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82 Cards in this Set

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1. what is the purpose of differential media?
2. give an example
1. distinguishes microorganisms based on their metabolic activity
2. Simmons Citrate agar
1. what is the purpose of the selective/differential media?
2. give an example
1. has both selective and differential media characteristics.
2. Mannitol salt agar
1. describe the Mannitol salt agar.
2. what organism is grown on it and why?
1.its 7.5 % mannitol salt
2. its selective because only staphylococcus grow on it due its salt, and differentail because only S. Aureus can ferment mannitol turning plate from pink to yellow
Which media are used for growing GRAM POSITIVE baceria
phenyl ethyl alcohol/ blood (PEA/PEAB)
Columbia colistin, naladixic acid (CNA)
1.what is the medium used for Corynebacterium diptheriae?
2. what are the other variations of this medium
3. how do the colonies appear and why?
1.Tinsdale medium (inhibits gram + and -)
2.but C. diptheriae is resistant
chocolate tellurite, loefflers medium
3. black with dark gray halos because they convert tellurite > tellurium
1. what organisms do we grow on Egg Yolk Medium
2. what is the appearance of these organisms
1. C. Perfringens which has lecithinase activity which converts phospholipids >diglycerides.
2. diglycerides appear as zones of opalescence surrounding the colonies
1. describe the Thayer Martin Agar?
2. what organisms do we grow on the plate and how do we distinguish them
1. blood agar base containing antibiotics and salts
2. n. gonorrhoeae appears grayish white mucoid
n. meningitidis appears blue-gray mucoid
what agar media is used for gram negatives
macconkey
eosin methylene blue (EMB)
Hektoen Enteric Agar
Xylose lysine desoxycholate Agar
1. what kind of organisms does Macconkey grow?
2. how does E.cloi appear on this
1. grows gram- because of bile salts
2. e-coli ferments lactose and turns plate from orange to dark pink
all of this make this a selective/differentail plate
1. what kind of organisms does EMB agar grow?
2. how does E.coli appear of this
1. gram- because of methylene blue and eosin.

2. E.coli ferments lactose and appears metallic green
1.what kind of bugs do we use Hektoen Enteric Agar for and why?
salmonella and shigella which are gram- because it has bile salts which inhibit all gram+ and most gram - except these 2
how are salmonella and shigella distinguished in Hektoen Enteric agar
lactose fermentors will turn the plate yellow because they make acid

salmonella (nonfermenter) turns it black by reducing the hydrogen sulfide
1. what bugs to we grow on a Xylose Lysine Desoxycholate Agar?
gram negative salmonella and shigella becuase sodium desoxylate prevents gram +
1.how are salmonella and shigella distinguished from each other on the a Xylose Lysine Desoxycholate Agar
salmonella engages in xylose fermentation and H2S production, and lysine decarboxylation.

sulfide from H2S reacts with Iron and makes colonies black
1. what organism is isolated on Bordet-Gengou (BG) agar?
BG agar is made of Potato-glycerol based with 15-20% defibrinated blood

selective for Bordetella pertussis
1. what organism is isolated on Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BCYE)
contains Yeast extract, charcoal and salts
Selective for Legionella sp.
1. what is the key ingredient that we need to isolate Legionella
Alpha-ketoglutarate
1. what organism grows on Thiosulfate citrate-bile salts agar (TCBS)
Vibrio sp
1. what organism grows on Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar
2. what do the colonies look like
1. Yersinia sp.
2. red-pigmented “bullseye” in the middle of each colony
1. describe Lowenstein-Jensen Agar
2.what organism grows on it?
1.Egg-based medium. Contaminants inhibited by malachite green

2.Mycobacterium sp
1. describe the Middlebrook Agar.
2. what its advantage over Lowenstein-Jensen Agar
1. Contains OADC (oleic acid-dextrose-citrate) enrichment which Chemically simulates egg components
2. Isoniazid-resistant strains of Mycobacterium sp grow better
1. what organism is isolated on MES (Ureaplasma Agar)
2. why do we use this agar?
1. Ureaplasma urealyticum
2 Contains horse serum which
Supplies cholesterol needed for stabilizing them and Urea which is a required nutrient
1. what is the catalase activity of staphylococcus and streptococcus
staphylococcus catalse+ streptococcus catalase -
1. how do we distinguish s. Aureus from others ?
1. perform a coagulase test, S. Aureus is coagulase +
1. what does the oxidase test detect ? 2 what organism do we use it for?
1. detects cytochrome oxidase enzyme.
2. Neisseria
1. what does the Indole test detect ?
2.what organism do we use it for?
1. activity of the tryptophanase enzyme on tryptophan, turning kovacs reagent red.
2. E. Coli
1. what does the urease test detect?
2. what organism do we use it for?
1. Detects activity of urease which hydrolyzes urea releasing ammonia urning medium from orange to pink
2. Proteus sp.
1. what organism is detected with the Bile Esculin test?
Group D streptococci Enterococcus which can hydrolyze esculin a bile salt. this turns medium from orange to black
1. what organism is detected with the Optochin Test – P disc test?
Streptococcus pneumoniae because its sensitive to Optochin and will not grow around it
1. what organism is detected with the Bacitracin – A disc test?
group A streptococci from other groups of beta-hemolytic streptococci.

S. pyogenes is resistant to this
what are some deratophyte fungi
Microsporum
Epidermophyton
Trichophyton
What are the steps for direct microscopic examination of Fungal diseases
1. treat with 10-20% KOH which dissolves everything except the Fungi
2. stain with crystal violet oe lactophenol cotton blue
what is India Ink used for?

what do you have to be carefull of when using india ink
1. for detection of Cryptococcus Neoformans in CSF. the bugs have a clear area around them.
2. WBC reseble c.neoformans
1. what is Periodic acid-Schiff stain used for?
1. detection of fungal elements in tissue specimens.
fungi appear red
1. what is Grocott-Gomori methenamine-silver nitrate stain
used for?
1. to stain fungi such as Candida, Histoplasma, Blastomyces.

fungi appeak black
what is Giemsa stain used for
Detects Histoplasma capsulatum in blood or bone marrow

Stains yeast a purple-blue surrounded by clear halo
what is Masson-Fontana stain used for
Stains melanin in the cell wall of fungi a brown color
what is Phospholipid ester-linked fatty acid analysis PLFA used for?
Can be used to identify groups of microorganisms through their phospholipids, and microrganism viability.
1.what is the role of crystal violet
2. what is the role of grams iodine
3. role of 95 etoh
4. what is the role of safranin
1. primay stain- stains everything purple
2. mordant- locks in he color
3.de-stains gram-
4. counterstain, gram- (pink) gram+ purple
1. for what organism do we use a Acid Fast- Akaziehl-neelsen for?
2. what dye do we use in this stain? why?
3. what are the de-stainers and counterstains used for?
1. mycobacterium Sp.
2. carbol-fuschin red because its lipid soluble
3. de-stainer: acid alcohol.
counter stain: methyl blue
1. what is a differential stain?
2. what kind of medium do we use for this?
3. what are the dyes we use with this?
4. how will the organism appear
1. looks for extracelluar capsule
2. skim milk medium
3. congo red, crystal violet
4. unstained capsule appears as a halo
1. what stain is used for flagella?
2. what dye is used spores?
3.what is used as counterstain for spores
1. liefson's
2. Malachite green for endospres
3. Safranin for vegetative bacteria
1. what is B-hemolysis
2. name 2 bacteria that do this
1. leaves clear areas around colony
2. S. Pyogenes, S. Aureus
1. What is a-hemolysis
2. what is an an example of an microorganism that does this?
1. leaves green areas around colonies
2. S. Pneumoniae
1. what is selective media?
2. give an example of selective agent
1. favors growth of one kind of microrganism over other
2. dyes, antibiotics,
what is the key factor of type I hypersensitivity
its immediate
1.what kind of antigens for type 1.
2.what kind of cells respond to this antigen ?
3.what is the effector mechanism
1.soluble antigen
2. Th2 B-cells
3. mast cell degranulation when exposed to the same antigen a second time
what are some examples of Type 1 hypersensitivity rxn
allergic rhinitis
asthma
systemic anaphylaxis
what cytokine does a Th2 differentiation need
IL4
where are mast cells made and where do they mature.

where are mast cells typically found?
made in B.M, Mature in tissues

near blood vessels, nerves, and beneath epithelia
what is the mast cell receptor that binds to IGE? and how tight is this bond?
FceRI, and its so tight they are considered one molecule
what are the 2 steps in the release of mast cells products
1. they release the granules they have
2. they make more stuff for immediate release, but not to fill granules
what is the reaction seen to mast cells degranulation on the skin
Wheel and flare
wheel is the center part
flare is the surrounding part
what is the key product that is immediately released from mast cells

what are the products synthesized after the initial vesicle release
Histmine

TNF-a, IL-3,4,5, GMCSF, LTC,D,E
what is the role of the following things?
1. TNFa
2. IL-4
3.IL3,5, GM-CSF
4. LT C4,D4,E4
1. promotes inflammation
2. amplifies Th2 response
3. eosinophil production and activation
4. mucus secretion, + vascular permeability. + smooth muscle contract
what is the role of Leukotrienes and how does their potency compare to Histamine
1. smooth muscle ontraction
2. increased vascular permeability
3. mucus secretion

they are 10x more potent than histamin
what cells are the basophils related to developmentally and functionally.

where are the basophils located
functionally related to mast cells, developmentally with eosinophils

located in the blood, recruited to the tissue
where are the eosinophils located?
what is their expansion dependent on?
what kind of receptor to they express and when?
reside in mucosal and epithelial tissue.
mast cells releasing IL-5.
EceRI after they get activated
why are eosinophils kept in low numbers?
because they release large amounts of peroxidase, collagenase, Major basic protein, and others which are all very toxic to the cell
1what are the factors released by the eosinophils after initial activation
1. IL3,5 GMCSF which cause bonemarrow to make more eosinophils and to activate them.
2. Leukotriene C4,D4,E4 which cause SM contraction, +vascular permeability
what does a patient with Eosinophilia (12-24%) most likely have?
parasites, worms.
how does histamin affect the following:
1. Arteries
2. cardiac
3.Smooth muscle
4. capilary permeability
1. vasodialation
2. stimulation
3. constriction
4. increased vascular permeability
what are the classic type I hypersensitivity reactions
allergic asthma
allergic rhinitis/ hay fever
food allergies
insect sting allergies
what is the meadiator for allergic asthma

what do they cause in a patient
histamine, heparin

airway constriction, mucus secretion
what are some factors that cause subepitheial fibrosis
tryptase
chymase
cathepsin G
carboxypeptidase
what is the difference between viral and bacterial rhinitis
viral is watery while bacterial is yellow in color and thicker
what is the difference between food intolerance and toxicity Vs. allergies
food intolerance and toxicity are not immidiate.

food allergies are type1 and immidiate
what are some of the oral allergy syndromes
allergic eosinophilic esophagitis
food protein induced proctocolitis
food protein induced enteropathy
food protein induced enterocolitis
what is the emergent treatment of systemic anaphylaxis

what is the delayed treatment for systemic anaphylaxis
Epinephrine

Iv fluids, anti histamines, corticosteroids
what are the tests used to diagnose Type 1 reactions
Serum IgE levels
Skin prick testing for specific IgE
what is the goal of desensitization when it comes to allergy testing
to induce a change from IgE to IgG1
what are the antibodies generated in Type II hypersensitivity.

what are they directed against
IGM, or IgG

directed against self surface antigens or extra cellular matrix proteins. that are fixed.
what happens when Type II hypersensitivity antibodies bind to antigen
1. complement of FcR mediated uptake and destruction of cells or local inflammation and tissue damage
what are the primary targets of for incidental drug modification like those of penicillin allergies
erythrocytes and platelets
what are the drugs that are most likely to cause drug induced Anemia or Thrombocytopenia.
penicillin
quinidine
methyldopa
what are some Type II hypersensitivity reactions
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
Goodpasteurs syndrome
Graves Diseases
Myasthenia Gravis
what is the target of the antibodies generated in type III hypersensitivity?

what is the problem with Type III reactions
soluble antigens
Antigen-Ab complex is not 2 abs to each antigen so its insufficient to fix complement, so it sediments causing inflammation in vessels and tubules
what is the antibody produced in Type III.

what ate classic type III hypersensitivity reactions?
IgG.

Arthus reaction, serum sickness
what is the differences between type I Hypersensitivity and Arthus reaction
its IgG dependant and the timing is 1-2 hours after the injection
how long does it take for a serum sickness reaction to show
7-10 days
1.what is the mediator of type IV hypersensitivity.
2.what kind of antigens does the body ammount an immune response to?
3. how much antigen is required for this?
1. Th1, Th2 or CTL t-cells
2. soluble antigen
3. 100-1000 times more antigen than that required for antibody mediated hypersensitivities
what are the classic examples of type IV hypersensitivity
skin responses such as:
TB skin test
poison ivy
type I diabetes, MS, IBS, autoimmune myocarditis, Guillian-Barre syndrome.