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1082 Cards in this Set
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Alexander the Great refused to let his troops eat fish due to this toxin; Captain William Bligh described symptoms of this toxin among his sailors on an expedition in 1789.
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Ciguatera (mostly reef fish)
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Most common fish food poisoning in tropical coastal regions;
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Ciguatera; Ciguatera poisoning accounts for more than half of the fish-related foodborne disease outbreaks in the United States
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Symptoms of ciguatera toxin
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GI then neurologic
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In one highly publicized case, 26 employees developed this toxicity after eating blue marlin in the World Bank cafeteria in Washington, DC, in 1997
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Scombroid. Caused by ingestion of histamine in fish muscle
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Saxitoxin is associated with this ocean phenom.
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Red tide
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Consumption of saxitoxin in this type of seafood may result in perioral tingling, paralysis and resp failure
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Mussels, clams, and oysters, as well as by crabs and snails. PSP (paralytic shellfish poisons) toxins (saxitoxin is most common) block sodium ion channels |
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Pufferfish (fugu) poisoning is caused by
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tetrodotoxin
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Treatment of pufferfish poisoning consists of
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Supportive care and intestinal decontamination with gut lavage and charcoal. Case reports suggest that anticholinesterases such as edrophonium may be effective
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INH toxicity antidote
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B6
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Dig toxicity
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Ovine Dig Fab
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cyanide toxicity
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amyl nitrite (inhalation), Na-nitrite (IV), na-thiosulfate IV
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which substance is metabolized to cyanide after ingestion –
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nail glue remover (acetotitrile)
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cyanide antidote kit
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Lilly Cyanide Antidote Package
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LMWH or heparin toxicity
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protamine
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TCA Toxicity
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Sodium Bicarb
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Salicylate toxicity (oil of wintergreen, peptobismol, alka seltzer)
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urine alkalinization, hemodialysis
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Bitter Almonds smell
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Cyanide
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Garlic smell
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Arsenic
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Pulmonary agent first used by the Germans in 1917, smells like newly mowed hay
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Phosgene gas (CG)
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fruity smell
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acetone, isopropyl alcohol, ethanol
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Iron toxicity
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Deferoxamine
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Lead toxicity treatment
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dimercaprol (British Anti-Lewisite or BAL), calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate (CaNA2EDTA), or meso-2,3-dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA); avoid dimercaprol in hepatic insufficiency or peanut allergy, cautious use in renal insufficiency or HTN
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Methemoglobin toxicity treatment (Fe in 3+ rather than 2+ results in inability to bind oxygen)
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methylene blue
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Ethylene glycol toxicity treatment
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Ethanol or fomepizole
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Organophosphate toxicity treatment
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atropine, pralidoxime
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Acetaminophen toxicity treatment
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N-Acetylcysteine oral 140mg/kg loading then 17 doses of 70mg/kg q4hr
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Narcotic antidote
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naloxone
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Benzodiazepine toxicity treatment
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Flumazenil
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Deadliest nerve agent known to man
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VX gas
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Pyridostigmine does not work as a pre-treatment for …
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VX gas and GB (sarin)
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Respiratory alkalosis, anion-gap metabolic acidosis, hyperpnea, tinnitus are al clinical clues of this overdose
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Salicylate poisoning
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Overdose with this substance typically causes an increased osmolar gap and ketosis without significant metabolic acidosis
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Isopropyl alcohol
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Antidote for nitrite overdose
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Methylene blue
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Three classes of medicines that are first-line treatment for anaphylaxis
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Epinephrine, antihistamines, steroids
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A patient with underlying hypertension goes into anaphylaxis that is refractory to epinephrine. In addition to standard measures, you should use this agent.
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Glucagon (pt may be on a B blocker and resistant to epinephrine
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Causes of clinical deterioration, lactic acidosis and altered mental status in a patient on nitroprusside
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cyanide toxicity
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AKA angel dust
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PCP
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AKA Special K or Kit Kats
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Ketamine
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AKA Georgia Home Boy
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GHB
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AKA Roffies or La Rocha
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Rohypnol
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Two most frequent symptoms of mild carbon monoxide poisoning
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Headache and nausea
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Accumulation of this gas is responsible for decompression illness
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Nitrogen
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Medical significance of N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI)
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Toxic metabolite of acetominophen
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Intravenous treatment for cyanide poisoning
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Sodium thiosulfate
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Use this nomogram to assess tylenol toxicity at 4 and 24 hours after ingestion
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modified Rumack-Matthew nomogram
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Medical treatment for mild to moderate salicylate intoxication
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Alkalinization of the urine
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Treatment of choice for severe carbon monoxide toxicity with coma
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Hyperbaric oxygen
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Electrolyte abnormality classically associated with MDMA (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine) intoxication
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Hyponatremia
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Delayed adverse reaction (that typically occurs 1-2 weeks after treatment) common in patients treated with antivenoms for Crotalinae bites (rattlesnakes, copperheads, and cottonmouths)?
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Serum sickness
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Metalloid chronic exposure associated with the hyperkeratosis pictured here as well as with a symmetric sensorimotor polyneuropathy, hepatic angiosarcoma, along with a variety of other CNS, CV, gastrointestinal, and pulmonary disorders
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Arsenic
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Symptoms of cholinergic excess
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SLUDGE = Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, Gastric Emptying; BBB = bradycardia, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm
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2 drugs found in the Mark 1 kit
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Atropine and 2-PAM-Cl
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Of the three vesicants, this is the only one that does not cause immediate pain
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Mustard gas (Lewisite and phosgene oxide cause immediate pain)
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Lab findings in CN poisoning
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Severe anion-gap acidosis, bright red venous blood
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Optic neuritis, AG metabolic acidosis, osmolar gap from ingestion of this
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Methanol
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Ingestion of these 2 alcohols can cause a high anion gap
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Methanol, ethylene glycol
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Reason isopropyl alcohol does not have an increased anion gap
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Isopropyl alcohol is converted to acetone (neutral compound)
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The treatment of choice for lithium toxicity.
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Hemodialysis
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Red retinal veins after exposure to carbon monoxide
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Jett's sign
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Red as a beet, hot as a hare, dry as a bone, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter
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Anticholinergic syndrome
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Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, emesis
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Cholinergic syndrome/organophosphate poisoning
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Depressed mental status, depressed respiration, miosis
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Opiate toxiciity
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Depressed mental status, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, pulmonary edema, areflexia
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Barbiturate toxicity
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CNS excitation, seizures, HTN, tachycardia, hallucinations, mydriasis
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Stimulant toxicity (amphetamines, cocaine)
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This neuromuscular junction disease is characterized by weakness that may improve with repetitive exercise
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Lambert-Eaton
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Term for a pink or yellow tint to centrifuged CSF in a patient with acute onset, severe HA
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Xanthochromia
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Spongiform encepholapathy in canabalistic tribes
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Kuru
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Flexion of the neck gives shock sensation down the spine in patients with MS (i.e. "Barber chair sign") - also seen in trauma, Behcet's disease, any transverse myelopathy or cord compression (disc, spondylarthropathy, Arnold-Chiari), Vit B12 def (sub-acute combined degeneration)
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Lhermitte's sign
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Three findings on exam that suggest an upper motor neuron lesion rather than a LMN lesion
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Hyperreflexia, Babinski's sign, and increased muscle tone.
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Wet, wacky, wobbly
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Normal pressure hydrocephalus
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In a patient with meningitis, massive neck flexion results in leg flexion
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Brudzinki's sign
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In a patient with meningitis, resistance to full extension of the knee with the hips flexed
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Kernig's sign
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Most common inheritied peripheral neuropathy
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Charcot-Marie-Tooth (Herditary motor sensory neuropathy)
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Impaired short term memory, confabulation, with normal cognition
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Korsakoff's syndrome
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Ipsilateral weakness, contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
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Brown-Sequard syndrome
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Confusion, ataxia, nystagmus
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Wernicke's encephalopathy (triad)
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Scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus
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Charcot's triad (for MS)
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Selective anterograde and retrograde amnesia in patients that have had Wernicke's
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Korsakoff's syndrome
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Frequent falls are associated with this particular seizure location
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Frontal lobe
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Lobe that is the site of 80% of partial seizures
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Temporal lobe
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name for stroke like symptoms following seizure
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Todd's paralysis
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Neurological symptoms seen first in B12 deficiency
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Loss of proprioception and vibrioception
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Miners of this element get Parkinson's disease
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Manganese
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Test associated wit NPH and shunting
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Miller-Fischer test (evaluate gait before and after removing 30 cc CSF)
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Cherry red spots
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Tay-Sachs or Nieman Pick
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Bilateral destruction of the temporal lobes that results in placidity, hypersexuality and loss of visual recognition.
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kluver-bucy
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plexus affected in Achalasia
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Auerbach's
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Plexus affected in Hirschprung's
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Meyer's plexus
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Rare condition that killed actor Dudley Moore
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Progressive supranuclear palsy (or, Parinaud's syndrome)
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This disease is similar to MS and is characterized by optic neuritis and transverse myelitis
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Devic's disease
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Lower plexus palsy affecting C8-T1 nerve roots
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Klumpke's palsy
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Protein found in Lewy Bodies (eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies)
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synuclein
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Ratio of frontal horns of ventricle to maximal diameter of cranium
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0.4
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Confirmation of NPH criteria
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Improvement of gait with 30cc removal of CSF
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syndrome characterized by headaches, confusion, seizures and visual loss, common in the post transplant time period (2/2 tacrolimus/cyclosporine), with hypercalcemia or malignant HTN / eclampsia
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Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome (PRES) or Reversible Posterior Leukoencephalopathy Syndrome (RPLS)
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Hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations seen with increased intracranial pressure
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Cushing's triad
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Hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo
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Meniere's disease
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Ataxia, incontinence, mental status change
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Normal pressure hydrocephalus
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Non-drug treatment for benign positional vertigo
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Otolith repositioning maneuver such as the Epley maneuver; (Dix Hallpike for diagnosis)
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Diagnosis associated with acute onset of headache, vomiting, and ataxia
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Cerebellar infarction or hemorrhage (accept either)
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Name of condition characterized by rapidly flowing, dancing-like involuntary movements occurring in a chaotic, nonstereotypic fashion
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Chorea
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Syndrome characterized by frequent falls and vertical gaze paralysis
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Progressive supranuclear palsy (or, Parinaud's syndrome)
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Anticonvulsant drug associated with metabolic bone disease
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Phenytoin
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Rapidly progressive dementia in older person with prominent startle myoclonus is associated with this CSF protein
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14-3-3 protein in Creutzfeld-Jakob
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Name the symptom (not diagnosis) when an individual drops to the floor with complete muscle weakness after laughing
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cataplexy
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Diagnosis for extra-axial, calcified brain mass with overlying skull hyperostosis
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Meningioma
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Transient, acute memory loss lasting for minutes without loss of consciousness
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Transient global amnesia
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Auditory symptom associated with Bell's palsy
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Hyperacusis
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Most consistently effective treatment for spasmodic torticollis (cervical dystonia)
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bo-tox injections
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Syndrome characterized by dysautonomia, Parkinson's symptoms, corticospinal tract signs, and ataxia
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Multiple system atrophy (Shy Drager)
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Pupil with consensual but not direct response to light
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Marcus Gunn pupil (afferent pupillary defect)
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Ocular finding in hypercalcemia
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Band keratopathy
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Most common cause of conjunctivitis in adults
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viral conjunctiviitis
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Eye involvement associated with Crohn's disease
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Uveitis
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Most common malignant eye tumor
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Melanoma
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Eye finding often associated with abdominal straining
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Subconjunctival hemorrhage
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This physical exam finding can help differentiate iritis from benign conjunctivitis
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ciliary flush
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Most common presenting symptom in MS
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Optic neuritis
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Diagnostic procedure of choice for a patient with endophthalmitis
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Aspiration and culture of anterior chamber (accept either part of answer)
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Term for conjunctival edema
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Chemosis
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Disease associated with corkscrew conjunctival vessels
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Sickle cell
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Glaucoma diagnostic criteria (3)
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Progressive loss of peripheral vision, high intraocular pressure, abnormal cup/disc ratio
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Papilledema, high opening pressure, headache, and diplopia with a peripheral visual field loss is best treated with these medications
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Acetazolamide or furosemide (corticosteroids in severe cases) for pseudotumor cerebri
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Proliferation of opaque fibrovascular conjunctival tissue medial to iris
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Pterygium
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Unilateral large pupil with low reactivity to light and accomodation
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Adie's pupil
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Disease associated with "sausaging" of retinal veins
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Macroglobulinemia (accept Waldenstrom's, hyperviscosity syndrome)
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Adhesions that develop between the iris and lens capsule following iritis
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Synechiae
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Psychiatric disorder occuring commonly following stroke
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Depression
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Most common psychiatric disorder in women over the age of 65 years
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Generalized anxiety disorder
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Name of syndrome characterized by agitation, altered mental status, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dizziness, hypotension, fever, shivering and diaphoresis in a patient taking an SSRI and lithium
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Serotonin syndrome
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Syndrome characterized by the presence of four or more unexplained symptoms
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Abridged somatization
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Daily spiking fevers (quotidian), arthritis and an evenescent "salmon-colored" rash
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Adult Still's Disease
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Likely diagnosis in a 20 yo with recurrent R knee effusions and darkly pigmented fluid on joint aspiration containing hemosiderin-laden macrophages
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Pigmented Villonodular synovitis
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Pain at at the elbow is reproduced with the extension of the wrist against resistance
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Lateral epicondylitis (Tennis elbow)
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Leading cause of knee pain in pt <45
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Patellofemoral syndrome
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Most sensitive physical exam test to detect a patient's torn ACL
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Lachman's test
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Most common cause of foot pain (outpatient)
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Plantar fasciitis
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3 knee injuries that make up the Unhappy Triad
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ACL tear, MCL tear, medial meniscus tear
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In patient with RA, the name for the appearance of the index finger bent at 90 degrees
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boutonniere deformity (PIP hyperflexion with DIP hyperextension)
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Suspect this cause of proximal muslce weakness and elevated CK levels in a patient on chronic treatment for gout
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Colchicine myopathy
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4 seronegative spondyloarthropathies
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Reactive arthritis, IBD-associated, Psoriatic, Ankylosing spondylitis
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Infliximab and etanercept inhibit this mediator of the inflammatory response in RA
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TNF-alpha
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Infliximab
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human/mouse TNF alpha antibody
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Adalimumab
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human monoclonal antibody to TNF alpha
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Certolizumab
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pegylated humanized TNF alpha Fab
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Golimumab
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human monoclonal antibody to TNF alpha
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Etanercept
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fusion protein with TNF receptor and IgG
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3 components of Felty's syndrome
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Neutropenia, RA, splenomegaly
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Acute stridor and hoarseness in a patient with RA is a signal for involvement of this joint and is an emergent indication for steroids
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Cricoarythenoid synovitis
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This condition, known as 'pseudophlebitis,' can mimic a DVT
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Ruptured Baker's cyst
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2 large vessel vasculitidies
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Giant cell arteritis, Takayusu arteritis
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Suspect this diagnosis in a patient with active Hep B and vasculitis
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PAN (polyarteritis nodosa)
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Low complement levels are commonly seen in patients with these 2 types of vasculitis
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Cryoglobulinemia, SLE vasculitis
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Antibodies associated with systemic sclerosis
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Anti-Scl 70 or anti-centromere
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This antibody is associated with the absence of interstitial lung disease in patients with scleroderma
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Anti-centromere
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Myositis specific autoantibodies associated with interstitial lung disease, arthritis, and a hyperkeratotic rash on the hands
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Antihistidyl-tRNA synthetase
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Test for lacrimal function in patients with dry eyes
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Schirmer test
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Syndrome characterized by pain localized to the distal radius and a positive Finkelstein's test
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De Quervain's tenosynovitis
|
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What is Finkelsteins test?
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MD grasps thumb and severely ulnar deviates wrist; + = sharp pain on top of forearm
|
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Syndrome of chelitis, dry mouth, and trouble chewing and swallowing food
|
Xerostomia (Sjogren's syndrome)
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Essential serological finding in rheumatoid vasculitis
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High titers of Rheumatoid factor
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Most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis
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Acute anterior uveitis
|
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candlewax appearance on back x-ray
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DISH (diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis)
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Autoimmune disorders that comprise Mixed connective tissue disorder
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SLE, scleroderma, polymyositis
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Mixed connective tissue disorder antibody
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anti-U1 RNP (spliceosomal component)
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Systemic Scleroderma staining pattern
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Nucleolar
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daily fever
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quotidian
|
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Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy that most commonly affects older men
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Inclusion body myositis
|
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2 types of arthritis that affect the DIP joints
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OA (Heberden's nodes), psoriatic arthritis
|
|
name for hypersensitivity seen at sites of needle sticks in patient with Behcet's syndrome
|
pathergy
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This class of drugs is the treatment of choice in patients with HTN crisis with scleroderma
|
ACE-I
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Connective tissue disease in which wide mouthed colonic diverticuli are pathagnomonic
|
Scleroderma
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This rare scleroderma-like syndrome results from ingestion of contaminated L-tryptophan supplements (interstitial infiltrates, eosinophilia, skin changes)
|
Eosinophilia-Myalgia syndrome
|
|
Antibody associated with neonatal lupus (congenital heart block)
|
Anti-SSA (Ro)
|
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The most specific autoantibody for SLE
|
Anti-Smith or anti-ds-DNA
|
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Antibody associated with psychosis and depression in SLE
|
anti-ribosomal P
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Pulmonary complication of sjogren's syndrome predisposing to lymphoma
|
Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia, activation of B cells
|
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Apthous stomatitis, uveitis, genital ulcers
|
Behcet's syndrome
|
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Blue sclera, hearing loss, brittle bones
|
Osteogenesis imperfecta
|
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Lupus with renal involvement (antibody)
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anti ds DNA
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Primary biliary cirrhosis antibody
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Antimitochondrial
|
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Goodpasture's syndrome antibody
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Anti-glomerular basement membrane
|
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Antibody associated with drug induced lupus
|
anti-histone antibody
|
|
Drug used to treat Familial Mediterranean fever
|
Colchicine (FMF characterized by paroxysmal attacks of fever and serosal inflammation)
|
|
Major cause of mortality in patients with Familial Mediterranean Fever
|
Secondary Amyloidosis
|
|
The most common glycogen storage disease which can be associated with pain and weakness after exercise
|
McArdle's disease (myophosphorylase deficiency)
|
|
Patients of Middle Eastern descent with synovitis, erythema nodosum, sterile abscesses, and recurrent aphthous stomatitis and/or genital aphthous ulcers most likely have this disease (also a/w eye inflammatory sx and cutaneous pathergy - papular rxn persisting 24-48h after needle or skin prick)
|
What is Behçet disease
|
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This HLA antigen is associated with aggressive rheumatoid arthritis
|
HLA DR4 (RA also associated with DR1)
|
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This ANA pattern is typically seen in mixed connective tissue disease.
|
speckled
|
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It is an inherited skeletal muscle disorder characterized by a hypermetabolic state precipitated by exposure to volatile inhalational anesthetics.
|
What is malignant hyperthermia?
|
|
These 2 HLA antigens have been associated with anti-glomerular basement membrane glomerulonephritis.
|
HLA DR2 and B7
|
|
HLA antigen associateed with ankylosing spondylitis, postgonococcal arthritis and acute anterior uveitis
|
B27
|
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HLA antigens associated with Diabetes Mellitus Type 1
|
HLA DR3, DR4
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HLA antigen associated with primary sjogren and autoimmune hepatitis
|
HLA DR3
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HLA antigen associated with 21 hydroxylase deficiency
|
HLA B47
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HLA antigen associated with Chronic Lyme Disease
|
HLA DR2 and DR4
|
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17 year old girl with DM complaining of pain in the palmar surfaces of the first three fingers, thickening of finger skin (thick and waxy) and painful shoulders
|
Limited joint mobility (Cheiroarthropathy)
|
|
30 year old woman with acute onset of swelling redness and pain at the base of the big toe, amorphous calcification, normal labs, repeat x-ray 2 weeks later is normal
|
Hydroxyapatite periarthritis
|
|
Sign for thoracic outlet syndrome (eponym)
|
Adson's sign
|
|
30 year old woman with nonradiating lower back pain after delivery of her third child, trinagular sclerotic area of the ileum bilaterally, normal SI joint space, absent sclerotic changes in the sacrum
|
osteitis condensas ilii
|
|
The autoantibody most closely associated with Wegener's granulomatosis
|
C-ANCA (anti-PR3)
|
|
Congenital cystic dilatation of intrahepatic bile ducts associated with frequent bile stones
|
Caroli's disease
|
|
Acute colonoic pseudo-obstruction
|
Ogilvie's syndrome
|
|
Antibody is 95% sensitive and 98% specific for primary biliary cirrhosis
|
Anti-mitochondrial AB
|
|
Cause of an isolated elevation of serum alk phos in an asymptomatic woman in her 3rd trimester
|
Increased placental alkaline phosphatase
|
|
More common than Familial Adenomatous Polyposis, this syndrome is another hereditary form of cancer
|
Hereditary Non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)
|
|
Upper GI bleeding after retching
|
Mallory Weiss tear
|
|
Stress ulcers associated with severe burns or trauma due to ischemia of the gastric mucosa
|
Curling's ulcers
|
|
Erosions with incarcerated hiatal hernias, seen in 5.2% of patients with hiatal hernias
|
Cameron lesions
|
|
Eponym for esophageal rupture
|
Boerhaave's syndrome
|
|
Patient's pain out of proportion to abdominal exam findings in an elderly patient
|
Ischemic bowel (Messenteric ischemia)
|
|
Most common cause of an acute abdomen in a pregnant patient
|
Acute appendicitis
|
|
Most sensitive and specific test to diagnose acute cholecystitis
|
HIDA scan
|
|
Suspect this in neutropenic patient with abdominal pain
|
Typhlitis (neutropenic necrotizing enterocolitis)
|
|
Syndrome characterized by intestinal obstruction and pneumobilia
|
Gallstone ileus
|
|
Syndrome characterized by narrowing of the extra-hepatic bile duct from mechanical compression by a gallstone impacted in the cystic duct
|
Mirizzi's syndrome
|
|
Skin condition associated with inflammatory bowel disease but whose activity does not parallel that of the bowel disease
|
Pyoderma Gangrenosum
|
|
Syndrome of esophageal webs and iron deficiency anemia
|
Plummer Vinson syndrome
|
|
In patients with esophageal cancer, preferred non-invasive diagnostic test to determine extent of disease progression within esophageal wall and regional lymph nodes
|
Endoscopic ultrasonography
|
|
A cause of dysphagia that can be relieved in some patients by lifting their arms over the heads or with a Valsalva maneuver
|
Achalasia
|
|
Best test for suspected sclerosing cholangitis
|
ERCP (accept MRCP)
|
|
Gastrointestinal polyps and pigmented macules around mouth and lips
|
Peutz-Jeghers' disease
|
|
Drug for irritable bowel syndrome associated with ischemic colitis
|
Alosetron (also Tegaserod)
|
|
Drug used to treat bleeding associated with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
|
Combination estrogen/progesterone (accept hormone therapy)
|
|
Class of drugs causing regression of polyps in familial adenomatous polyposis
|
NSAIDs
|
|
Typical location of perforation in acute idiopathic intestinal obstruction
|
Cecum
|
|
Sudden loss of vision associated with hemorrhages confined to the optic disk and macula in acute pancreatitis
|
Purtscher's retinopathy
|
|
Best test to differentiate pancreatic insufficiency versus small bowel mucosal disease as a cause for malabsorption
|
D-Xylose test
|
|
Fe/TIBC percent consistent with hemochromatosis
|
45%
|
|
This monoclonal antibody reduces disease activity in both MS and Crohns disease
|
What is natalizumab, an alpha-4 integrin antagonist?
|
|
Stool finding with intussusception
|
Currant-jelly stool
|
|
Barrett's esophagus is associated with this type of abnormal cell metaplasia
|
Abnormal intestinal columnar epithelium
|
|
Patients with T cell mediated inflammatory rxn to gluten who present with itching may have this associated dermatologic condition
|
Dermatitis herpetiformis
|
|
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with these malignancies
|
Stomach, duodenum, breast, ovary/testicular, pancreas
|
|
Minimum Child-Pugh and MELD (Cr, INR, total bili) scores to consider liver transplantation
|
7 and 10 respectively
|
|
Indications for steroids and pentoxifylline in alcoholic hepatitis
|
Discriminant function (4.6 x (PT-control) + total bili) >32 or enchepalitis without evidence of GIB or infection
|
|
Benefit of pentoxifylline in alcoholic hepatitis
|
Decreased hepatorenal syndrome and mortality
|
|
Hepatotoxic mushroom
|
Amanita phalloides
|
|
Radiographic findings in mesenteric ischemia
|
Submucosal hemorrhage and edema (thumbprinting)
|
|
An elevated fecal osmotic gap suggests this type of diarrhea
|
Osmotic diarrhea
|
|
Formula for fecal osmotic gap
|
Fecal osmotic gap = stool osmolality - 2(Na + K)
|
|
Adults with acquired hypogammaglobulinemia or CVID associated with recurrent sinopulmonary infections are predisposed to malabsorption secondary to infection with this organism
|
Giardia
|
|
A patient with hemochromatosis develops abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea. Stool has WBC and RBC. Infection with this organism is diagnosed.
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
This fundoplication operation is a surgical approach for the correction of GERD
|
Nissen
|
|
4 extra-esophageal manifestations of GERD
|
cough, asthma/RAD, hoarseness/laryngitis, dental caries
|
|
a mucosal ring at the gastro-esophageal junction that may cause dysphagia
|
Schatzki's ring
|
|
The appropriate treatment for ulcerative colitis with high grade dysplasia
|
Proctocolectomy
|
|
Eponym for syndrome with ETOH induced fatty liver, high triglycerides, and hemolysis
|
Zieves syndrome
|
|
This hepatic mass has been associated with the use of OCP
|
Hepatocellular adenoma
|
|
Bile duct cancer located at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts
|
klatskin tumor
|
|
In patients with varices (GI), treatment with this agent can reduce future bleeds
|
Beta blockers
|
|
4 well recognized causes of peptic ulcer disease
|
H pylori, ZE syndrome, NSAIDs, Crohn's disease
|
|
Suspect this class of diarrhea in a patient with large volume diarrhea, not relieved by fasting
|
Secretory
|
|
Most common cause of osmotic diarrhea
|
lactase deficiency
|
|
Associated with Fundal involvement of gastritis
|
Pernicious anemia
|
|
Associated with antral involvement of gastritis
|
H. Pylori
|
|
Superficial ectatic artery causing massive UGIB
|
Dieulafoy's lesion
|
|
RUQ pain on inspiration
|
Murphy's sign
|
|
A diagnostic test (not antibody) that can be used to test for celiac sprue
|
D-Xylose test
|
|
Extracolonic manifestiatations of Crohn's
|
Pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, iritis, episcleritis, aphhthous ulcers, thromboembolic events, auoimmune hemolytic anemia, chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, sclerosiing cholangitis
|
|
Antibody test for autimmune hepatitis
|
Type I: antismooth muscle Type 2: anti liver/kidney microsome Type 3: anti soluble liver antigen
|
|
5 components of child pugh classification
|
Ascities, encephalopathy, bilirubin, albumin, PT
|
|
RUQ pain, jaundice, fever/chills
|
Charcot's triad
|
|
RUQ pain, jaundice, fever/chills, MS change, hypotension
|
Reynauld's pentad
|
|
Syndrome where the colon is found between the liver and the diaphragm
|
Chilaiditi syndrome
|
|
Enlarged, palpable, nontender gallbladder seen with obstruction of the common bile duct
|
Courvoisier's sign
|
|
Right subscapular pain due to cholelithiasis
|
Boas's sign
|
|
Bluish discoloration of the periumbilical region
|
Cullen's sign
|
|
Hiatal hernia, gallstones, diverticulosis
|
Saint's triad
|
|
#1 cause of liver failure in the US
|
Tylenol overdose
|
|
Most common cause of asymptomatic ALT elevation
|
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
|
|
Top 3 causes of hepatitis with AST and ALT elevation greater than 5000
|
viral, toxins, ischemia
|
|
2 drug treatment for Hepatitis C
|
Interferon and ribavirin
|
|
Extrahepatic manifestions of hepatitis C
|
Autoimmune thyroid disease, glomerulonephritis, lichen planus, porphyria cutanea tarda, mixed cryoglobulinemia, lymphoma
|
|
Finding on colonoscopy in patient abusing laxatives
|
melanosis coli
|
|
This is a pancreatic islet tumor which manifests as mild diabetes, cholelithiasis, and diarrhea
|
What is a somatatistatinoma?
|
|
Chest pain, vomiting, cervicul subcutaneous emphysema
|
Mackler triad
|
|
acute hepatic or chronic biliary infection caused by eating watercress
|
Fasciola hepatica
|
|
Name for Intradermal antigen test for hydatid disease (echinococcus granulosus or multilocularis)
|
Casoni
|
|
Eponym for Hepatorenal syndrome
|
Frerich Syndrome
|
|
Eponym for aspiration of stomach juice
|
Mendelson's
|
|
Urine lab used to aid in the diagnosis of intestinal carcinoid tumor
|
What is 5-HIAA (5-Hydroxyindoleacetic Acid)?
|
|
Two conditions with Microvesicular fatty liver
|
pregnancy, reyes syndrome
|
|
Lynch 1
|
HNPCC with colon only
|
|
Lynch 2
|
HNPCC with colon, ovary,breast, endometrial
|
|
Antibody associated with ulcerative colitis
|
P-ANCA (60-70%)
|
|
Antibody associated with Crohn's
|
anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ASCA) in 60-70%
|
|
Treatment of Hep B
|
lamivudine, adefovir, telbivudine or entecavir (entacavir most potent)
|
|
Screening tests for HCC indicated in Hep B
|
serum AFP and hepatic US q6 months
|
|
Suspect this diagnosis in a male patient with neuronal hearing loss and renal insufficiency
|
Alport Syndrome (generally X linked, sometimes AR)
|
|
The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in patients < 15 years of age
|
Minimal Change Disesae
|
|
Path of kidneys in patients with diabetic nephropathy
|
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
|
|
Drug of choice for hypertensive crisis due to preeclampsia
|
Hydralazine
|
|
This type of RTA is assoicated with nephrolithiasis
|
Type I RTA (classic, distal)
|
|
Winter's formula
|
PCO2 = [1.5(HCO3 + 8) +/- 2
|
|
In non-diabetic adults, these are the 2 most common causes of primary nephrotic syndrome
|
Membranous nephropathy, FSGS
|
|
Suspect this in a patient with nephritic syndrome who presents with flank pain, macroscopic hematuria and acute worsening of their renal function
|
Renal vein thrombosis
|
|
5 causes of low complement GN
|
post infectious, SLE, cryoglobulinemia, MPGN, endocarditiis… also cholesterol emboli
|
|
Most common cause of AKI in a hospitalized patient
|
ATN
|
|
Marked by acute renal failure, eosinophilia and livedo reticularis
|
cholesterol emboli syndrome
|
|
Most likely cause of hyperkalemia in diabetic patients with mild to moderate renal insufficiency
|
Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism (accept type IV RTA)
|
|
Diagnosis associated with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
|
Diuretic use or vomiting or Bartter's syndrome (any)
|
|
Biological drug for acute renal failure secondary to hepatitis C associated cryoglobulinemia
|
alpha-Interferon
|
|
Hormone results in regression of left ventricular hypertrophy in dialysis patients
|
Recombinant human erythropoietin
|
|
Creatinine, sex, and age-based formula to estimate glomerular filtration rate
|
Cockcroft-Gault formula (any part of name)
|
|
Hydrocarbon exposure is a risk factor for this pulmonary/renal syndrome
|
Goodpasture's syndrome
|
|
Classes of Lupus Nephritis
|
I Minimal Mesangial GN (normal on light, abnormal on electron) II Mesangial Proliferative nephritis - usu responds to corticosteroids III Focal Proliferative nephritis - usu responds to high doses of corticosteroids IV Diffuse Proliferative nephritis - corticosteroids + immunosuppressants V Membranous Nephritis - extreme edema and protein loss VI Glomerulosclerosis
|
|
Anion gap represents these unmeasured anions
|
Phosphorous, sulfate, organic acids, anionic proteins
|
|
AG in patients with Waldenstrom's (lymphoplasmocytic lymphoma)
|
Low
|
|
Most common cause of secondary nephrotic syndrome
|
Diabetes
|
|
Most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis
|
IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease)
|
|
Nephrotic syndrome in heroin user with AIDS
|
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
|
|
Nephrotic syndrome in patient with chronic skin popping
|
Secondary amyloidosis (AA)
|
|
Aminoaciduria, phosphaturia, glycosuria
|
Fanconi's syndrome
|
|
Hyperreninemia hyperaldosteronism, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and/or hypomagnesemia with normal BP
|
Bartter's syndrome (more severe) or Gittelman's syndrome (thiazide channel)
|
|
4 primary types of kidney stones
|
Calcium, cystine, uric acid (radiolucent), struvite
|
|
This type of glomerulopathy is seen in Hepatitis B and C
|
Membranous glomerulopathy
|
|
RTA with hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism
|
Type IV RTA
|
|
Most common urinary analysis abnormality in a patient with SLE
|
Proteinuria
|
|
The first sign of bladder cancer
|
Hematuria
|
|
Condition associated with dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine
|
Glomerulonephritis
|
|
Nutrient malabsorption causing hyperoxaluria
|
Fat
|
|
Renal vascular disease associated with angiographic "string of beads" appearance
|
Fibromuscular disease (accept fibromuscular dysplasia)
|
|
Periumbilical nodule representing metastatic abdominal (usually gastric) carcinoma
|
Sister Mary Joseph's nodule
|
|
Roleaux formation in a patient with anemia
|
Multiple myeloma
|
|
Most likely etiology of anemia in a woman with an MCV < 70 but only a mild anemia
|
Beta thalessemia (minor)
|
|
The first and most common clnical feature of acute and chronic graft vs host disease
|
Skin rash
|
|
This is the factor responsible for hypercalcemia seen in patients with multiple myeloma
|
Osteoclast activating factor
|
|
Most common cause of cancer death in women
|
Lung CA
|
|
This tumor marker may be elevated in patients with pancreatic cancer
|
CA 19-9
|
|
This neoplastic disease is the most common paraproteinemia
|
MGUS
|
|
Gene mutation associated with a 50-85% lifetime risk of developing breast CA
|
BRCA1 or BRCA2
|
|
In addition to other findings, multiple myeloma is defined by a BM bx containing greater than this % plasma cells
|
10%; also presence of M spike and symptoms (CRAB)
|
|
ISS Multiple Myeloma staging criteria
|
What are I: Albumin GE 3.5, B2 MicroglobulinLT 3.5, III: B2 Microglobulin GE 5.5, II neither I nor III (if B2 microglobulin is 3.5 exactly than stage II)
|
|
Most common inheritied bleeding disorder
|
von Willebrand disease
|
|
2 most common inheritied hypercoagulable states
|
Factor V Leiden, PT 20210
|
|
Syndrome of AHA and ITP
|
Evan's syndrome
|
|
least common and typically least aggressive of the 4 myeloproliferative syndromes
|
Essential thrombocytopenia
|
|
The 4 myeloproliferative syndromes
|
CML, PV, primary Myelofibrosis, Essential thrombocytopenia
|
|
Jackie onassis died of this disease after receiving CHOP therapy
|
Non-hodgkin's lymphoma
|
|
Bob Marley was at increased risk for this disease, from which he died
|
Malignant melanoma
|
|
This brutal warrior died of a nosebleed on his wedding night in AD453
|
Attila the Hun
|
|
Name 5 of the hemologic emergencies
|
1. Acute tumor lysis syndrome 2. Hypercalcemia 3. SVC Syndrome 4. Spinal cord compression 5. Hyperviscosity syndrome/leukostasis 6. Neoplastic pericardial tamponade 7. Acute airway obstruction 8. Neutropenic fever
|
|
mechanism of action - lepirudin, bivalirudin, argatroban
|
Direct thromibin inhibitors; argatrobran (hepatic clearance), lepirudin (renal clearance)
|
|
Autosomal Recessive Disease resulting in deficiency of glycoprotein IIb-IIIa complexes
|
Glanzmann Thrombasthenia =aGGregation problem=inteGrillin function (fibrinogen receptor)
|
|
Treatment for patient with splenomegaly, TRAP+ cells, dry bone marrow aspiration
|
Cladribine (2-chlorodeoxyadenosine)
|
|
Etiology of anemia in a 35 year old female with myasthenia gravis and a thymoma on CXR
|
pure red cell aplasia
|
|
Type of lung cancer associated with gynecomastia - due to production of bHCG
|
Large Cell Lung CA
|
|
Hypertrophric pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HOA) is most associated with this cell type of non-small cell lung CA
|
adenocarcinoma
|
|
Most common acute gastrointestinal complication of radiation therapy for prostate cancer
|
acute proctitis
|
|
This treatment is indicated for patients with recurrent MALT lymphoma
|
chemotherapy or gastrectomy
|
|
This drug is more effective than pentoxifylline in improving walking distance, functional status, and quality of life for patients with claudication
|
Cilostazol
|
|
Most frequent cause of transient aplastic crisis in patients with chronic hemolytic anemia
|
Parvovirus B19
|
|
Major use of cryoprecitate is to replace this blood component
|
Fibrinogen
|
|
Important cause of recurrent abdominal pain in patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
|
Portal or mesenteric thrombosis
|
|
Disease associated with "sausaging" of retinal veins
|
Macroglobulinemia (accept Waldenstrom's aka lymphoplasmocytic lymphoma, hyperviscosity syndrome)
|
|
Tests for PNH
|
sucrose lysis test, Ham's acid hemolysis, Flow cytometry for low levels of CD55 and CD59
|
|
CBC findings in adrenal insuff
|
NC anemia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
|
|
Absence/deficiency of Gp Ib/V/IX
|
Bernard Soulier (vWF receptor) – will also have mild thrombocytopenia
|
|
Chipmunk facies, microcytic anemia
|
Beta thal major
|
|
Anemia associated with Hydrops fetalis
|
Hg Barts – alpha thal with all 4 alleles affected
|
|
This disease can be ruled out by testing amniotic fluid for endonuclease Mst II cleavage pattern
|
SS disease
|
|
Lance armstrong's cancer
|
GCT
|
|
Relationship between carcinogen dose and tumor induction time
|
Druckrey relationship
|
|
Non-nutritive megaloblastic anemia in which malignant red cell precursors are particularly evident
|
Di-Guglielmo disease (see M6 AML)
|
|
Congenital pure red cell aplasia
|
Diamond Blackfan anemia
|
|
Severe immunodeficiency, MR, predisposition to cancers due to hypersensitivity to DNA damaging agents (ie CTX)
|
Bloom’s syndrome
|
|
Defect in primary homeostasis, prolonged PT, mechanism for translocating PS to the platelet membrane is defective, resulting in impaired thrombin formation
|
Scott syndrome
|
|
3 complications of massive RBC transfusion
|
DIC, hypothermia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia
|
|
Pseudo Pelger Huet anomaly
|
MDS or AML
|
|
Unstable Hg and oxidant stress; precipitates of denatured Hg only visible with crystal violet stain
|
Heinz bodies (think thallasemia, G6PD)
|
|
Diseases with target cells on blood smear (3)
|
Thalassemias, Liver disease, Alcoholism
|
|
disease associated with a smudge cell
|
CLL
|
|
Chronic hematuria, iron deficiency anemia, DVT
|
PNH
|
|
Testing for presence of fetal blood cells in maternal circulation
|
Kleihauer-Betke test
|
|
AD condition with callous formation on palms and soles, esoph papillomas, 95% chance of developing esoph SCCA by 65yo
|
Tylosis Palmaris
|
|
In situ breast lesion that is not invasive but has inc risk for b/l involvement
|
Lobular CIS
|
|
CLL ->diffuse large cell lymphoma DLBCL) +fever, wt loss, LAD
|
Richter’s Syndrome
|
|
Sudden appearance and rapid increase in number and size of seborrheic keratoses with pruritis
|
Sign of Leser trelat
|
|
Carcinoma in situ of glans penis
|
Erythroplasia of Queyrat
|
|
Squamous cell CA in-situ, seen in sun exposed areas
|
Bowens disease
|
|
MCC malignancy
|
Basal Cell CA
|
|
Mutant p53 allele, predisposition towards breast carcinoma, sarcomas, and brain tumors (childhood and adult neoplasms)
|
Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
|
|
Left axillary node assoc with metastatic dz
|
Irish node
|
|
Tumor arising from CBD at confluence of right and left hepatic ducts, slow growing, sclerotic
|
Klatskin tumor
|
|
Carinomatous metastasis from primary site high up in peritoneal cavity; may be felt through anterior rectal wall as hard shelf
|
Blumer’s shelf
|
|
Metastatic GI neoplasia to ovaries
|
Krukenburg tumor
|
|
Hemochromatosis gene
|
HFE gene, C282Y, H63D
|
|
MC cancers causing malig pleural or pericardial effusions
|
Breast, Lung, Lymphoma
|
|
MC cancers met to bone
|
Breast, Lung, Thyroid, Kidney, Prostate
|
|
Cancer with thrombocytosis as associated paraneoplastic syndrome
|
RCC
|
|
Eponym for cholestasis with RCC
|
Stauffer’s Syndrome
|
|
4 Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with RCC
|
Erythrocytosis, Thrombocytosis, Hypercalcemia, Cholestasis
|
|
3 cancers associated with erythrocytosis
|
RCC, hepatocellular, cerebellar hemangioblastoma
|
|
4 cancers associated with hypercalcemia
|
SqCLC, RCC, Ovarian CA, MM
|
|
3 paraneoplastic syndromes associated with ovarian cancer
|
Hypercalcemia, Cerebellar degeneration with loss of purkinje cells (anti-yo), sign of Leser Trelat
|
|
Optic atrophy, contralateral papilledema, anosmia; occ assoc w/olfactory groove meningioma
|
Foster-Kennedy Syndrome
|
|
Papillary Cystadenoma lymphomatosum, parotid gland involved
|
Warthin’s tumor
|
|
Lymphedema following mastectomy leading to lymphangiosarcoma
|
Stewart-Treve Syndrome
|
|
Supraclavicular adenopathy usually on left side
|
Virchow’s sentinel node
|
|
Rare AD syndrome characterized by multiple hamartomas
|
Cowden's Disease (PTEN gene); causes hamartomatous neoplasms of the skin and mucosa, GI tract (polyps), bones, CNS, eyes, and genitourinary tract. Skin is involved in 90-100% of cases, and the thyroid is involved in 66% of cases. Increased risk of breast and thyroid cancer as well as endometrial and RCC.
|
|
Favorable cytogenetics in AML
|
t(15;17), t(8;21), inv16, t(16:16)
|
|
Poor cytogenetics in AML
|
del (5q), del(7q), monosomies 5 or 7, trisomies 8 or 13, t(6:9), 3q21q26 abnormalities, 11q23 abnormaties, 12p abnormalities, 17p abnormalities, abnormalities with 3 or more genes
|
|
Heavy chain disease with infiltration of lamina propria of small intestine with lymphoplasmacytoid cells
|
Seligmanns Disease
|
|
Special variant of cutaneous T cell lymphoma with generalized erythroderma, periph LAD; disseminated mycosis fungoides
|
Sezary Syndrome (cerebriform nuclei)
|
|
Light chains in plasma cell d/o
|
Bence Jones proteins
|
|
(t15;17)
|
APL
|
|
(t9;22)
|
Philadelphia Chromosome
|
|
(t8;14)
|
Burkitt’s Lymphoma (c-myc and immunoglobulin)
|
|
Isochromosome 12
|
Germ cell tumors
|
|
Broken ring of lymphoid tissue located in throat
|
Waldeyer’s throat ring
|
|
(t14;18)
|
Follicular Lymphoma (immunoglobulin and bcl-2 genes)
|
|
t(11:22)
|
Ewing's sarcoma
|
|
(t11;14)
|
Mantle cell lymphoma (bcl-1 and immunoglobulin genes)
|
|
burning pain in the feet or hands accompanied by erythema, pallor, or cyanosis, in the presence of palpable pulses (common in PV)
|
Erythromelalgia (treat with aspirin)
|
|
Best end-point for measuring the effect of a cancer screening intervention
|
Cancer specific mortality
|
|
Observational studies suggest that screening mammography is useful in women who have at least this number of years of life expectancy
|
5 years
|
|
Metastatic solid tumor cured with bleomycin, etoposide, and cisplatin
|
Testicular cancer
|
|
Best drug for warm-antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia
|
Corticosteroids
|
|
Hydroxyurea re-activates expression of this developmentally silenced protein
|
Fetal gamma globulin
|
|
Most common neurological complication of systemic cancer
|
Brain metastases
|
|
Serum marker that is unique for nonseminomatous testicular cancer
|
Alpha fetoprotein
|
|
Relapsing (cyclical) fever of Hodgkin's disease
|
Pel-Ebstein fever
|
|
Test used to screen for anal intraepithelial neoplasia in high risk patients
|
Pap smear
|
|
Vulvar lichen sclerosis predisposes to this malignant condition
|
Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
Best therapy for acute chest syndrome associated with sickle cell disease
|
Partial exchange transfusion
|
|
Most common cause of mild, asymptomatic thrombocytopenia in pregnancy
|
Gestational thrombocytopenia
|
|
Best test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
|
Flow cytometry
|
|
Drug for acute aplastic anemia
|
Antithymocyte globulin or cyclosporin (either)
|
|
Name for acute lower limb ischemia caused by a massive ileofemoral DVT in which the leg is painful, swollen and blue
|
phlegmasia cerulea dolens
|
|
The systemic malignancy most commonly associated with erythroderma
|
What is lymphoma (mycosis fungoides, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, Sezary syndrome)?
|
|
This study, published in June 2006, provided definitive evidence for the adequacy of CT-pulmonary angiography in the routine diagnosis of (outpatient) pulmonary embolism
|
PIOPED II
|
|
Cyclophosphamide metabolite that causes bladder cancer
|
acrolein
|
|
Criteria for APLAS
|
Sapporo criteria: 1. Clinical - thrombosis (unequivocal) or pregnancy morbidity a. Thrombosis or b. Pregnancy morbidity 1) abortion after 10 weeks in a normal fetus 2) abortion prior to 34 weeks from preeclampsia, placental insufficiency or eclampsia 3) 3 abortions prior to 10 weeks not otherwise explained by chromosomal or anatomical abnormalities 2. Laboratory - anticardiolipin, anti B2-glycoprotein or lupus anticoagulant on 2 occasions > 6 weeks apart
|
|
X-linked recessive disorder is characterized by immunodeficiency, severely dysfunctional platelets, and thrombocytopenia with microthrombocytes rather than macrothrombocytes
|
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
|
|
autosomal recessive disorder presenting with mild thrombocytopenia, circulating "giant" platelets, marked platelet dysfunction, and bleeding, absence of the platelet glycoprotein (GP) Ib-IX-V,
|
Bernard-Soulier
|
|
autosomal dominant trait characterized by giant platelets, mild to moderate thrombocytopenia, and leukocyte inclusions
|
May-Hegglin anomaly
|
|
a patient with anemia, thrombocytopenia, and large amounts of schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. 3 possible causes
|
DIC, HUS, TTP, HELLP
|
|
Causes increased risk of thrombosis with CA
|
tissue factor
|
|
Patients with lupus anticoagulant will bleed only if one of these two conditions are present
|
Thrombocytopenia, prothrombin deficiency
|
|
MALT lymphoma is associated with this infection
|
H. Pylori
|
|
The malignancy that often causes spinal cord compression is relatively radioresistant
|
Renal cell carcinoma
|
|
Syndrome of digital clubbing, chronic proliferative periostitis of long bones, and synovitis. Often seen in adenocarcinoma.
|
Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteoarthropathy (Bamberger-Marie disease)
|
|
Thyroglobulin is a tumor marker for these 2 types of thyroid cancer
|
Papillary and follicular
|
|
GI polyps with oral papules, associated with thyroid CA, breast CA, and ovarian cysts
|
Cowden's disease
|
|
2 infectious causes of tropical sprue
|
E coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter cloacae
|
|
Infectious cause of diarrhea that can mimic appendicitis or Crohn's disease
|
Yersinia enterocolitica
|
|
Auer rods on peripheral smear
|
AML
|
|
Tumor marker often seen in patients with ovarian cancer
|
CA-125
|
|
Leukemia with TRAP positive cells and dry bone marrow
|
Hairy cell leukemia
|
|
Autosomal dominant condition marked by hemangioblastomas, clearcell renal cell carcinomas, pheochromocytomas, endolymphic sac tumors of themiddle ear, serous cystadenomas and neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas, and papillary cystadenomas of the epididymis and broad ligament
|
von Hippel-Lindau disease
|
|
an inherited neurocutaneous disorder that is characterized by pleomorphic features involving many organ systems, including multiple benign hamartomas of the brain, eyes, heart, lung, liver, kidney, and skin
|
Tuberous Sclerosis
|
|
Palmar fibromatosis (sometimes refererred to as palmar fasciitis) is a rare disorder most commonly associated with this neoplasm
|
ovarian cancer
|
|
Deficient in hereditary spherocytosis
|
Spectrin
|
|
Anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, gallstones
|
hereditary spherocytosis
|
|
Congenital disorder of DNA repair is associateed with early and innumerable melanoma and nonmelanoma pigmentosa
|
Xeroderma pigmentosa
|
|
Microstaging method for melanoma
|
Breslow's thickness
|
|
4 types of cutaneous melanoma
|
Superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna melanoma, acral-lentiginous
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Histologic type of cutaneous melanoma, often found in subungual regions, occuring with equal frequency among whites and non-whites
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Acral-lentiginous melanoma
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|
Adjuvant biological therapy has ben shown to imporve relapse-free and overall survival in patients who are free of disease after surgical resection of high risk melanoma
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Interferon-alfa
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Ptosis, meiosis, anhydrosis
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Horner's syndrome
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Remnants of Rathke's pouch
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Craniopharyngioma
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Philadelphia chromosome
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CML
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Causes aplastic anemia in sickle cell patient
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Parvovirus B19
|
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Tender mass in left upper quadrant due to splenic hematoma (eponym)
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Balance's sign
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Left shoulder pain due to splenic rupture
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Kehr's sign (Kehr's sign can also refer to shoulder pain due to blood/irritants in the peritoneal cavity)
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Fever, neutropenia, rash
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Sweet's syndrome
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Side effect of 5-FU with stocking glove paresesthia, followed by painful erythema, swelling and desquamation
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palmoplantar erythrodysesthesia (Hand-Foot Syndrome)
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|
Treatment for patient with AIHA and TTP
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Plasma exchange
|
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Max dose of anthracyclines
|
550 mg/m2
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Elevation in WBC diff in patient with myelodysplastic syndrome
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Monocytes
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Factor produced by the liver that is increased in anemia of chronic disease and leads to decresased release of iron from macrophages
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Hepcidin
|
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Endocrine disorders that can lead to anemia
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hypothyroidism, addison disease, hypogonadism, panhypopit (including decreased growth hormone)
|
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Expect this mass in a patient with pure red cell aplasia
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Thymoma (paraneoplastic)
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anticerebellar antibodie associated with small cell cancer
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Anti-Hu - antineuronal nuclear antibody Type 1
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anticerebellar antibodies associated with breast cancer and directed against Purkinje cells
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Anti-Yo (anti-purkinje cell antibody)
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Faggot cell
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AML M3 Subtype (Acute promyelocytic leukemia)
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"flame cell"
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Multiple myeloma
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"Lacunar cell"
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Hodgkin's lymphoma (usuually nodular sclerosing)
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Fever, retroorbital pain, "breakbone" aches and pains in a febrile traveler
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Dengue fever (flavivirus, + tourniquet test - 20 petechia/inch2, Aedes aegypti mosquito)
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Fever with bradycardia (pulse-temperature dissociation), abdominal pain & "rose" colored abdominal rash
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Typhoid fever (Salmonella Typhi), "nervous fever"
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Hot tub rash
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Pseudomonas aeurginosa
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The most important prognostic factor in a patient without an underlying comorbidity who has cryptococcal meningitis
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CSF opening pressure
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Most common cause of acute, nonepidemic encephalitis in the US
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HSV
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The three tic born illness endemic to Nantucket Island, and their treatments
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1. Babesiosis - IV clinda/ oral quinine, 2. Lyme - doxy, 3. Ehrlichiosis - doxy
|
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Human granulocytic anaplasmosis organism
|
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
|
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Infection in asplenic/Martha's vineyard
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Babesia microti (Babesiosis)
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Drug used to eradicate liver hypnozoites in patient with malaria due to P. ovale or P. vivax
|
primaquine ("prime the liver")
|
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The most direct method of diagnosing primary and secondary syphilis
|
Darkfield microscopy
|
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Despite treatment, this test stays positive for life in patients with syphilis
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Fluorescent Treponemal antibodies
|
|
4 criteria required for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis
|
Homogeneous, thin, grayish-white discharge that smoothly coats the vaginal walls, vaginal pH greater than 4.5, positive whiff-amine test, clue cells on wet mount - need 3/4 Amsel criteria
|
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The virus contained in the smallpox vaccine
|
Vaccinia virus
|
|
This antiviral medication has shown antiviral activity against smallpox in animal models and may be employed in a smallpox (variola virus, poxviridae) oubreak
|
Cidofovir (limited by renal toxicity)
|
|
The most feared and often fatal complication of smallpox vaccination
|
Vaccinia necrosum; tx with VIG (vaccinia immune globulin)
|
|
Name of triad of ipsilateral facial nerve paralysis, ear pain and vesicles
|
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
|
|
The reactivation of this virus causes PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy)
|
JC virus (polyoma virus)
|
|
Necrotizing fasciitis of the perineal and genital fascia
|
Fournier's gangrene
|
|
Umbilicated pearly papules
|
Molluscum contagiosum
|
|
Causative organism for tinea versicolor
|
Malassezia furfur and globosa (also the most common cause of seborrheic dermatitis)
|
|
In a patient with AIDS, disseminated (cutaneous) infection with this organism mimics molluscum
|
Cryptococcus
|
|
Rectal swab from a patient with suspected disseminated gonococcal infection should be plated on this agar
|
Thayer-Martin agar
|
|
The virus that causes Kaposi's sarcoma
|
HHV-8
|
|
AKA Valley Fever
|
Coccidiodomycoses
|
|
AKA Rabbit Fever
|
Tularemia
|
|
AKA Kala Azar
|
Visceral Leishmaniasis
|
|
AKA River Blindness
|
Onchocerciasis ( Onchocerca volvulus transmitted by the black fly; tx: ivermectin)
|
|
AKA Katayama Fever
|
Acute Shistosomiasis (fever, lethargy, the eruption of pale temporary bumps associated with severe itching (urticarial) rash, liver and spleen enlargement, and bronchospasm)
|
|
AKA Blackwater Fever
|
Malaria with intravascular hemolysis, hemoglobinuria, and renal failure
|
|
Eponym for severe form of leptospirosis including renal failure, hepatic failure and/or meningitis
|
Weil's syndrome/disease
|
|
Vector for Leishmaniasis
|
Sand fly (Phlebotomous)
|
|
Vector for African sleeping sickness (Trypanasoma Brucei)
|
Tse Tse
|
|
Vector for Chagas Disease (Trypanasoma Cruzi)
|
Reduviid bug
|
|
MC roundworm infection in the US
|
Pinworm (Enterobius Vermicularis) - no eosinophils (no invasion)
|
|
MC roundworm infection in the world
|
Ascaris Lumbricoides (Largest nematode, Lung disease in Larval Stage (Loffler's),Tx: Mebendazole)
|
|
Two diseases treated by ivermectin
|
Onchocerciasis, filariasis
|
|
Skin lesions after wading in water
|
Vibrio vulnificus
|
|
Bacterial agent causing pneumonia associated with the following risk factors: bronchiectasis, daily corticosteroid therapy, and malnutrition
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
Infection characterized by productive cough, hemoptysis, and cavitary pulmonary lesion in a patient with pulmonary silicosis
|
Tuberculosis
|
|
Diagnosis suggested by a severe CAP with pancytopenia in the setting of bird exposures
|
Chlamidophila psitticai
|
|
Class of drug useful in the treatment of both influenza A and influenza B
|
Neuraminidase inhibitors (zanamavir and oseltamavir)
|
|
Method of action for amantadine
|
interference with a viral protein, M2 (an ion channel),[15][16] which is required for the viral particle to become "uncoated" once taken inside a cell by endocytosis.
|
|
Preferred first-line antibiotic for the pneumonic form of tularemia
|
Gentamicin or streptomycin
|
|
Nasal mucosal atrophy and foul-smelling crusts in the nasal passages
|
Ozena (klebsiella infection in atrophic rhinitis)
|
|
Gram-stain finding in expectorated sputum from a chemotherapy patient
|
Candida
|
|
Class of anti-influenza drugs with activity against influenza B
|
Neuraminidase inhibitors
|
|
The two most common bacterial pathogens associated with bronchiectasis
|
Pseudomonas and Staphylococcus
|
|
Name of childhood illness caused by parvovirus B 19
|
Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
|
|
Etiological agent of fish tank granuloma
|
Mycobacterium marinum
|
|
Cutaneous anthrax location that is an indication for IV antibiotics
|
Face and neck
|
|
Causative organism for this skin finding
|
Treponema pallidum (condyloma lata)
|
|
Triad: arthritis, dermatitis, tenosynovitis
|
Meltzer's triad (disseminated gonococcal infection)
|
|
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (eponym)
|
Vincent's angina
|
|
Two HIV drugs that cannot be used together
|
AZT and d4T
|
|
Bacteremia and sepsis in splenectomized patient bitten by dog
|
Capnocytophaga canimorsis
|
|
HIV drug may cause a hypersensitivity reaction consisting of a generalized rash and/or flu-like illness
|
Abacavir
|
|
The 2 bacteria associated with bacterial endocarditis and colon cancer
|
Strepotoccus bovis and Clostridium septicum
|
|
Organism responsible for whipple's disease
|
Tropheryma whippelii
|
|
Vector for HGA
|
Ixodes tick
|
|
Appearance of KOH prep in a patient with tinea versicolor
|
spaghetti and meatball appearance
|
|
Benign, recurrent aseptic meningitis
|
Mollaret's meningitis
|
|
Increased sebum production in patients with acne leads to proliferation of this organism
|
Propionobacterium acne
|
|
Most common cause of epididymitis in sexually active men aged < 35 years old
|
N. gonorrhea (chlamydia second)
|
|
This HIV medication can cause BM suppression
|
Zidovudine
|
|
Patient with HIV with foot drop and neg MRI
|
mononeuritis multiplex
|
|
Rickettsial infection with no insect vector. Presents with fever, headache, myalgias, nonproductive cough, and hepatitis
|
Q fever (Coxiella burnetti)
|
|
Causative organism for the plague
|
Yersinia pestis
|
|
This protease inhibitor is associated with kidney stones
|
Indinavir
|
|
CT head in HIV with ring enhancing lesions
|
CNS toxoplasmosis or lymphoma
|
|
2 indications to use steroids in PCP
|
pO2 < 70 or AA gradient > 35
|
|
CDC recommended medicine for leishmaniasis
|
Pentavalent antimony (stibogluconate; Pentastam)
|
|
Patients with cirrhosis and sepsis following raw oyster feast - suspect this bacteria
|
Vibrio vulnificus
|
|
Painful genital ulcer
|
Haemophilus ducreyi
|
|
Disease causing clue cells ona a wet prep
|
Bacterial vaginosis (Gardnerella vaginalis)
|
|
Strawberry cervix
|
Trichomonas vaginalis
|
|
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
|
Chlamydia trachomatis (L1, L2, and L3 serovars)
|
|
Caused by klebsiella grannulomatosis, this uncommon disease is characterized by horrible appearing genital ulcers
|
Granuloma inguinale (Donovanosis)
|
|
Usual cause of traveler's diarrhea
|
ETEC
|
|
Enteritis with this organism is associated with Guillian-Barre syndrome
|
Campylobacter Jejuni
|
|
E. coli O157:H7 must be grown on this media
|
MacConkey-Sorbital agar
|
|
Lyme disease vector
|
Ixodes tick
|
|
TB vaccine name
|
Bacille Calmette-Guerin
|
|
Toxin from clostridium tetanus
|
Tetanospasm
|
|
Impetigo
|
Streptococcus
|
|
Rose spots
|
Salmonella typhi
|
|
Fever, flu-like symptoms, tachycardia, hypotension during syphilis treatment
|
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
|
|
Organism associated with chronic diarrhea and eosinophilia in an AIDS patient
|
Isospora Belli
|
|
Treatment for Toxoplasmosis
|
Sulfadiazine, Pyrimethamime, folic acid
|
|
Bullous myringitis associated with this organism
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae may cause this hematologic abnormality
|
Hemolysis (60%; secondary to cold agglutinin)
|
|
Mycoplasma is most commonly treated with this antibiotic
|
Azithromycin
|
|
Infection that is the leading cause of adult onset seizures
|
Taenia solium (from eating undercooked pork; larval stage metacestode causes cysticercosis)
|
|
Tapeworm infection associated with eating undercooked beef
|
Taenia saginata
|
|
Tapeworm infection associated with eating fish
|
Diphyllobothrium latum
|
|
2 medications used in the treatment of measles
|
Ribavirin and Vitamin A
|
|
1st disease
|
Rubeola
|
|
2nd disease
|
Streptococcal spotted fever
|
|
3rd disease
|
Rubella
|
|
4th disease
|
Filator-Duke's disease
|
|
5th disease
|
Erythema infectiosum (Parvo)
|
|
6th disease
|
Exanthem Subitum (HHV 6)
|
|
Koplik's spots
|
Measles
|
|
Rocky mounted spotted fever organism
|
Rickettsia rickettsii
|
|
Horder spots
|
Psittacosis
|
|
Jugular vein thrombophlebitis secondary to Fusobacterium
|
lemierre's syndrome
|
|
Eponym for posterior cervical lymphadenopathy in Trypanosomiasis
|
Winter bottom sign
|
|
Rash in disseminated pseudomonas
|
Ecthyma Gangrenosum
|
|
HIV drug associated with nightmares
|
Efavirenz
|
|
HIV drug associated with Fanconi's syndrome
|
Tenofovir
|
|
Most common cause of eosinophilic meningitis in the world
|
Angiostrongylus Cantonensis
|
|
Strain of e coli causing recent outbreak in 2010
|
O145
|
|
findings on exam suggestive of severe aortic insufficiency
|
severity proportional to DURATION of murmur (except in acute and severe late disease)
|
|
Rapid rise and fall of pulse (AR sign)
|
Corrigan’s (or Watson's) water-hammer pulse
|
|
A systolic and diastolic bruit heard when the femoral artery is partially compressed (sign of AI)
|
Duroziez’s sign
|
|
A pistol shot pulse (systolic and diastolic sounds) heard over the femoral arteries, esp with distal compression (sign of AI)
|
Traube’s sound
|
|
Pulsating cervix (sign of AI)
|
Shelly’s sign
|
|
Visible pulsations of the retinal arteries and pupils (sign of AI)
|
Becker’s sign
|
|
Splenic pulsation (sign of AI)
|
Gerhard’s sign
|
|
Head-bobbing with heartbeat (sign of AI)
|
de Musset’s sign
|
|
Systolic pulstations of the liver (sign of AI)
|
rosenbach's sign
|
|
More than a 15 mmHg decrease in diastolic blood pressure with arm elevation from the value obtained with the arm in the standard position. (AI sign)
|
Mayne's sign
|
|
Popliteal cuff systolic pressure exceeding brachial pressure by more than 20 (60?) mmHg (AI sign)
|
Hill's sign
|
|
Systolic pulsation of uvula (AI sign)
|
Mueller’s sign
|
|
Subungal capillary pulsations (AI sign)
|
Quincke’s pulses
|
|
findings on exam suggestive of severe aortic stenosis
|
pulsus parvus et tardus, late peaking murmur, inaudible A2, single or paradoxically split S2, LV heave, S4
|
|
Pulse of severe aortic stenosis
|
Pulsus parvus et tardus
|
|
echo classification of AS
|
1.) gradient: mild < 25, moderate 25-40, severe >40; 2.) Velocity > 4 m/s (severe) 3.) AoVA (cm2): mild 1.5-2, moderate 1.0-1.5, severe < 1.0
|
|
hematologic abn a/w more severe AS
|
acquired von Willebrand disease (destruction of vWF by shear forces)
|
|
Notching in the ascending limb of the S wave in leads V3 and V4 in a pt with MI and known LBBB
|
Cabrera's sign
|
|
Notching of the ascending limb of the R wave in lead V5 or V6 in a pt with MI and known LBBB
|
Chapman’s sign
|
|
A clenched fist pressed against the center of the chest in a patient with angina
|
Levine’s sign
|
|
Which finding is most highly suggestive of significant ischemic heart disease on exercise ECT testing
|
An S3 heart sound heard during the test
|
|
Duke Treadmill Score
|
Exercise time - 5 (ST segment deviation) - 4xangina (1 nonlimiting, 2 limiting) Low GE 5 Moderate -10 to +4 High LE -11
|
|
Pleuritic chest pain alleviated in pericarditis when bending to a chest on knee position
|
Pins’ sign
|
|
Exaggeration of pulmonary sounds in acute pericarditis.
|
Warthin’s sign
|
|
Most common cancers causing Pericardial effusions
|
Lung, breast, NHL, RCC
|
|
Dullness at the angle of the left scapula caused by pericardial effusion
|
Ewart’s sign
|
|
A paradoxical increase in venous distention and pressure during inspiration seen in constrictive pericarditis
|
Kussmaul’s sign (sign of RV dysfunction, also seen in effusion w/ tamponade, restrictive CMP, RV failure/infarct, tricuspid stenosis)
|
|
Physical exam finding in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, this ‘sign’ is characterized by a large atrial kick, a sustained left ventricular impulse, and an S3.
|
The triple ripple
|
|
Pulse of HOCM
|
Pulsus bisferians
|
|
The jugular venous pulse wave caused by bulging upward of the closed tricuspid valve during RV contraction
|
C-wave
|
|
Brockenbrough phenomenon
|
Paradoxically diminished pulse occurring after a premature beat in HOCM
|
|
Severe left ventricular failure EKG finding
|
Pulsus alternans
|
|
cyclic crescendo-decrescendo respiratory effort and airflow during wakefulness or sleep (associated with heart failure)
|
Cheyne-Stokes
|
|
HACEK
|
Haemophilus (Haemophilus parainfluenzae, Haemophilus aphrophilus, and Haemophilus paraphrophilus)[3] Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (now called Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans) Cardiobacterium hominis Eikenella corrodens Kingella kingae
|
|
Name these pathognmonic, (typically) distal, nontender, erythematous/hemorrhagic, macular/nodular lesions and associated condition
|
Janeway lesions; infective endocarditis
|
|
Name these painful, red lesions on the palms of the hands and soles of feet c/w immune complex deposition and the classic associated disease states
|
Osler's nodes; infective endocarditis; also seen in SLE, maranatic endocarditis, disseminated gonococcal infection, infected arterial catheters (distal to catheter)
|
|
JONES criteria
|
Joints, Carditis, Nodes (subcutaneous), Erythema marginatum, Sydenham's chorea
|
|
Antibiotics for endocarditis prophylaxis
|
Amoxicillin/Ampicillin 2 grams Clindamycin 600 mg PO/IV
|
|
The 2 bacteria associated with bacterial endocarditis and colon cancer
|
Strepotoccus bovis and Clostridium septicum
|
|
Activation of receptors in the atria, great veins, and left ventricle may lead to this reflex causing neurocardiogenic syncope
|
Bezold-Jarisch reflex
|
|
Venous waveform letters
|
a = atrial contraction c = closure of TV with early ventricular contraction - bulging of TV back into RA x = atrial relaxation, downard movement of ventricle during contraction v = venous filling against a closed valve y = opening of TV
|
|
Lenegre-Lev syndrome
|
An acquired complete heart block due to idiopathic fibrosis and calcification of the electrical conduction system of the heart (His bundle, or bundle branches with corresponding conduction blocks). Both sexes affected; onset over 50 years of age. It is often described as senile or sclerodegenerative degeneration of the conduction system.
|
|
anti-hypertensive that raises ICP (avoid in neuro HTN emergency)
|
nitroprusside
|
|
The ejection fraction or systolic left ventricle internal diameter used as in indication for surgical intervention in severe mitral regurgitation
|
Left ventricular ejection fraction < 60% or left ventricular internal diameter in systole > 45 mm
|
|
dig toxicity
|
digi FAB,
|
|
These 2 agents are first line anti-anginal therapies for patients with cocaine induced angina an EKG changes
|
Nitroglycerin and calcium antagonists
|
|
EkG findings in a patient with a low body temperature
|
Osborne waves
|
|
ECG changes found in patients with massive PE that may correlate with more severe RV strain
|
Anterior T wave inversions
|
|
Consider witholding calcium as a treatment of hyperkalemia in patients on this drug
|
Digoxin
|
|
ECG changes with hypercalcemia
|
shortened QT interval
|
|
Abnormality associated with fixed splitting of S2
|
ASD
|
|
Diastolic murmur with opening snap
|
Mitral stenosis
|
|
Eponym applied to physical examination sign describing an increased intensity of a heart murmur during inspiration
|
Carvallo's sign
|
|
Diagnosis associated with equalization of diastolic pressures in right atrium, right ventricle, wedge pressure, and left ventricle
|
Tamponade or constrictive pericarditis
|
|
Drug reduces risk for aortic valve replacement for chronic aortic regurgitation
|
Nifedipine
|
|
Eponym associated with systolic plethora and diastolic blanching in the nail
|
Quincke’s pulse
|
|
Most important factor determining prognosis following myocardial infarction
|
Left ventricular ejection fraction
|
|
Coronary artery most often responsible for ischemic papillary muscle rupture
|
Posterior descending artery (accept RCA)
|
|
Diagnosis associated with bradycardia and variable intensity of S1
|
Complete heart block
|
|
Presence of this drug is a contraindication to calcium gluconate in the treatment of hyperkalemia
|
Digitalis
|
|
Drugs used for "pill-in-the-pocket" treatment of atrial fibrillation
|
Flecainide and propafenone
|
|
Cardiac auscultatory finding associated with acute ischemia that disappears with relief of the ischemia
|
Mitral regurgitant murmur (accept holosystolic murmur), paradoxical splitting of S2, and an S4 (any one answer accepted)
|
|
Phase of respiration when pericardial friction rubs are best heard
|
Inspiration
|
|
Meaning of each of the 1st three letters in NBG pacing code
|
Chamber paced, chamber sensed, response to sensing
|
|
When placing a temporary TV pacer, these are the 3 things that you must set on the device
|
HR, output (mA), sensitivity
|
|
Result of placing a magnet over a DDD pacemaker
|
Failure of sensing (function asynchronously), reverts to factory settings
|
|
Feared complication that can occur in asynchronous (AOO) pacing
|
R-on-T phenomenon causing Torsades
|
|
Syndrome charactererized by long QT and congenital deafness
|
Jerville-Lange-Nielson Syndrome
|
|
Preferred treatment for RV-outflow tract ventricular tachycardia
|
Catheter ablation
|
|
S2 in a patient with LBBB
|
Paradoxical splitting
|
|
Refractory tachycardia in a patient on theophylline
|
Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT)
|
|
5 causes of PEA
|
Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hyper/hypokalemia, Hypothermia, Hypoglycemia Tablets or Toxins, Trauma, Tension Pneumo, Tamponade, Thombosis (coronary), Thrombosis (pulmonary)
|
|
Sensitivity of TTE/TEE
|
65%/>90%
|
|
An appropriate antiarrhythmic for a fib in patients with CRF
|
quinidine
|
|
Single most common cause of culture negative endocarditis
|
Prior antibiotic use
|
|
Feared complication of inserting a PA catheter in a patient with LBBB
|
RBBB (trifascicular block, LBBB + RBBB)
|
|
Causes of high output heart failure
|
Thyrotoxicosis, anemia, AV fistula, Paget's, Carcinoid, thiamine deficiency (Beriberi)
|
|
Valvular lesion that occurs in 70% of patients with coarctation of the aorta
|
Bicuspid aortic valve
|
|
Classic EKG findings in patients with intracerebral hemorrhage
|
Diffuse T wave inversions, prolonged QT, bradycardia
|
|
Cardiac drug causing pneumonitis, thyroid dysfunction, and proarrhythmia
|
Amiodarone
|
|
ASD leading to right to left shunting
|
Eisenmenger syndrome
|
|
Most common adult congenital heart disease
|
Bicuspid aortic valve
|
|
Most common cyanotic congenital heart disease
|
Tetrology of Fallot
|
|
Disorder characterized by transient dysfunction of the apical portion of the LV, with compensatory hyperkinesis of the basal walls, prducing ballooning of the apex with systole in the absence of coronary artery disease
|
Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
|
|
JVD, decreased heart sounds, hypotension
|
Beck's triad (cardiac tamponade)
|
|
3 causes of holosystolic murmur
|
MR, TR, VSD
|
|
short PR with no delta wave
|
Lown-Ganong-Levine
|
|
Long QT (AD; without deafness)
|
Romano Ward
|
|
Association between bleeding from gatrointestinal angiodysplasia and severe aortic stenosis which may resolve with aortic valve replacement; may also be explained by acquired type Iia von Willebrand's syndrome
|
Heyde's syndrome
|
|
Chronic ergotism (historically from consumption of rye contaminated with ergot fungus); characterized by intense burning pain of the feet, hands, and whole limbs due to vasoconstrictive properties of ergot
|
st anthony's fire
|
|
Sydenham's chorea (eponym)
|
st vidus's dance
|
|
Aortic insufficiency like murmur in early diastole found in anemia
|
Cabot-Locke
|
|
Rapid xy descent
|
Constrictive pericarditis
|
|
Left vocal cord paralysis secondary to LAE secondary to mitral stenosis
|
Ortner's syndrome
|
|
Valvular abnormality associated with Ankylosing spondylitis
|
Aortic regurgitation
|
|
RBBB, persistent ST elevations in leads V1 and V2 without evidence of structural heart disease
|
Brugada's syndrome
|
|
High Risk Cardiac contraindications to pregnancy
|
Eisenmenger's, severe pulm HTN, complex cyanotic heart dz, marfan's with aortic root or valve involvement, severe AS, aortic or mitral valve dz with EF < 40%, NYHA class III or IV, prior peripartum cardiomyopathy
|
|
Continuous LTOT would be indicated with a pO2 56-59 in these patients
|
dependent edema, cor pulmonale with p pulmonale on ECG (>3mv in inferior leads), or Hct>56
|
|
Findings comprising Bergman's Triad and associated disease state
|
petechia, dyspnea, MS changes; a/w Fat Emboli syndrome
|
|
Eponym for high-pitched, blowing murmur that may be found in a patient with pulmonary regurgitation resulting from pulmonary HTN
|
Graham-Steell
|
|
Endocarditis with cancer
|
Marantic Endocarditis
|
|
2 possible causes of hypercalcemia in a patient with a high PTH-intact level
|
1. primary hyperparathyroidism, 2. Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcmia, Lithium use
|
|
The drug used to treat hyperthyroidism in pregnancy, is associated with a small risk of agranulocytosis
|
PTU
|
|
Hypotension, gingival and palmar crease hyperpigmentation is seen in this disease
|
Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency)
|
|
Most common type of secretory pituitary mass
|
Prolactinoma
|
|
Failure of lactation following a complicated C-section delivery
|
Sheehan's syndrome
|
|
Sudden onset of severe headache, visual changes and hypotension in a patient with a known pituitary macroadenoma
|
Pituitary apoplexy (pituitary hemorrhage)
|
|
Hemochromatosis, when involving the pituitary, most commonly results in deficiency of this pituitary hormones
|
Gonadotropin deficiency (LH, FSH)
|
|
President George H. Bush
|
Possible TSH-receptor antibodies
|
|
According to the WHO, a T score of this value is the definition of osteoporosis
|
T-score < or = to 2.5
|
|
Suspect this dx in a male with premature osteoporosis and loss of libido
|
Hypogonadism
|
|
Most important initial therapy in patients with significant hypercalcemia
|
Volume expansion
|
|
Suspect this diagnosis in a patient with significant diuretic induced hypokalemia
|
Primary hyperaldosteronism
|
|
95% of cases of congenital adrenal hyperplasia are due to deficiency of this enzyme
|
21-hydroxylase deficiency
|
|
2 most common etiologies seen in single adrenal masses
|
Adrenal Adenoma Metastasis to adrenal glands
|
|
3 drugs used to treat a patient in thyroid storm
|
Beta blockers, PTU/Methimazole, iodine, steroids
|
|
Jane Austen is believed to have died of this, brought on by TB of a particular organ system
|
Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease)
|
|
Best test to distinguish thyroiditis from factitious hyperthyroidism in a patient with a low RAIU
|
thyroglobulin
|
|
Osteitis fibrosa cystica - chronic hyperparathyroidism eponym
|
Von Recklinghausen disease of the bone
|
|
Diabetic syndrome of symmetric proximal leg weakness and pain
|
Diabetic amyotrophy
|
|
Preferred imaging test for insulinoma
|
Endoscopic ultrasonography
|
|
Sign associated with contraction of the facial muscles after tapping facial nerve
|
Chvostek's sign
|
|
Facial plethora as a sign of increased thoracic inlet pressure/obstruction with the raising of the patient's arms
|
Pemberton's sign; can be caused by retrosternal thyroid gland
|
|
This hormone deficiency is associated with kallman's syndrome
|
Gonadatropin-releasing hormone
|
|
Non-insulin hormone responsible for storing body fat
|
Leptin
|
|
Severe hypertension, metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia and suppressed plasma renin activity and plasma aldosterone
|
Liddle's syndrome
|
|
Metabolic disease that is associated with patient smelling like putrid fish
|
Trimethylaminuria
|
|
Acromegaly screening/confirmatory tests
|
IGF-1 (somatomedin C), 100 gram glucose load challenge
|
|
Most sensitive test for primary adrenal insufficiency
|
ACTH stim test
|
|
Screening test for patient with glucose intolerance, several skin tags, and who on colonoscopy has multiple polyps
|
IGF-1 (Glucose tolerance test is confirmatory)
|
|
PCOS eponym
|
Stein Leventhal syndrome
|
|
Order this test to follow a patient with secondary hypothyroidism
|
Free T4
|
|
Thyroid cancer associated with MEN2
|
Medullary thyroid cancer
|
|
Feared complication of PTU and methimatazole
|
Agranulocytosis
|
|
The 2 tests that distinguish Grave's disease, factitious thyrotoxicosis and subacute thyroiditis
|
RAIU and TG (or ESR)
|
|
In a patient with subacute hypothyroidism, this test is the best predictor if overt hypothyroidism will develop over time
|
Anti-TPO antibodies
|
|
Adrenal insufficiency may have these CBC abnormalities
|
eosinphilia, normocytic anemia, lymphocytosis
|
|
Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome I
|
Parathyroid insufficency, adrenal insuficiency, mucocutaneous candidiasis
|
|
Hyperkalemia is seen in this type of adrenal insufficiency
|
Primary adrenal insufficiency
|
|
Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome II
|
adrenal insufficiency,autoimmune thyroid disease, Diabetes Mellitus I
|
|
Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome III
|
autoimmune thyroiditis with another autoimmune disease that is not autoimmune adrenalitis
|
|
This substance can give hypokalemia and HTN
|
Licorice
|
|
Genetic disorder affecting the Na channel in the renal tubule
|
Liddle's syndrome
|
|
AB present in Hashimoto's
|
Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibody
|
|
Components of Sipple's syndrome
|
Medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, hyperparathyroidism
|
|
Components of Wermer syndrome
|
Hyperpara, hyperpit, pancreatic tumor
|
|
Hyperpigmentation in adrenal insufficiency is caused by this
|
ACTH
|
|
Hyperthyroidism following iodine contrast
|
Jod-Basedow phenomenon
|
|
Sudden exposure to excess serum iodide inhibits organification of iodide, thereby diminishing hormone biosynthesis
|
Wolf-Chaikoff effect
|
|
Genetics of MEN1
|
Chromosome 11, MEN 1 gene
|
|
Genetics of MEN2
|
Chromosome 10, ret-proto oncogene
|
|
Hyperthyroidism drug not given to women
|
Methimazole (causes aphasia cutis in newborns)
|
|
3 endocrine disorders that can cause carpal tunnel syndrome
|
Acromegaly, hypothyroidism, diabetes
|
|
First manifestation of iodine deficiency
|
Goiter
|
|
Most common thyroid cancer
|
Papillary carcinoma
|
|
Found on FNA of papillary thyroid cancers
|
Psammoma bodies
|
|
2 hormones from posterior pituitary
|
oxytocin and ADH
|
|
Hypogonadic hypogonadism (Low GnRH with low FSH and LH), anosmia, and color blindness
|
Kallman syndrome
|
|
Antibody to test in Diabetes Type I
|
Glutamic acid decarboxylase
|
|
Diabetes, hirsutism, post-menopausal women
|
Achard-Thiers
|
|
Disappearing bone disease
|
Gorhams Disease
|
|
Osmolality equation
|
2Na +Glucose/18 + BUN/2.8
|
|
Osmolality when thirst begins
|
295
|
|
Time of peak for ACTH
|
3-4 am
|
|
Two hormones controlling GH
|
GHRH, Somatostatin
|
|
Two hormones controlling TSH
|
TRH, Somatostatin
|
|
Most common cause(s) of pituitary macroadenoma
|
lactotrophs, gonadotrophs
|
|
Most common presentation of gonadotroph tumo
|
non-functional mass (can test for alpha subunits to help diagnose; TRH stimulation test can also be used)
|
|
Treatment for empty sella syndrome
|
usually none - 90%+ function normally
|
|
Threshold of prolactin when prolactinoma very likely
|
>200
|
|
PRL Levels correlate with tumor size in macroadenomas - true or false
|
TRUE
|
|
Treatment for prolactinoma
|
Bromocriptine (safe in pregnancy) and cabergoline (better tolerated, more expensive)
|
|
Contraindications to cabergoline
|
known lung, heart valve, and retroperitoneal fibrotic disease (Parkinson's at increased risk for diseased heart valve)
|
|
Postpartum infarct of pituitary that results in anterior hypopit and sometimes central diabetes insipidus
|
Sheehan's syndrome
|
|
Other causes of pituitary mass
|
craniopharyngioma, cns lymphoma, 1% metastatic cancer (Breast and lung)
|
|
Definition of pituitary incidentaloma
|
<10 mm; asymptomatic - requires work-up for PRL only
|
|
Variable onset with severeheadache, N/V, meningismus, vertigo, visual defects, fluctuating consciousness
|
Pituitary apoplexy (pituitary hemorrhage) - can occur immediately or over 1-2 days
|
|
Diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism, large hands and feet, large head with a lowering brow and course features
|
acromegaly
|
|
Most common endocrine conditions that cause carpal tunnel syndrome
|
DM, acromegaly, hypothyroidism
|
|
Screening and confirmatory test for GH excess
|
IGF-1 (>3 u/ml), 100 gm oral glucose suppression test
|
|
Treatment for somatotroph adenoma
|
Always treat even if symptomatic -> transphenoidal surgery, irradiaiton. Bromocriptine can be used paradoxically. Can also use octreotide/lanreotide or pegvisomant (GH R antag)
|
|
What can mimic partial nephrogenic DI
|
polydipsic DI
|
|
Alternate treatment choices for DI
|
Desmopressin, Thiazide diuretics
|
|
adipsic hypernatremia
|
occurs when thirst and adh osmoreceptors are damaged - hypernatremic dehydration without thirst
|
|
Treatment for refractory SIADH
|
Demeclocycline (adverse rxn: photosensitivity and nephrotoxicity)
|
|
ADH antagonists
|
Conivaptan, Tolvaptan
|
|
RAIU result in hCG secreting tumor
|
increased
|
|
Amiodarone effect on thyroid
|
hyper or hypo; decreased T4 to T3 conversion; low RAIU (saturated with iodine)
|
|
Most common cause of hypothyroidism
|
Chronic Autoimmune thyroiditis ("Hashimoto")
|
|
Causes of tongue enlargement
|
Hypothyoroid, Amyloid …
|
|
CBC finding in hypothyroidism
|
Normochromic normocytic anemia (except when associated with pernicious anemia)
|
|
Most common TSH/T4 in euthyroid sick
|
low tsh, normal t4 (should check this answer)
|
|
Biliary cirrhosis, hepatitis, clofibrate and narcotic effect on thyroid function tests
|
increase TBG
|
|
Meds that block t4 to t3 conversion
|
propranolol, glucocorticoids, propylthiouracil, amiodarone
|
|
Adrenal insufficiency affect on thyroid hormones
|
increased TSH
|
|
Test to differentiate secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism
|
sella imaging
|
|
medical comorbidity requiring slow titration of Thyroxine
|
CAD (especially elderly)
|
|
mortality of myxedema coma
|
30-40%
|
|
Two classic signs of myxedema coma
|
Decreased mentation and hypothermia
|
|
Eponym for automimmune adrenalitis and thyroiditis
|
Schmidt syndrome (suspect with hypoglycemia and hypothyroid)
|
|
Treatment for myxedema coma
|
passive rewarming, ivf, normalizing serum sodium, t3, intravenous t4 or both t3 and t4; stress dose steroids if any suspicion for adrenal insufficiency; empiric broad spectrum abx until infection excluded
|
|
Most common cause of thyrotoxicosis
|
Graves disease
|
|
Cause of abnormal ACTH stim test in hyperthyroidism
|
low cortisol binding protein; hyperthyroid patients usually don't have true adrenal dysfunction
|
|
buzzword for hyperthyroidism in the elderly
|
apathetic hyperthyroidism - "failure to thrive" picture
|
|
2 immune mediated hematologic abnormalities associated with Graves
|
pernicious anemia and ITP
|
|
Lab finding associated with reduced incidence of relapse of Graves after treatment
|
absence of stimulatory immunoglobulins
|
|
treatment of graves with history of prior radiation
|
surgery; give ptu or methimazole +/- beta blockers before surgery
|
|
Precipitating events (3) for thyroid storm
|
surgery, infections, iodine load
|
|
Treatment of thyroid storm (6)
|
1. IV propranolol or esmolol 2. high dose thionamide 3. iodine solution (blocks release of preformed hormone 4. iodinated contrast and glucocorticoids (blocks peripheral conversion) 5. empiric broad spectrum abx until infection excluded 6. supportive care in ICU (volume status, temperature, heart rate)
|
|
Cause of acute thyroiditis
|
Bacterial infection
|
|
Cause of subacute thyroiditis
|
Virus (also called granulomatous); PAIN - very tender neck, becomes fibrotic, returns to normal months later
|
|
Cause of chronic thyroiditis
|
autoimmune -mediated (Hashimoto's), painless, postpartum
|
|
TX of subacute (granulomatous) thyroiditis
|
ASA or NSAIDS; glucocorticoids in refractory (8 week taper); frequent reevaluation until thyroid fxn normalizes (1 week - most - to 12 months)
|
|
Percent of patients with painless thyroiditis that eventually develop Hashimoto's
|
50%
|
|
Eponym for thyroid tissue in an ovarian teratoma
|
Struma Ovarii
|
|
Percent of cold thyroid nodules that are benign
|
85%
|
|
nonmalignant thyroid nodule after neck radiation
|
colloid adenoma
|
|
Two diagnostic tests done after finding a palpable nodule
|
tsh and thyroid ultrasound; FNA if high low TSH and cold nodule, high TSH with concerning ultrasound, or normal TSH
|
|
Size criteria for FNA of incidentaloma (thyroid) with normal TSH
|
1 cm
|
|
principle cell involved with medullary thyroid cancer
|
parafollicular C cells
|
|
Gene involved in MEN2
|
RET protoncogene - tyrosine kinase, transduces signals for cell growth
|
|
Serum marker for medullary thyroid cancer
|
calcitonin
|
|
Spread of folllicular cancer is by what route and to what tissue
|
hematogenous; bone, lungs, CNS
|
|
spread of papillary cancer is by what route and to what tissue
|
lymphatics; bone, lungs
|
|
treatment of thyroid cancer
|
near-total thyroidectomy; posterior capsule often left in place to minimize the risk of recurrent laryngeal nerve damage; TSH allowed to rise to >30 then high dose radioactive iodine
|
|
follow-up studies for thyroid cancer in "remission"
|
neck ultrasound, total body scans, and/or thyroglobulin (interferred with by anti-TPO)
|
|
Concern when hashimoto's develops fast growing thyroid mass
|
Thyroid lymphoma
|
|
Vegetables that act as goitrogen
|
cassava root, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, cabbage
|
|
3 main indications for treatment of nontoxic multinodular goiter
|
Compression of trachea, venous outflow obstruction, growth into intrathoracic area
|
|
Treatment of toxic multinodular goiter
|
usually ablative (I131)
|
|
3 zones of adrenal cortex
|
Zona Glomerulosa (salt), Zona Fasciculata (sugar - cortisol), Zona Reticularis (sex)
|
|
Product of chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla
|
mainly epinephrine
|
|
most common cause of CAH and resultant increased precursor
|
21 hydroxylase deficiency and 17 hydroxy progesterone
|
|
Enzyme deficient in late-onset CAH with hypertension and hyperkalemia
|
11 hydroxylase - causes increase in 11 deoxycortisol and 11 deoxycorticosterone (an active mineralocorticoid) in addition to testosterone
|
|
Cancers associated with ectopic ACTH
|
bronchogenic, pancreatic, thymic … carcinoid (if age > 60, then small cell lung cancer is the most common cause of Cushing's)
|
|
1st and 2nd most common cause of Cushing syndrome
|
exogenous steroids and pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease)
|
|
Causes of pseudo-cushing's
|
obesity, alcoholism, depression
|
|
What distinguishes Cushing disease and adrenal carcinomas from adrenal adenomas
|
Presence of increased androgens (adrenal DHEA) and hirsutism and acne
|
|
Failure of high dose dex to suppress cortisol production
|
Ectopic production of ACTH -> image with CT and check 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
|
|
Causes of Addison's disease
|
Autoimmune, granulomatous, HIV, CMV, amyloid, sarcoid
|
|
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, adrenal/pituitary insufficiencies +/- pernicious anemia, hepatitis, allopecia, Hashimoto's and premature ovarian failure
|
Polyglandular Autoimmune Syndrome I
|
|
>= 2 of the following Addison disease, hashimoto's, premature ovarian failure, type I diabetes +/- pernicious anemia, vitiligo, alopecia, sprue, myasthenia
|
Polyglandular Autoimmune Syndrome II
|
|
Most common cause of secondary AI
|
rapid withdrawal of chronic glucocorticoids
|
|
Primary adrenal insufficiency and hypothyroidism
|
Schmidt syndrome - give cortisol first; thyroid replacement first can worsen shock
|
|
Electrolyte that impacts aldosterone secretion
|
potassium
|
|
Most common cause of hypoaldosteronism
|
decreased production of renin in diabetic patients
|
|
Drugs that suppress aldosterone (directly or indirectly)
|
ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, chronic heparin
|
|
Medications that interfere with work-up for primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism
|
ACEI/ARBs
|
|
Imaging test for pheo if CT/MRI normal
|
metaiodobenzylguanidine scintigraphy
|
|
Medication that interferes with urine metanephrines and catecholamines
|
TCA2 - wean two weeks prior to surgery, etc.
|
|
three familial cancer syndromes with pheos
|
MEN2, VHL, neuofibromatosis
|
|
new name for pheo outside the adrenals
|
extraadrenal paraganglioma
|
|
Pre-op med for pheo
|
Phenoxybenzamine then propranolol
|
|
incidentaloma not requiring a work-up
|
Myelolipoma
|
|
3 indications for removing adrenal incidentaloma
|
tests indicate a functioning tumor, mass is >6 cm, prior was <4 and evidence of growth on 6 month repeat
|
|
parathyroid hyperplasia, pituitary adenoma, pancreatic islet cell tumors (insulin, gastrin)
|
MEN1 (Wermer's)
|
|
(cardiac) myxomas, spotty pigmentation, and endocrine overactivity
|
Carney complex
|
|
Pheo, C cell hyperplasia -> medullary thyroid cancer, parathyroid hyperplasia
|
Men2a (sipple's)
|
|
Pheo, medullary thyroid, mucosal neuromas ("blubbery lips"), marfanoid body type
|
Men2b (or MEN III) - no consistent eponym
|
|
Diagnosis represented by "bilateral symmetric pseudofractures"; presenting symoms of bone pain and proximal muscle weakness
|
osteomalacia - commonly caused by vitamin d deficiency; usually caused by malabsorption
|
|
Test to diagnose osteomalacia
|
25(OH)D (not 1,25) - also marked by increased iPTH and alk phos, decreased Ca and decreased Phos
|
|
Effect of Magnesium on Calcium and MOA
|
Hypomagnesemia decreases PTH causing hypocalcemia
|
|
hypocalcemia with normal or elevated PTH and absence of 4th and 5th knuckles
|
pseudohypoparathyroidism - genetic mutation in PTH receptor
|
|
Drug of choice for myeloma-associated hypercalcemia
|
pamidronate
|
|
Guidelines for parathyroidectomy for Hyperparathyroidism (2008 guidelines)
|
Serum calcium 1.0 mg/dl above ULN, creatinine clearance < 60 ml/min, T-score < 2.5 at any site and/or previous fragility fracture, Age <50
|
|
Causes of hypercalcemia other than PTH (5+)
|
Vitamin D excess, Vitamin A excess, thiazide diuretics, lithium (increases PTH setpoint), benign familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia, PTHrP, granulomatous diseases, bone mets, MM, immobilization *in setting of high turnover - thyroid, pagets, adolescence)
|
|
Mottled-looking band stretching horizontally across the center of the cornea
|
Band keratopathy in hypercalcemia
|
|
Subperiosteal bone resorption with a moth-eaten appearance to phalangeal cortex on finger radiographs
|
osteitis fibrosa cystica with prolonged PTH excess
|
|
Most common cause of vitamin d deficiency
|
malabsorption
|
|
Whipple's triad
|
hypoglycemic signs and symptoms, low glucose level, relief of symptoms with glucose administration
|
|
Two main categories of hypoglycemia symptoms
|
neuroglycopenic and autonomic
|
|
postrprandial hypoglycemia found in T2DM and in some post-GI surgical patients (when gastric contents get dumed into the small intestine too quickly with a brisk release of incretins)
|
Idiopathic reactive hypoglycemia
|
|
Four tests usined in the work-up of confirmed, nonreactive hypoglycemia
|
serum insulin, serum proinsulin (increased to >20% with insilunoma), c-peptide,urinary/plasma sulfonylurea test
|
|
Hormone that both increases osteoblasts (like corticosteroids) and inhibits osteoclasts (like calcitonin)
|
Estrogen
|
|
Autoantibodies in type 1 DM
|
anti-islet, -insulin, -glutamic acid decarboxylase, -tyrosine phosphatases IA-2 and IA-2beta
|
|
HLA (on chromosome 6) associated with DM
|
DR3 and DR4
|
|
Ketoacids in diabetes
|
Beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate (only one detected by Acetest)
|
|
Etiologies of brittle DM
|
gastroparesis, poor communication, malingering, increased growth hormone in puberty (increased insulin resistance)
|
|
Improvement of hyperglycemia after diagnosis and institution of treatment
|
Honeymoon effect
|
|
Increased blood glucose between 4 and 7 am with no preceding hypoglycemia
|
Dawn phenomenon (early morning rise in cortisol and GH)
|
|
Increased blood glucose with preceding hypoglycemia
|
Somogyi effect (classically at night with associate headaches and nightmares)
|
|
Triad of carbohydrate intolerance, glossitis, and erythematous rash
|
Glucagonoma
|
|
red, blistering rash that spreads across the skin, particularly the lower abdomen, buttocks, perineum, and groin
|
Necrolytic migratory erythema
|
|
analogue to amylin which is secreted by the pancreatic beta cells
|
Pramlintide - cut the insulin dose by 50% when using
|
|
sitagliptin moa
|
dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor
|
|
act by stimulating insulin release, inhibiting prostprandial glucagon release, slowing nutrient absorption, and accelerating satiety
|
byetta (glucagon-like peptide 1)
|
|
Nerves most often involved in diabetic mononeuropathy
|
CN 3 and 6, peroneal nerve (foot drop) and radial nerve (wrist drop)
|
|
glucose goals in pregnancy
|
60-90; <120 postprandial (note that pregnant patients require 50% more insulin)
|
|
Syndrome characterized by clinical and biochemical evidence of thyrotoxicosis, low 24-hour radioactive iodine uptake, nontender thyroid gland, and normal sedimentation rate
|
Silent (lymphocytic) thyroiditis or factitious (exogenous) thyrotoxicosis
|
|
Oral hypoglycemic agent that should discontinued prior to contrast imaging studies
|
metformin
|
|
Diagnosis suggested by high insulin, proinsulin, C-peptide levels and hypoglycemia
|
insulinoma
|
|
Long-acting, irreversible nonselective alpha-blocker used for pheochromocytoma
|
Phenoxybenzamine
|
|
Drug stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity
|
Teriparatide (accept recombinant human parathyroid hormone)
|
|
This is a feared complication of removal of > 1 liter of fluid in a patient with a large pleural effusion
|
Reexpansion pulmonary edema
|
|
Light's criteria
|
protein ratio > 0.5, LDH ratio > 0.6, LDH fluid > 2/3 upper limit of normal
|
|
In a 24 y.o. pt with asthma and freq night symptoms, these 2 drugs are the mainstay of chronic therapy
|
Inhaled corticosteroids (#1) and long acting B agonists (#2)
|
|
Frequent asthma exacerbations, eosinophilia, elevated IgE and proximal bronchiectasis
|
Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosiss
|
|
Refractory asthma, pulmonary infiltrates, eosinophilia, and fever
|
Churg-Strauss Disease
|
|
Seen on CXR , this pleural based wedge shaped defect from infarction just above the diaphragm
|
Hamptom's Hump
|
|
Located near the hilum, this may be seen on CXR from a patient with confirmed PE
|
Westermark's sign
|
|
Extremely low values of this are seen in pleural effusions of patients with RA
|
Low glucose
|
|
Pleural effusion, LE edema, yellow nails
|
Yellow Nail Syndrome (2/2 disorder of lymphatics, pleural effusion can persist > 1 year); a history of bronchiectasis, bronchitis, or sinusitis in association with chronic pleural effusion should suggest the diagnosis.
|
|
Spirally twisted mucous plugs of shed epithelium that occur in the sputum of asthmatics
|
Curschmann's spirals
|
|
According to the ACCP, chest tube drainage is indicated in pleural effusions with a pH of this value
|
pH < 7.2; also glucose <60 or positive gram stain
|
|
Exudative criteria with better specificity than Light's
|
Serum-effusion albumin gradient LE 1.2; cholesterol effusion > 45 and LDHeff > 200
|
|
Markers for exudative effusion when concern for heart failure pseudoexudate
|
albumin gradient LE 1.2 and cholesterol >60
|
|
These 3 diseases are in the differential of an effusion with glucose <60
|
RA, malignancy, infection
|
|
Marker of chylothorax
|
Triglyceries > 110
|
|
The test used to distinguisha chylothorax with triglycerides from 50-110
|
Lipoprotein analysis to check for chylomicrons
|
|
Marker of urinothorax
|
Creatinine effusion/serum ratio GT 1
|
|
Aneurysmal dilation of a pulmonary artery that results from the local inflammation due to cavitary TB
|
Rasmussen's aneurysm
|
|
Mental status changes, petechiae (often in the axilla/thorax) and dyspnea
|
Bergman's triad (fat emboli syndrome)
|
|
Syndrome of pulmonary rheumatoid nodules in patient with co-existing coal worker's pneumoconiosis
|
Caplan's syndrome
|
|
Interstitial lung disease characterized by upper lobe masses in patient with known silicosis
|
Progressive massive fibrosis
|
|
Slowly progressive pulmonary syndrome associated with cystic changes in the lungs occurring almost exclusively in smokers
|
Pulmonary Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
|
|
The earliest pleural manifestation of asbestos exposure
|
benign asbestos pleural effusion
|
|
Neck circumference measurement associated with an increased risk of obstructive sleep apnea
|
> 17 inches (43 cm)
|
|
Disease with chest CT findings described as "crazy paving"
|
Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
|
|
Shortness of breath in the erect position
|
Platypnea
|
|
Laryngeal finding associated with vocal cord dysfunction
|
Adduction of vocal cords (or paradoxical motion of vocal cords)
|
|
Inhaled drug that is effective for bronchoconstriction due to propranolol
|
Ipratropium
|
|
Cystic lung disease in women of childbearing age
|
Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
|
|
Late, severe complication of silo filler's disease
|
Brochiolitis obliterans
|
|
Upper airway complication of prolonged intubation
|
Tracheal stenosis (or tracheomalacia)
|
|
Syndrome characterized by quadriplegia, paralysis of horizontal eye movements with preservation of vertical eye movements, and inability to speak
|
Locked in syndrome
|
|
Smoke inhalation victim with coma, hypotension, profound anion-gap metabolic acidosis unresponsive to volume replacement and oxygen
|
Cyanide poisoning
|
|
Three things that move oxyhemoglobin curve to the right
|
decreased pH, increased temp, increased 2,3 DPG (diphosphoglycerate)
|
|
Wool Sorter's disease (causative organism)
|
Bacillus anthracis
|
|
Continuous LTOT would be indicated with a pO2 56-59 in these patients
|
Those with resting pO2 56-59 with edema, cor pulmonale, or Hct>56
|
|
Interventions that increase oxygenation in an intubated patient
|
increased FiO2, increased PEEP, increased I/E ratio
|
|
cyclic crescendo-decrescendo respiratory effort and airflow during wakefulness or sleep (associated with heart failure)
|
Cheyne-Stokes
|
|
Fat Emboli Syndrome
|
Bergman's Triad - petechia, dyspnea, MS changes
|
|
Besides ABCs and aggressive fluid resuscitation, these are 4 additional treatment options in CCB overdose patients
|
IV calcium, IV glucagon, IV insulin and glucose (high dose 1u/kg insulin bolus), cardiopulmonary bypass? (May also accept pressors, pacemaker, atropine, phosphodiesterase inhibitors, aortic balloon pump, activated charcoal)
|
|
Description of mediastinum LN in sarcoid
|
Potato nodes
|
|
Patient with SLE admitted for SOB. DLCO elevated. DX?
|
Diffuse Alveolar hemorrhage
|
|
Feared complication from too rapidly correctin a patients significant hypernatremia
|
Cerebral edema
|
|
Hemoptysis and tram-tracking on CXR
|
Bronchiectasis
|
|
Components of Samter's triad
|
ASA sensitivity, nasal polyps, asthma
|
|
Histologic findings in Hamman-rich syndrome
|
Organizing diffuse alveolar damage
|
|
Mode of mechanical ventilation wher there is a set tidal volume and rate and the patient gets the set tidal volume with every breath
|
AC
|
|
The TV in ARDS patients should not exceed this
|
6 ml/kg of predicted weight
|
|
Acute sarcoid with anterior uveitis, parotid enlargement, fever, and facial nerve palsy
|
Heerfordt Waldenstrom Syndrome
|
|
Suspect his as a cause if patient's hypoxia does not correct with 100% FiO2
|
Shunt
|
|
5 general causes of hypoxemia
|
Decreased FiO2, hypoventilation, shunt, VQ mismatch, decreased diffusion
|
|
Causes of increased DLCO
|
asthma, L to R cardiac shunting, diffuse alveolar hemorrhage, polycythemia, obesity
|
|
Over 90% of massive hemoptysis comes from these arteries
|
Bronchial arteries
|
|
Dyspnea occuring only in upright position
|
Platypnea (associated with hepatopulmonary syndrome)
|
|
Desaturation in the upright position but better in the supine position
|
Orthodeoxia (associated with hepatopulmonary syndrome)
|
|
Oxygen saturation gap is associated with this
|
methemoglobinemia (cyanosis with a normal PaO2)
|
|
Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome associated with this GI disease
|
Hirschprung's disease (also associated with neuroblastoma and dysphagia)
|
|
Congenital disease with decreased autonomic control of ventilation, central sleep apnea (eponym)
|
Ondine's curse
|
|
2 causes of heme-negative hemoptysis
|
Serratia marcecens, INH treatment
|
|
Microscopic findings in Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
|
Staining for S100 and CD1a or anti-langerin. Also birbeck granules may be seen
|
|
Spontaneous pneumothorax now with chylous effusion
|
Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
|
|
Lymphangioleiomatosis can be associated with a higher incidence of this neuro malignancy
|
Meningioma
|
|
Treatment for LAM
|
Hormonal manipulation but of unproven benefit; also sirolimus or lung transplantation (Oophorectomy not recommended, progestin, tamoxifen, GnRH analogs)
|
|
Cartilage disorder and bronchiectasis (eponym)
|
william Campbell
|
|
eponym for hyperpigmented patches on thighs proximal to the knees, from chronic elbow pressure as the emphysematous patient rests leaning forward to improve breathing
|
Dahl's sign
|
|
The age at which medicare takes effect
|
65
|
|
This part of Medicare pays for physician office visits, ambulanc rides, and outpatient treatments administered in a doctor's office
|
Part B
|
|
This part of Medicare covers inpatient treatment
|
Part A
|
|
Medicare Advantage plans (privatized)
|
Part C
|
|
Prescription Drug Plan
|
Part D
|
|
BMI values
|
Obesity if >30, Overweight if 25-30
|
|
Metabolic syndrome
|
three or more of the following: 1. Blood pressure equal to or higher than 130/85 mmHg 2. Blood sugar (glucose) equal to or higher than 100 mg/dL 3. Large waist circumference (length around the waist): Men - 102 cm or more Women - 88 cm or more 4. Low HDL cholesterol: Men - under 40 mg/dL Women - under 50 mg/dL 5. Triglycerides equal to or higher than 150 mg/dL
|
|
President W. Henry Harrison
|
Pneumonia
|
|
President Kennedy's tan
|
Addison's disease
|
|
President George Washington
|
epiglottitis
|
|
President Andrew Jackson
|
Heart Failure
|
|
Risk factors for developing preeclampsia
|
1. Nulliparity 2. Chronic HTN 3. family history 4. renal disease 5. diabetes 6. obesity
|
|
Name applied to decision making for a patient whose preferences are not known but are based upon the best evidence of what the patient would have wanted
|
Substituted Judgement
|
|
Federal law requiring health care institutions participating in Medicare/Medicaid to ask if a patient has an advance directive, to provide information about advance directives, and incorporate advance directives into the medical record
|
Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990
|
|
In 50% of women with contraceptive associated hypertension, the blood pressure will return to normal within this time span
|
3 months
|
|
Diagnosis suggested by dyspareunia and punctate ulcers in the vestibule located primarily around the Bartholin's glands
|
Vulvar vestibulitis
|
|
Pregnancy complication of untreated Trichomonas vaginitis
|
PROM or preterm delivery
|
|
Federal Act of 1996 contains rules about privacy of medical records
|
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
|
|
An advance directive appointing a surrogate who will make decisions if the patient is unable to do so
|
Durable power of attorney (for health care)
|
|
Name describing generalized swelling of an entire digit
|
Dactylitis
|
|
Eponym for a bruise over the mastoid, indicating a basal skull fracture
|
Battle's sign
|
|
Chronic renal failure increases risk for this third trimester pregnancy complication
|
Preeclampsia
|
|
Vasodilator of choice for peripartum cardiomyopathy
|
Hydralazine
|
|
Treatment of gestational hypertension improves this renal outcome
|
Decreased proteinuria
|
|
Probability of a positive test in a patient with disease compared to the probability in a patient without disease
|
Positive likelihood ratio
|
|
Breast cancer prediction model based upon personal and family risk factors
|
Gail model
|
|
Best trimester to perform "semi-elective" abdominal surgery
|
2nd trimester
|
|
Normal PCO2 level during pregnancy
|
28-32 mm Hg (accept any answer within range)
|
|
Major fetal effect of maternal ACE inhibitor use
|
Renal tubular dysgenesis
|
|
In pregnant patients with a normal fasting glucose, what screening test at 24-28 weeks is recommended for the detection of gestational diabetes
|
What is 50-g glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks gestation?
|
|
Therapy indicated in a 28 yo gravid female at 10 weeks with a low TSH and normal T4 that was found on routine testing
|
What is no therapy is necessary? HCG during the 1st trimester is in high concentration and acts as a partial TSH agonist. Recheck later in pregnancy.
|
|
Diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia
|
What is systolic blood pressure > 140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure > 90 mmHg (on two separate occasions with prior normal BP after 20 weeks gestation) and proteinuria of 300mg or greater in a 24-hour urine specimen?
|
|
Ingredients in lactated ringer
|
chloride, potassium ,calcium, lactate, sodium,water
|
|
5 As for quitting smoking
|
Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange
|
|
Deficiency of this vitamin results in cardiomyopathy and muscle pain
|
Selenium
|
|
Most likely deficiency in person with anemia, cheilosis, and seborrheic dermatitis who takes a tricyclic antidepressant
|
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
|
|
Most common cause of jaundice during 1st and 2nd trimesters
|
Acute viral hepatitis
|
|
Stunted growth, loss of adipose tissue, generalized wasting of protein mass, no edema
|
Marasmus (protein and energy deficiency)
|
|
Growth failure, edema, hypoalbuminemia, fatty liver, preservation of subcutatneous fat
|
Kwashiorkor (protein deficiency
|
|
Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea
|
Pellagra (niacin deficiency)
|
|
High output heart failure, peripheral neuropathy, Wernicke's encephalopathy, Korsakoff syndrome
|
Beriberi (thiamine deficiency)
|
|
Perifollicular hyperkeratotic papules, purpura, poor wound healing, hemorrhages
|
Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency)
|
|
Location of surgeries associated with greatest risk in patients with COPD
|
Upper abdominal or thoracic
|
|
Duration of prophylactic antibiotics for uncomplicated surgical procedures
|
24 hours
|
|
Recommended preoperative screening prior to cataract surgery
|
None
|
|
Percentage of patients with a negative history but abnormal bleeding tests that require preoperative treatment
|
0.3% (Less than 1% acceptable)
|
|
General surgery may be safely performed if the INR is below this level
|
1.5
|
|
Vitamin deficiency noted bby dwarfism, gonadal atrophy, severe dermatitis, alopecia
|
Zinc
|
|
Vitamin deficiency noted by cardiomyopathy, proximal muscle weakness, macrocytosis, pseudoalbinism
|
Selenium (Keshan disease)
|
|
Enzyme deficiency in Tay-sachs
|
hexosiminadase A
|
|
Enzyme deficiency in Niemann Pick
|
Sphingomyelinase
|
|
5 Kubler-Ross stages of grief
|
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
|
|
Name all of the clinical competencies
|
1. Medical Knowledge,2. Professionalism, 3. Practice Based Learning and Improvement, 4. Systems based learning/practice, 5. Interpersonal/communication skills, 6. patient care
|
|
Formula for relative risk
|
RR = pexposed/pnotexposed = [a/(a+b)]/[c/(c+d)]; used in cohort and randomized/prospective studies
|
|
Formula for odds ratio
|
ad/bc (used in case control and retrospective studies)
|
|
Marfanoid habitus, increased risk of strokes, and CAD is seen in this congenital syndrome
|
Homocysteinuria syndrome
|
|
2008 Guidelines for surgery for asymptomatic hyperpara
|
Age < 50, Creatinine > 1mg/dl over ULN, creatinine clearance < 60 ml/min, T score < 2.5
|
|
He was a US Army chemist and surgeon credited with originating the technique of liquid chlorination of drinking water. It has been plausibly asserted that more lives have been saved and more disease prevented by this contribution to sanitation than by any other single achievement in medicine or public health.
|
Dr. Carl Rogers Darnall
|
|
Nobel awardee for development of electrocardiogram
|
Willem Einthoven
|
|
First to provide experimental proof that blood was pumped through a closed circulatory system
|
William Harvey
|
|
The 1910 report that revolutionized medical education and established current system of education
|
Flexner report
|
|
First to use mecury in a thermometer to measure temperature
|
Gabriel Daneil Fahrenheit
|
|
Persian physician who gave first accurate description of measles and smallpox
|
Rhazes (Razi)
|
|
first to describe angina pectoris
|
heberden
|
|
Invented blood storage and the first blood bank; started Red closs blook bank; mobile blood stations in WWII
|
Charles Drew
|
|
Highest DO rank, commander WRAMC
|
LTG Ronald Blanck
|
|
1st true surgeon general, weather records, started library
|
Joseph Lovell
|
|
The first surgeon general of the air force; achievements included developing body armor to protect combat crews; devloping electrically heated clothing, device to protect gunners from windblast, etc.
|
Malcolm Grow
|
|
assistant army surgeon during the Apache wars who was the first Medal of Honor award winner (chronologically by date of action)
|
Bernard Irwin
|
|
American neurologist and surgeon general who founded the Army Medical museum and co-founded the American neurological Associatoin
|
William Hammond
|
|
Typhoid vaccine
|
MAJ Frederick Russell
|
|
first meningitis polysaccharide vaccine
|
MAJ Ronald Gold
|
|
Army nurse corps chief, 1st female general in Army history
|
Anna Hays
|
|
Promoted immediately after Anna Hays, the 2nd female general in Army history
|
Hoisington
|
|
This former Walter Reed and Tripler-based Army physician is credited with recognizing the entity of agammaglobulinemia most often seen in young boys
|
Ogden Bruton
|
|
Under the guidance of this former Army surgeon general, Army hospitals became training institutions for the first time in history by offering residency training programs to the career officer
|
Raymond Bliss
|
|
Preferred treatment for acute episodes of angioedema in hereditary angioedema
|
C1-INH (inhibitor) concentrate (accept danazol or stanzolol)
|
|
Complement level that typically remains low between attacks of hereditary angioedema
|
C4
|
|
3 rare but severe side effects of IVIG administration
|
anaphylaxis, volume overload, renal failure, aseptic meningitis
|
|
Patients with this immune deficiency should not receive IVIG
|
IgA deficiency
|
|
The MMR vaccine contains a small amount of this antibiotic
|
Neomycin (avoid MMR if patient is allergic to neomycin
|
|
Low IgM, high IgA and IgE
|
Wiskot-aldrich syndrome
|
|
Patient becomes pregnant despite daily OCPs
|
antibiotics, phentyoin, rifampin
|
|
Patient with elevated LDL and triglycerides develops rhabdomyolysis while taking simvastatin
|
Gemfibrozil
|
|
Patient with well treated hyperlipdemia, a-fib, and hypertension develops rhabdo while taking Zocor
|
Diltiazem or verapamil (Ca channel blocker)
|
|
Patient with GERD and anemia fails treaatment with Levaquin for their CAP
|
antacids, iron or Zn
|
|
Hypothyroid patient with heavy menses remains hypothyroid despite escalating her synthroid dose
|
iron, calcium
|
|
Aspirin MOA
|
irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor (platelets)
|
|
Plavix MOA
|
Inhibits binding of ADP to platelets
|
|
Integrillin (eptifibitide) MOA
|
blocks the GP Iia/IIIb platelet receptor
|
|
Heparin MOA
|
Antibthrombin III activator
|
|
This chemotherapy can cause auditory toxicity
|
Cisplatin
|
|
This chemotherapy can cause HUS
|
Mitomycin C
|
|
This cancer treatment can cause an ARDS like presentation
|
All trans retinoic acid
|
|
Lipid lowering agent that is least likely to interact with antiretrovirals
|
Pravastatin
|
|
This antiepileptic is structurally similar to TCAs |
Carbemazipine
|
|
Risk of giving pentamidine IV
|
Torsades des pointes
|
|
Dose limiting toxicity of vincristine
|
peripheral neuropathy
|
|
Treatment of TB with this medicine may aggravate gouty symptoms
|
Pyrazinamide
|
|
Estrogen found in most OCPs
|
Ethinyl estradiol
|
|
Androgen used in hereditary angioedema
|
Danazol
|
|
Overdose of this causes CNS depression, tachycardia, QT prolongation
|
TCA
|
|
AIDs medication that can cause bluish discoloration of the nails
|
AZT
|
|
Herbal antidote to deathcap mushrooms
|
Milk thistle
|
|
Nmbing sensation on tongue when taken orally
|
Echinacea
|
|
High doses can decrease blood levels of some anti-convulsants
|
Ginko biloba
|
|
Can cause premature contractions
|
Black cohosh
|
|
used for migraine treatment
|
Feverfew
|
|
Treatment for eczema or arthritis
|
Evening primrose
|
|
Urology medicine associated with pulmonary fibrosis
|
Nitrofurantoin
|
|
Gardasil
|
6/16/2018
|
|
indications for AoVR
|
1.) symptomatic AS, 2.) asx severe with LVEF <50%, 3.) asx severe with AoVA <0.6, gradient >60, jet >5 m/s or high likelihood of rapid progression, 4.) also c/w patients in mod-sev asx AoS undergoing CABG, valvular or Ao root surgery
|
|
natural progression for AS
|
"ASK (actually ASC) 532", angina 5yr mean survival, syncope 3yr mean survival, CHF 2 yr mean survival; typically 0.1cm per yr decrease in AoVA; follow with TTE q1-2y in mod, q3-5y in mild
|
|
medical Rx for AoS
|
HTN control, caution with diuresis, maintenance of NSR, statin, avoiding venodilators and negative ionotropes in more severe disease
|
|
hematologic abn a/w more severe AS
|
acquired von Willebrand disease (destruction of vWF by shear forces)
|
|
Class I recommendation for GXT
|
1. intermediate pretest probability of CHD 2. prognosis and managment of patients with prior CHD including stable angina or prior MI 3. Screen for CHD in high risk asymptomatic populations (not routine screening for DM or CKD) 4. Eval exercise capacity and response to therapy in heart transplant list patients 5. Assist in differentiation between cardiac and pulmonayry causes of dyspnea 6. Identify appropriate settings in patients with rate adaptive pacemakers 7. Eval patients with congenital complete heart block prior to sports/increased activity
|
|
Contraindications to GXT
|
1. Acute MI within last 2 days 2. Unstable angina 3. Uncontrolled arrhythmias causing symptoms/hemodynamic 4. Symptomatic severe AS 5. Uncontrolled symptomatic HF 6. Active endocarditis/myocarditis/pericarditis 7. Acute aortic dissection 8. Acute embolism 9. Acute noncardiac disorders that may affect exercise 10. Baseline ECG abnormalities including preexcitation, complete LBBB, more than 1 mm ST depression at rest, paced ventricular rhythm, use of digoxin
|
|
Positive exercise stress test
|
60 to 80 ms of 1mm or greater horizontal or downsloping ST depression or elevation (lead V5 most diagnostic) Others: 1. Poor exercise capacity (< 5 Mets) 2. exercise induced angina 3. Low peak systolic blood pressure (<130) or fall in blood pressure 4. Chonotropic incompetence 5. New S3
|
|
Absolute Fibronylitic Contraindications
|
1. any prior intracranial hemorrhage known structural cerebral vascular lesion (AVM) 2. Known malignant intracranial neoplasm Ischemic stroke within 3 months (except if within 3 hours) 4. Suspected aortic dissection 5. Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (not menses) 6. Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
|
|
Relative Fibrinolytic Contraindications
|
1. History of chronic, severe, poorly controlled HTN 2. Severe uncontrolled HTN on presentation (SBP > 180 or DBP > 110) 3. History of prior ischemic stroke > 3 months, dementia or known intracranial pathology 4. Traumatic or prolonged (>10 mintes) CPR or major surgery (<3weeks) 5. Recent (within 2-4 weeks) internal bleeding 6. Noncompressible vascular punctures 7. Pregnancy 8. Active peptic ulcer 9. Current use of anticoagulant (worse the higher the INR) For streptokinase/anistreplase: prior exposure (>5 days ago) or prior allergic rx to these agents
|
|
a |
a |
|
Venous waveform letters
|
a = atrial contraction c = closure of TV with early ventricular contraction - bulging of TV back into RA x = atrial relaxation, downard movement of ventricle during contraction v = venous filling against a closed valve y = opening of TV
|
|
Cardiac output
|
Q=SVxHR
|
|
O2 extraction ratio-
|
SaO2-SvO2/SaO2
|
|
O2 delivery-
|
Q x CaO2
|
|
FICKS equation for oxygen consumption
|
VO2 = Q(Ca -Cv) (volume of oxygen used = cardiac output (difference in oxygen content)
|
|
Oxygen content
|
(1.34 x HB x SaO2) + (0.0031 x PaO2)
|
|
Causes of Complete Heart Block
|
Medication Ischemia CNS - Cushing's reflex (increased intracranial pressure) Metabolic - Hyperkalemia (usually greater than 6.3) Hypo/hyperthyroid Infection - Lyme Rheum - SLE, dermatomyositis Sarcoid High Vagal tone Lenegre-Lev syndrome
|
|
The ejection fraction or systolic left ventricle internal diameter used as in indication for surgical intervention in severe mitral regurgitation
|
Left ventricular ejection fraction < 60% or left ventricular internal diameter in systole > 45 mm
|
|
amiodarone toxicity
|
1. CARDIAC: hypotension with rapid infusion, prolonged QT, torsades 2. NEUROLOGIC problems occur in 20-40%, including malaise, ataxia, and peripheral neuropathies 3. ENDOCRINE: hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism 4. GI problems occur in 25% 5. OPHTHALMOLOGIC disturbances include optic neuropathy, papilledema, and photosensitivity 6. SKIN: blue grey pigmentation 7. PULMONARY: pulmonary fibrosis
|
|
Indications for IE prophylaxis
|
1. Previous IE 2. Prosthetic heart valve 3. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease (including palliative shunts and conduits); 4. Completely repaired congenital heart defects with prosthetic material or device, whether placed by surgery or by percutaneous catheter intervention, during the six months after the procedure; 5. Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects at the site, or adjacent to the site, of a prosthetic patch or prosthetic device (which inhibit endothelialization); and 6. Previous cardiac transplantation with subsequent cardiac valvulopathy (substantial leaflet pathology and regurgitation).
|
|
HPV strongly associated with cervical cancer
|
16, 18, 31, 45
|
|
Vector for ehrlichiosis
|
HME - Ambyomma americanum, dermacentor variabilis HGA - Ixodes
|
|
Organism for spotless RMSF
|
Erhlichiosis chaffeensis - human monocytic erlichiosis Also: Anaplasma phagocytophilum - Human granulocytic anaplasmosis
|