, and frequency.
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What questions should be asked about coughing, sneezing, and breathing?
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The owner should be asked if they have noticed any difficulties in breathing.
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What questions should be asked about water consumption?
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Water consumption questions should try to determine if the animal is normal and consistent in its consumption habits.
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What questions should be asked about urinary habits?
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Questions about urinary habits should regard frequency, quantity, color, odor, and difficulty of elimination.
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What assessments should be made during the physical examination?
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The physical examination should include the following assessments: posture, gait, attitude, body condition, vital signs, mucous membrane color, and capillary refill time.
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What observations should be made about the posture of an animal during a physical examination?
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To evaluate the posture of an animal, observation of status such as natural, unnatural, and dominance need to be made.
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What indications should be looked for in assessing gait?
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To assess gait, veterinary personnel should be observing for possible lameness, weakness, dizziness, or signs of disorientation.
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How is attitude assessed during a physical examination?
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Attitude is assessed by the observer trying to determine how they perceive the animal seems to feel.
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Name five descriptions used in assessing attitude.
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Five descriptions used in assessing attitude are: BAR, QAR, dull, lethargic, and unresponsive.
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What does the term BAR refer to when assessing attitude?
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An animal described as BAR is bright, alert, and responsive.
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What does the term QAR mean in assessing attitude?
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The term QAR is used to describe animals that are quiet, alert, and responsive.
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What does it mean when an animal is described as dull during an attitude assessment?
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An animal described as dull is uninterested in its surroundings.
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What does it mean when an animal is described as lethargic during an attitude assessment?
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An animal described as lethargic is showing no energy and listlessness.
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What does it mean when an animal is described as unresponsive during an attitude assessment?
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An unresponsive animal shows no response to stimuli.
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Why is taking body temperature so important?
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Body temperature is one of the best indicators of disease.
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What is one of the more critical reasons that body weight must be measured accurately?
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Body weight must be measured accurately to correctly calculate drug dosages.
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What are the four vital signs that are checked during a physical examination?
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The four vital signs that are taken during a physical examination are: body weight, body temperature, pulse, and respiratory.
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Describe a dog whose body condition is considered excellent.
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An excellent body condition would be well muscled, ribs can be palpated but not visible.
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Describe a dog whose body condition is considered good.
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A dog in good body condition will be muscled with ribs that can be palpated.
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Describe a dog whose body condition is considered fair.
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A dog with fair body condition is muscled with ribs visible.
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Describe a dog whose body condition is considered poor.
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A dog who has poor body condtion is thin, lacks muscle structure, and ribs are highly visible.
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Describe a dog whose body condition is considered obese.
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An obese dog has ribs that cannot be palpated and is extremely overweight.
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What is a normal condition causing elevated temperature?
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Temperature can be elevated if animal is excited.
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What are the features of a normal pulse?
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A normal pulse will be strong and regular, not thready or weak.
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What does it indicate when mucous membranes are pale in color?
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Pale gums indicate anemia, which is a lack of iron.
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What does it indicate when mucous membranes are blue in color?
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Blue gums indicate the animal is cyanotic, or lacking in oxygen.
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What does it indicate when mucous membranes are muddy in color?
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Grey or muddy-colored gums are indicative in shock.
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What does it indicate when mucous membranes are yellow in color?
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Yellow gums are indicative of ictrus or liver problems.
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How is capillary refill time measured?
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Capillary refill time is measured by pushing on mucous membranes and counting to see how long it takes to return to normal color.
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What causes capillary refill time to slow down?
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Capillary refill time slows down with dehydration or shock.
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What are the standards to determine ideal, normal, and abnormal capillary refill time?
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Ideal CRT is no more than 1 second, normal CRT is 1 to 2 seconds, and abnormal CRT is over 2 seconds.
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What is the meaning of the term assessment?
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Assessment is the term used to describe the evaluation of a condition.
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What information is included in a signalment?
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A signalment is a description of the animal and includes information about species, breed, age, and sexual status.
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What are two terms used to describe fever, or elevated body temperature?
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Febrile and pyrexia are medical terms for fever.
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What term is used to describe a decrease in body temperature?
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A decrease in body temperature is known as hypothermia.
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How is a pulse rate taken?
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A pulse rate is taken by palpation of an artery.
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What is auscultation?
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Auscultation is listening to body sounds, usually involving a stethoscope.
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What methods of examination use touching to assess conditions?
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Palpation and percussion are used to assess conditions by touching.
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What is a differential diagnosis?
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Differential diagnosis is a list of possible diagnoses based on the history and clinical signs observed that the clinician will attempt to rule in or out using specific diagnostic tests.
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What is one of the requirements of a complete systems review?
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A complete systems review requires that one or two questions be asked about each body system.
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Which bodily system is the most difficult and time consuming to examine completely?
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The nervous system is the most difficult and time consuming to examine completely.
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Which kinds of dogs are mostly commonly afflicted with difficult breathing due to constricted nares?
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Brachycephalic dogs are most commonly afflicted withe difficult breathing due to constricted nares.
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How do heart rates compare between small breed and large breed dogs?
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Small breed dogs generally have faster heart rates than large breeds.
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Where is pulse rate most often assessed in dogs and cats?
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Pulse rate is most often evaluated over the femoral artery.
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What is usually revealed during abdominal palpation of a normal dog or cat?
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Abdomination palpation of a normal dog or cat will most likely reveal primarily intestines slipping between the palpater's fingers.
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What is the normal size for a kidney in a cat?
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In a normal cat, kidneys should be 2.5 to 3.5 cm in length.
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Which parameters are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination?
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Cranial nerves and mental status parameters are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination.
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How are spinal reflexes measured?
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Spinal reflexes are measured by a firm but gentle tap on a tendon and observation of degree of contraction of corresponding muscle.
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What is the normal response to a firm toe pinch?
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The normal response to a firm toe pinch is some acknowledgement of pain and withdrawal of the leg.
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Name three pairs of peripheral lymph nodes palpable in the normal animal.
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Peripheral lymph nodes palpable in the normal animal are submandibular, prescapular, and popliteal.
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Name the two pairs of peripheral lymph nodes not generally palpable in the normal animal.
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Peripheral lymph nodes not generally palpable in the normal animal are axillary and inguinal.
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What is a comedone?
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A comedone is a blackhead.
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Describe the grading of reflex responses.
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Reflex responses are graded as follows: 0 for no response, 1 for hyporeflexia (less than normal response), 2 for normal response, 3 for hyperflexia (greater than normal response), and 4 for clonus (repetitive response).
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What is the normal RR and HR for cats?
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Normal RR is 16-30 and HR is 160-240 in cats.
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What is the normal RR and HR in cows?
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Normal RR is 20-30 and HR is 50-70 in cows.
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What is the normal RR and HR in dogs?
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Normal RR is 16-24 and HR is 70-180 in dogs, while puppies can have HR up to 220.
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What is the normal RR and HR in horses?
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Normal RR 8-12 and HR is 35-50 in horses.
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What is the acronym SOAP used to describe?
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SOAP stands for subjective, objective, assessment, and plan in a problem oriented medical record.
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What is a master problem list?
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A master problem liste is a list of actual diagnoses for that patient, notated on a separate summary sheet.
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What is the PPH?
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PPH is an acronym for past pertinent hbistory, which is medcial history which may impact current problem.
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Where would past pertinent history be notated for a new patient in the problem oriented medical record?
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Past pertinent history would be recorded in the subjective portion for a new patient.
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Where would the chief complaint be listed in the problem oriented medical record?
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The chief complaint would be listed in the subjective portion of the problem oriented medical record.
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Describe the subjective part of the problem oriented medical record.
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The subjective part of the problem oriented medical record deals with our impressions of the animal, is subject to change, includes comments from client, and lists specific history questions.
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Describe the objective part of the problem oriented medical record.
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The objective part of the problem oriented medical record includes actual physical data compiled on patient such as vitals as well as lab data.
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Which two sections of the problem oriented medical record are not completed by veterinary assistants?
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Veterinarians complete the assessment and plan sections of the problem oriented medical record.
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What is included in the assessment section of the problem oriented medical record?
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The assessment section is a list of possible diagnoses.
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What is in the plan section of the problem oriented medical record?
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The plan section summarizes the diagnostic and therapeutic plan for the patient.
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What are the eight parts of a problem oriented medical record?
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The eight parts of a problem oriented medical record include: signalment, master problem list, past pertinent history, chief complaint, subjective, objective, assessment, and plan.
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