Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
188 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Microorganisms are involved in:
|
Causing diseases, curing/treating diseases, preparing food, cleaning up pollutants
|
|
|
Which is true of bacteria?
A. Are not found on our bodies B. Are only found on moist surfaces of our bodies C. Provide protection to us from disease by covering our bodies D. Always cause disease when growing on our bodies |
C. Provide protection on moist surfaces of our bodies
|
|
|
Which is usually true of bacteria?
A. They are found as rods, spheres, or spirals. B. They reproduce by binary fission. C. They contain rigid cell walls made of peptidoglycan D. They are single-cell organisms E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
|
|
|
Which is not usually true of Archaea?
A. They are found as rods, spheres, or spirals B. They reproduce by binary fission. C. They contain rigid cell walls. D. They are single-cell organisms E. They contain peptidoglycan as part of their cell walls |
E. They contain peptidoglycan as part of their cell walls
|
|
|
The scientific name of an organisms includes its:
|
Genus and species
|
|
|
Viroids are naked pieces of (DNA or RNA) that infect plants?
|
RNA
|
|
|
Eukaryotic cells are
A. Less complex than prokaryotic cells B. Members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea. C. Defined by the presence of a membrane bound nucleus D. Able to reproduce more rapidly than prokaryotes E. a, b, and d |
C. Defined by the presence of a membrane bound nucleus
|
|
|
The resolving power of a microscope is described as the ability of the microscope to:
|
Separate clearly two objects that are very close together
|
|
|
Which of the following stains is/are considered differential?
A. Capsule stain B. flagella stain C. acid fast stain D. gram stain E. c and d |
E. c and d
|
|
|
The correct order of reagents used in the gram stain reaction is:
|
crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
|
|
|
Which is not true of a cell’s cytoplasmic membrane?
A. It defines the boundaries of the cell B. It is a semipermeable barrier C. It consists mainly of a fixed, static phospholipid bilayer D. It uses proteins as selective gates and sensors E. All of the above are true |
C. it consists mainly of a fixed, static phospholipid bilayer
|
|
|
The macromolecule found in the cell walls of all Bacteria (domain) is:
|
Peptidoglycan
|
|
|
The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria:
A. contains a thin layer of peptidoglycan B. contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan C. is, due to its thickness, an excellent barrier to most molecules D. contains an outer membrane containing LPS E. b and c |
B. Contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan
|
|
|
The capsule may be:
|
used for protection, used to help the bacteria adhere to surfaces
|
|
|
A bacterial endospore is:
|
a protected, dormant cell
|
|
|
True or False: Bacillus and Clostridium are medically relevant groups of bacteria that characteristically stain acid fast
|
False
|
|
|
Prokaryotic cells divide by a process known as
|
binary fission
|
|
|
A urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms is considered indicative of infection. If a urine sample containing 5,000 bacteria, with a generation tie of 30 minutes, sits for 3 hours (at optimum temperature) before being assayed, how many bacteria will then be present?
|
820,000
|
|
|
A hot tub set at 120 degrees F (48 C) would most likely contain
|
Thermophiles
|
|
|
Bacteria on fish caught in the Arctic Ocean would
|
be psychrophiles, and continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigerator
|
|
|
Organisms that require oxygen for metabolism are referred to as
|
obligate aerobes
|
|
|
The enzyme(s) that break(s) down toxic oxygen bi-products is/are
|
superoxide dismutase & catalase
|
|
|
Organisms that use C0₂ as their source of carbon are called
|
autotrophs
|
|
|
An organism called Bacillus fastidiosus:
A. might be expected to be flexible in its growth requirements B. might be expected to be very strict in its growth requirements C. would probably need to be grow on chemically defined media D. might be expected to have a rod shape E. b, c, and d |
E. b, c, and d
|
|
|
A medium that inhibits the growth of organisms other than the one being sought is a(n):
|
selective medium
|
|
|
Blood agar
A. is a chemically defined medium B. is often used to culture clinically relevant bacteria C. may be used as a selective medium D. may be used as a differential medium E. b and d |
E. b and d
|
|
|
True or False: Prokaryotes are the only organisms able to use atmospheric nitrogen as a nitrogen source.
|
True
|
|
|
The process of killing or removing all the microorganisms in or on a material is termed:
|
sterilization
|
|
|
If a 1D process requires 1 minute, how many minutes would it take to kill all organisms when startin giwth 100,000 organisms?
|
6 minutes
|
|
|
T/F: Dry heat (e.g. oven) normally takes a shorter time to sterilize material than wet heat (steam) at the same temperature
|
false
|
|
|
Pasteurization is:
|
the use of heat to reduce pathogenic/spoilage bacteria to a safe level
|
|
|
Typical conditions used for autoclave sterilization are
|
121⁰ C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
|
|
|
Alcohols are not reliably effective at destroying
|
naked viruses and endospores
|
|
|
Chlorhexidine
A. is a member of the biguanides B. is extensively used in antiseptics C. is ineffective against vegetable bacteria D. is limited in use to its high toxicity E. a and b |
E. a and b
|
|
|
Which of the following is true of hydrogen peroxide?
a. it is a sterilant for inanimate objects but is quickly inactivated on living tissue b. it leaves a toxic residue c. it is broken down by catalase into water and oxygen d. it is even more effective when used in combination with peracetic acid e. a, c, and d |
e. a, c, and d
|
|
|
X-rays cause biological damage in living systems by
|
producing single and double strand breaks in DNA molecules
|
|
|
Microwaves do not kill organisms directly but kill by
|
the heat they generate in a product
|
|
|
The general term used to describe the interconnected anabolic and catabolic reactions in a cell is
|
metabolism
|
|
|
The most common starting pathway for the breakdown of sugars is
|
glycolysis
|
|
|
The terminal electron acceptor in bacterial respiration may be
|
oxygen, nitrate, and/or sulfate
|
|
|
Which of the following metabolic processes generates the greatest amount of energy?
a. fermentation b. aerobic respiration c. the Entner-Duodoroff pathway d. glycolysis e. a and c |
b. aerobic respiration
|
|
|
Fermentation
a. uses an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor b. uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor c. results in the production of a large amount of ATP d. is necessary in some organisms to produce reduced electron carriers |
b. uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor
|
|
|
In bacteria, proton motive force
|
Is used to synthesize ATP & is used to drive flagella rotation
|
|
|
The 2 strands of DNA are bonded to one another by________ bonds
|
hydrogen
|
|
|
The 3’ end of DNA
a. refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon b. attaches to the 5’ phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide c. always has thymine attached to it d. usually has guanine attached to it e. a and b |
e. a and b
|
|
|
Which of the following is/are true of DNA replication?
a. it starts at the origin of replication b. nucleotides are added to the 3’ end of the growing, new DNA strand c. it requires an RNA primer to get started d. it utilizes polymerases e. all are true |
e. all are true
|
|
|
How many nucleotides are in a codon?
|
3
|
|
|
AUG
a. is only used as the start codon b. codes for methionine c. determines the reading frame d. is one of the stop codons e. b and c |
e. b and c
|
|
|
In bacteria, a set of genes that are linked together and transcribed as a single unit is referred to as a(n)
|
operon
|
|
|
The molecule that binds to a repressor molecule and causes it to no longer bind to the operator site is called a(n)
|
inducer
|
|
|
The source of variation among microorganisms that were once identical is
|
mutation
|
|
|
Irradiation of cells with ultraviolet light may cause
|
thymine dimers
|
|
|
Chemical mutagens that mimic the naturally occurring nucleotides in DNA are called
|
base analogs
|
|
|
On which DNA sequence would UV radiation have the most effect?
a. AACCGGG b. TATATACG c. AUAUCGAU d. AATTAGTTC |
d. AATTAGTTC
|
|
|
Segments of DNA capable of moving from one area in the DNA to another are called
|
transposons
|
|
|
DNA repair mechanisms occur in prokaryotes or eukaryotes?
|
in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
|
|
|
The mechanisms by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called
|
transduction
|
|
|
Which is true about plasmids?
a. they are small circular extra-chromosomal pieces of double-stranded DNA b. they are self-repicating c. they can carry from a few genes to several hundred d. they may occur from 1 to several hundred copies in a cell e. all are correct |
e. all are correct
|
|
|
The F plasmid contains genes that encode
|
the sex pilus
|
|
|
61. Competent cells
a. are able to take up naked DNA b. are antibiotic resistant c. occur naturally d. can be created in the laboratory e. a, c, and d |
e. a, c, and d
|
|
|
Insertion sequences
a. are the simplest type of transposon b. code for a transposase enzyme c. are characterized by an inverted repeat d. can produce pili e. a, b, and c |
e. a, b, and c
|
|
|
Specialized transduction
a. can occur following infection by a lytic bacteriophage b. results in the transfer of a random selection of host genes c. can be performed by the lysogenic phage lambda d. requires the recipient cell to be competent |
can be performed by the lysogenic phage lambda
|
|
|
The type of horizontal gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is
|
conjugation
|
|
|
T/F: each gene mutates spontaneously at a characteristic frequency
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: DNA polymerase is able to proofread the DNA sequence
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Double stranded DNA enters the recipient cell during transformation
|
False
|
|
|
T/F: R-plasmids often carry the information for antibiotic resistance
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: R-plasmids and F-plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: transposons may leave a cell by incorporating themselves into a plasmid
|
True
|
|
|
The three domain classification scheme uses:
|
Archaea, Bacteria, Eucarya
|
|
|
Which technique is used to help identify and classify bacteria?
a. microscopic examination b. culture characteristics c. biochemical tests d. nucleic acid analysis e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
|
|
|
T/F: All known species of bacteria are described in Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
|
True
|
|
|
Gas chromatography of fatty acids is useful for identifying
a. only gram-positive bacteria b. only gram negative bacteria c. gram-positive bacteria by the unique fatty acids found in the outer membrane pattern of fatty acids found in their membranes d. bacteria by the unique pattern of fatty acids found in their membranes |
d. bacteria by the unique pattern of fatty acids found in their membranes
|
|
|
Organisms that grow very slowly, are non-culturable, are present in very small numbers or are mixed with a number of other bacteria may still be identified using
|
PCR
|
|
|
Which of the rRNA molecules has proven most useful in bacterial taxonomy/identification?
|
16S
|
|
|
T/F: numerical taxonomy uses a battery of phenotypic characteristics to classify bacteria
|
True
|
|
|
The gram-positive rod that is also acid fast and is a human pathogen is:
|
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
|
|
|
Treponema and Borrelia
a. are luminescent b. are endosymbionts c. are spirochaetes d. are both easily grown on artificial media |
c. are spirochaetes
|
|
|
Mycoplasma
a. lack peptidoglycan b. are the smallest free-living organisms c. have sterols in their membranes d. are killed by penicillin e. a, b, and c |
e. a, b, and c
|
|
|
Which of the following is/are obligate intracellular parasites?
a. Chlamydia and Rickettsia b. E. coli and Pseudomonas c. mycoplasma d. treponema pallidum |
a. Chlamydia and Rickettsia
|
|
|
T/F: Chlamydia occurs in two forms, a reticulate body and an elementary body
|
True
|
|
|
Algae are important environmentally as
|
major producers of oxygen
|
|
|
T/F: Algae have a vascular system very similar to that found in plants
|
False
|
|
|
Which dinoflagellate kills fish by dispersing toxins directly into the water?
|
Pfiesteria
|
|
|
Protozoan classification is primarily based on their means of
|
locomotion
|
|
|
The Giardia and Trichomonas protozoans use _________ motility
|
flagellar
|
|
|
One of the greatest human killers of all time has been the Malaria protozoan…
|
Plasmodium
|
|
|
Most fungi are
a. aerobic or facultatively anaerobic b. obligate anaerobes c. obligate aerobes d. microaerophiles |
a. aerobic or facultatively anaerobic
|
|
|
Fungi are primarily classified according to their
a. mode of locomotion b. morphology c. mode of nutrition d. method of sexual reproduction |
d. method of sexual reproduction
|
|
|
Coccidiomycosis is
a. a fungal disease b. a protozoal disease c. caused by coccidiodes sp.. d. caused by candida sp.. e. a and c |
e. a and c
|
|
|
Enveloped viruses
a. just require a stamp b. have an outer lipid bilayer membrane containing various proteins c. are surrounded by an additional layer of carbohydrate d. have an envelope |
b. have an outer lipid bilayer membrane containing various proteins
|
|
|
The changes that occur in virus-infected cells are characteristic for a particular virus and are referred to as the
|
cytopathic effect
|
|
|
T/F: Both naked and enveloped animal viruses may enter the host cell via endocytosis.
|
True
|
|
|
The enveloped viruses typically obtain their envelope
a. from the host plasma membrane b. as they exit the host c. from a newly constructed virus-derived membrane d. from the nuclear membrane e. a and b |
e. a and b
|
|
|
In latent viral infections, how are virions being produced
|
only during reactivation
|
|
|
The viruses most associated with causing tumors in humans are
|
DNA viruses
|
|
|
Viroids cause diseases in
|
plants
|
|
|
Prions affect the
|
nervous system
|
|
|
Factors that work generically against any foreign substance entering the host are described as
|
innate immunity
|
|
|
Skin and mucous membranes
a. are the first line of innate immunity b. are the first line of adaptive immunity c. act as physical barriers to infection d. contain antimicrobial secretions e. a, c, and e |
e. a, c, and e
|
|
|
T/F: Tears contain the antimicrobial substance, lysozyme
|
True
|
|
|
Name a phagocytic cell found in the human body
|
neutrophil
|
|
|
A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is
|
complement
|
|
|
The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the
|
membrane attack complex
|
|
|
T/F: Gram-negative bacteria are less susceptible to complement lysis than gram-positive bacteria
|
False
|
|
|
The four cardinal signs of inflammation are:
|
redness, heat, swelling, pain
|
|
|
Toll-like receptors
a. are cytokines b. each recognize a specific “danger” molecule c. transmit a message to the cell’s nucleus d. are part of adaptive immunity e. b and c |
e. b and c
|
|
|
Antibodies are made by
|
B cells/plasma cells
|
|
|
What generally induces the strongest immune response?
|
proteins
|
|
|
How long after initiation of a primary response do significant amounts of antibody appear in the blood?
|
10-14 days
|
|
|
Which accounts for most of the circulating antibody?
|
IgG
|
|
|
CD4 cells are often
|
T helper cells
|
|
|
Which is involved in reacting to virus-infected cells?
a. cell-mediated immunity b. T cytotoxic cells c. B cells d. MHC I e. a, b, and d |
e. a, b, and d
|
|
|
Antigens may be processed for presentation by
|
macrophages and dendritic cells
|
|
|
The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called
|
vaccination
|
|
|
Almost all of the antibodies found in a newborn are
a. the result of infection b. self-made c. IgM d. the result of passive immunity |
d. the result of passive immunity
|
|
|
Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called:
|
adjuvants
|
|
|
The change in a person from negative serum (lacking antibodies to an infecting agent) to positive serum (containing antibodies for the infecting agent) is called
|
seroconversion
|
|
|
During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, the mast cells
|
degranulate and immediately release histamine
|
|
|
Most cases of generalized anaphylaxis are a result of
|
peanuts, bee stings, or penicillin injections
|
|
|
Arthus reactions and serum sickness are examples of ________ hypersensitivity
|
Type III
|
|
|
Graft-versus-host disease is primarily a type ____ reaction
|
IV
|
|
|
If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed
|
autoimmune disease
|
|
|
T/F: a microaerophilic bacterium should grow only as the surface of an agar deep (shake) tube
|
False
|
|
|
T/F: the plate count method of enumerating bacteria only yields the number of viable (live) cells
|
True
|
|
|
A bacterial count plate with a final dilution of 10¯⁷ produced 170 colonies. What was the original concentration in the sample?
|
1.7 x 10⁹ (1,700,000,000)
|
|
|
How much dilutent would you add to a 4.0 ml bacterial sample to produce a 10¯² dilution?
|
396 ml
|
|
|
If you wanted to produce a 1:4 dilution of a 1.0 ml serum sample, how much diluent would you add to it?
|
3 ml
|
|
|
Escherichia coli
|
diarrhea
|
|
|
Neisseria gohorrhea
|
gonorrhea
|
|
|
Salmonella typhi
|
typhoid fever
|
|
|
Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
pneumonia
|
|
|
Clostidium tetani
|
tetanus
|
|
|
IgG
|
agglutinates antigens
|
|
|
IgM
|
first antibody produced during primary response
|
|
|
IgA
|
protects mucous membranes
|
|
|
IgE
|
involved in hypersensitivty
|
|
|
IgD
|
found on the surface of B cells
|
|
|
The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are:
|
normal flora
|
|
|
Which of the following is true about the role normal flora play in maintaining host health?
a. they provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader b. they establish competition for nutrients and vitamins c. they produce antimicrobial substances d. they stimulate the immune system e. all of the above |
d. they stimulate the immune system
|
|
|
Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called:
|
virulence factors
|
|
|
The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the
|
infectious dose
|
|
|
T/F: During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms
|
True
|
|
|
The chemical nature of an exotoxin is that of a
a. protein b. carbohydrate c. lipid d. lipopolysaccharide |
a. protein
|
|
|
Which is true about superantigens?
a. they are a type of exotoxin b. they bind to MHC class I molecules on B cells c. they enhance specific antibody production d. they are processed intracellularly |
a. they are a type of exotoxin
|
|
|
Diseases constantly present in a population are called
|
endemic
|
|
|
Diseases that primarily exist in animals, but may be transmitted to humans are called
|
zoonotic
|
|
|
Vertical transmission involves
|
pregnant woman to fetus
|
|
|
The period of time between exposure to an agent and the onset of disease signs and symptoms is called the
|
incubation period
|
|
|
When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a sufficient number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as
|
herd immunity
|
|
|
T/F: Disease with long incubation period are more likely to spread extensively
|
True
|
|
|
An infection acquired during hospitalization is referred to as
|
nosocomial
|
|
|
The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called
|
antibiotics
|
|
|
T/F: Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient at normally prescribed doses
|
True
|
|
|
Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed
|
broad spectrum
|
|
|
Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called
|
synergistic
|
|
|
Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan (bacterial cell wall synthesis)?
a. penecillin b. cephalosporin c. vancomycin d. bacitracin e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
|
|
|
Which bacteria has an innate resistance to penicillin?
|
Mycoplasma
|
|
|
The class of antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis is
a. the aminoglycosides b. the tetracyclines c. the macrolides d. chloramphenicol e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
|
|
|
Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically bind to
|
ribosomes
|
|
|
Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to
a. drug-inactiviating enzymes b. alteration in the target module c. decreased uptake of the drug d. increased elimination of the drug e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
|
|
|
The target of most antifungal drugs is
a. the ribosome b. nucleus c. cholesterol d. ergosterol |
d. ergosterol
|
|
|
The growth of Propionibacterium acnes with hair follicles, in many individuals, leads to
|
acne
|
|
|
The staphylococcus aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is
|
exfoliatin toxin
|
|
|
The protein produced by Staphylococcus aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is
|
protein A
|
|
|
In which of the following does a rash start on the palms and soles and progress toward the trunk?
a. epidemic typhus b. typhoid c. lyme disease d. impetifo e. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever |
e. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
|
|
|
The causative agent of Lyme disease is
|
borrelia burgdorferi
|
|
|
A tick is the vector for which of the following diseases?
a. Lyme b. Roseola c. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever D. a and c E. all of the above |
D. a and c
|
|
|
Varicella-zoster virus causes
|
chicken pox
|
|
|
Rubella, rubeola and varicella-zoster are each acquired via
a. gastrointestinal route b. respiratory route c. wounds d. blood transfusions |
b. respiratory route
|
|
|
Warts are caused by
|
papillomaviruses
|
|
|
T/F: Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections
|
True
|
|
|
Which of bacteria produces a greenish pigment that may appear in infected wounds?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
|
Which organism is a non-invasive exotoxin producer?
|
Clostridium tetani
|
|
|
Tetanus results from blockage of the release of neurotransmitters from
|
inhibitory neurons
|
|
|
Cat scratch fever is caused by
|
Bartonella henselae
|
|
|
Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because
a. the microorganisms stop dividing b. of the chemical nature of the pus c. of the lack of blood vessels d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of myonecrosis?
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
|
Which of the following may occur following recovery from streptococcal pharyngitis?
a. scarlet fever b. acute glomerulonephritis c. rheumatic fever d. a and b e. b and c |
e. b and c
|
|
|
Lysogenic conversion is necessary for toxin production by what microorganism?
|
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
|
|
|
Both Streptococcus pneumoniae & Klebsiella pneumoniae use this primary virulence factor.
|
cilia
|
|
|
Which microorganism causes walking pneumonia?
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
|
The causative agent of whooping cough is
|
Bordatella pertussis
|
|
|
Person-to-person transmission has not been demonstrated for which of the following bacteria?
a. Legionella pneumophila b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Mycobacterim tuberculosis e. all of the above may be transmitted person to person |
a. Legionella pneumophila
|
|
|
The virulence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to its
|
survival within macrophages
|
|
|
Deaths from influenza are most often due to
|
secondary bacterial infections
|
|
|
Antigenic shift in influenza viruses may be due to
|
two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time
|
|
|
Histoplasmosis is associated with the growth of Histoplasma capsulatum in
|
soil containing bird and bat droppings
|
