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598 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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= chem. messenger w/ a specialized function
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hormone
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steroid hormones
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help control metabolism, inflam., imm. functions, salt & water balance, dev./ sex char's, & ability to withstand illness and injury
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anabolic steroids
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chemically related to the male sex hormone testosterone, hav been used illegally by athletes to incr. strength and muscle mass
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endocrinologist
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... diseases and malfunctions of the glands of internal secretion
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crin/o
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to secrete
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hypercrinism (hypo-)
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a condition caused by excessive secretion of any gland, esp. an endocrine gland (deficient secretion)
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pituitary gland
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located at the base of the brain just below the hypothalamus and is composed of anterior and posterior lobes
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hypothalamus
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(part of the brain); secretes neurohormones that enable it to communicate with other parts of the body
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adrenocorticotropic hormone (=)
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=adrenotropin: stimulates the growth and secretions of the adrenal cortex
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-tropin
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to stimulate
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follicle-stimulating hormone (=)
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= follitropin: in the female stimulates the secretion of estrogen and the growth of ova in the ovaries; in males, stimulates production of sperm in the testis
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growth hormone (=)
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= somatotropin: regulates the growth of bone, muscle, and other body tissues
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somat/o
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body
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lactogenic hormone (=)
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=prolactin: stimulates and maintains the secretion of breast milk after childbirth
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lact/o
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milk
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gen
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production
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interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (= x2)
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= luteinizing hormone or luteotropin: stimulates ovulation in the female; in male, stimulates secretion of testosterone
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melanocyte-stimulating hormone (=)
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= melanotropin: increases pigmentation of the skin
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thyroid-stimulating hormone (=)
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= thyrotropin: stimulates the growth and secretions of the thyroid gland
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antidiuretic hormone
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maintains the water balance within the body by promoting the reabsorption of water thru the kidneys
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oxytocin
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stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth
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oxy-
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swift
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-tocin
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labor
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acromegaly
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enlargement of the extremities caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone AFTER puberty
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acr/o
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extremities
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gigantism/ giantism
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abnormal overgrowth of the body caused by excessive secretion of the growth hormone BEFORE puberty
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hyperpituitarism
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pathology that results in the excessive secretion by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
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hypopituitarism
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a condition of reduced secretion due to the partial, or complete, loss of the function of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
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pituitarism
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any disorder of pituitary function
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pituitary adenoma
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a benign tumor of the pituitary gland that causes excess secretion of the adrenocorticotropic hormone
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prolactin-producing adenoma (=)
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= prolactinoma: a benign tumor of the pituitary gland that causes it to produce too much prolactin. Females= infertility & changes in menstruation. Males= impotence
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diabetes insipidus
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caused by insufficient production of the antidiuretic hormone or by the inability of the kidneys to respond to this hormone. Results in extreme polydipsia and polyuria
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human growth hormone therapy (=)
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=recombinant GH: a synthetic version of the growth hormone. Administered to stimulate growth when the natural supply of growth hormone is insufficient for normal development.
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thyroid gland
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(butterfly shaped): lies on either side of the larynx, just below the thyroid cartilage
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thyroxine & triiodothyronine
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(the 2 primary thyroid hormones): influence the rate of metabolism. Secretion of these is controlled by the thyroid-stimulating hormone
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calcitonin (=)
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=thyrocalcitonin: works w/ the parathyroid hormone to regulate calcium levels in the blood and tissues.
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Hashimoto's thyroiditis
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an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system mistakenly attacks thyroid tissue. This begins an inflammatory process that can cause goiter or hypothyroidism, or progressively destroy the gland
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hypothyroidism (=)
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= underactive thyroid: a deficiency of thyroid secretion. Symptoms= fatigue, depression, sensitivity to cold, decreased metabolic rate
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cretinism
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a congenital form of hypothyroidism. If not treated, causes arrested physical and mental development
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myxedema
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a severe form of adult hypothyroidism. Symptoms= enlarged tongue, puffiness of hands and face
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hyperthyroidism
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a condition of excessive thyroid hormones in the bloodstream. Symptoms= increased metabolic rate, sweating, nervousness, and weight loss
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thyrotoxicosis (=)
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=thyroid storm: a life-threatening condition resulting from the release of excessive quantities of the thyroid hormones into the bloodstream
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Graves' disease
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an autoimmune disorder that is a form of hyperthyroidism char'd by goiter and/or exophthalmos
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Goiter (=)
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=thyromegaly: an abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland that produces a swelling in the front of the neck
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exophthalmos
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abnormal protrusion of the eyes
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thyroid-stimulating hormone assay
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a diagnostic test to measure circulating blood levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone. Used to detect abnormal thyroid activity resulting from excessive pituitary stimulation
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thyroid scan
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measures thyroid function; is a form of nuclear medicine
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antithyroid drug
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a medication administered to slow the ability of the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones
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chemical thyroidectomy (=)
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=radioactive iodine therapy: the administration of radioactive iodine to destroy thyroid cells. Used to treat hyperthyroid disorders
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lobectomy
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the surgical removal of one lobe of the thyroid gland
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synthetic thyroid hormones
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administered to replace lost thyroid function
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parathyroid glands
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(4 ): each= about the size of a grain of rice: located within the thyroid gland
Regulates calcium levels throughout the body |
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parathyroid hormone (=)
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=parathormone: works w/ calcitonin to regulate calcium levels in the blood and tissues
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hypoparathyroidism
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caused by an insufficient or absent secretion of the parathyroid glands.
Usually accompanied by hypocalcemia... tetany |
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hypocalcemia
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char'd by abnormally low levels of calcium in the blood
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tetany
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char'd by periodic painful muscle spasms and tremors
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hyperparathyroidism
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the overproduction of the parathyroid hormone, PTH. Causes hypercalcemia that can lead to weakened bones and formation of kidney stones
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hypercalcemia
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char'd by abnormally high conc. of calcium circulating in the blood instead of being stored in the bones
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primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by:
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diseased parathyroid gland
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secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by:
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problem elsewhere in the body
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parathyroidectomy
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surgical removal of one or more of the parathyroid glands, performed to control hyperparathyroidism
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adrenal glands (=)
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=adrenals: located on top of each kidney
Controls electrolyte levels w/in the body |
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adrenal cortex
adrenal medulla |
-outer portion of the adrenal gland
-middle portion |
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electrolytes
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mineral substances, such as sodium and potassium, which are normally found in the blood
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corticosteroid
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name given to any of the steroid hormones produced by the adrenal cortex and to their synthetic equivalents (3 groups)
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mineralocorticoids
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regulate the mineral salts in the body. Primary one= aldosterone: increases sodium reabsorption in the kidneys
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glucocorticoids
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regulate the metabolism of carbs, fats, and proteins in the body. Also influence blood pressure and have an anti-inflammatory effect. Primary= cortisol (=hydrocortisone)
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gonadocorticoids (=)
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=androgens: hormones that influence sex-related characteristics
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epinephrine (= x2)
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adrenaline or norepinephrine: stimulate the sympathetic nervous system. Causes stimulation of heart rate and blood pressure
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Addison's disease
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condition that occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough of the hormones cortisol or aldosterone. Char'd by chronic, worsening fatigue and muscle weakness, loss of appetite, and weight loss
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aldosteronism
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an abnormality of electrolyte balance caused by excessive secretion of aldosterone
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Primary aldosteronism (=)
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=Conn's syndrome: aldosteronsim caused by disorders of the adrenal glands
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Secondary aldosteronism
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NOT caused by a disorder of the adrenal gland. Results from a disorder that occurs elsewhere in the body
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pheochromocytoma
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benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that causes the gland to produce excess epinephrine
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phe/o
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dusky
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chrom/o
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dark
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Cushing's syndrome (=)
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=hypercortisolism: caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol. Symptoms= "moon" face
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laparoscopic adrenalectomy
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minimally invasive procedure to surgically remove one or both adrenal glands
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cortisone (=)
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hydrocortisone: the synthetic equivalent of corticosteroids produced by the body. Administered to suppress infl. and as an immunosuppressant
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epinephrine
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synthetic hormone used as a vasoconstrictor to treat conditions such as heart dysrhythmias and asthma attacks
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pancreas
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feather-shaped; located posterior to the stomach. part of digestive system
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pancreatic islets (=)
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=islets of Langerhans: cells w/in the pancreas that have an endocrine function
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glucagon
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hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets in response to low blood sugar levels
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insulin
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secreted by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets in response to high blood sugar levels
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hyperglycemia
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abnormally high concentrations of glucose in the blood
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polydipsia
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excessive thirst
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-dipsia
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thirst
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polyphagia
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excessive hunger
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polyuria
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excessive urination
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hyperinsulinism
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condition marked by excessive secretion of insulin
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hypoglycemia
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abnormally low concentration of glucose in the blood
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glyc
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sugar
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insulinoma
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benign tumor of the pancreas that causes hypoglycemia
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diabetes mellitus
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a group of metabolic disorders char'd by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin secretion, insulin action, or both
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Type 1 diabetes (= x2)
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=insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus or juvenile diabetes: autoimmune insulin deficiency disorder; body does not secrete insulin; Symptoms: polydipsia, polyphagia, polyuria, weight loss, blurred vision, extreme fatigue, slow healing
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Type 2 diabetes (=)
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=non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus: an insulin resistance disoder: insulin is being produced, but body does not use it effectively. Symptoms: type 1 symptoms plus recurring infections, irritability, tingling sensations in hands/feet
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oral hypoglycemics
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lower blood sugar by causing the body to release more insulin
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glucophage
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(metaformin hydrochloride) and similar meds work w/in the cells to combat insulin resistance and to help insulin let blood sugar into the cells
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gestational diabetes mellitus
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form of diabetes that occurs during some pregnancies
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fasting blood sugar test
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measures glucose levels after the patient has not eaten for 8-12 hrs. Used to screen for, and to monitor treatment of, diabetes mellitus
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oral glucose tolerance test
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performed to confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and to aid in diagnosing hypoglycemia
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home blood glucose monitoring
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measures the current blood sugar level; performed by the patient
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fructosamine test
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measures the average glucose levels over the past 3 wks; is able to detect changes more rapidly than the HbA1c test
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Hemoglobin A1c testing (=)
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=HbA1c test; a blood test that measures the avg. blood glucose level over the previous 3-4 months. Used to evaluate how well blood sugar levels have been controlled during this time period. (also a screening test to detect diabetes mellitus
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insulin shock
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caused by very low blood sugar (hypoglycemia). A sugary substance that can quickly be absorbed into the bloodstream is administered to rapidly raise the blood sugar level
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diabetic coma (=)
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=diabetic ketoacidosis: caused by very high blood sugar (hyperglycemia); treated by the prompt administration of insulin
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heart disease
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occurs because excess blood sugar makes the walls of the blood vessels sticky and rigid. This encourages hypertension and atherosclerosis
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kidney disease
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may lead to renal failure bc damage to the blood vessel reduces blood flow thru the kidneys
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neuropathy
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damage to the nerves; when in hands/feet, causes pain, tingling, or numbness
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diabetic retinopathy
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occurs when diabetes damages the tiny blood vessels in the retina of the eye; can lead to blindness
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pancreatectomy
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surgical removal of pancreas; total pancreatectomy= removal of pancreas plus the attached organs (spleen, gallbladder, common bile duct, and portions of sm int. and stomach)
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thymus
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located near the midline in the anterior portion of the thoracic cavity (posterior to sternum and superior to heart)
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thymosin
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stimulates the maturation of lymphocytes into T cells of the immune system
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thymoma
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usually a benign tumor derived from the tissue of the thymus
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pineal gland
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very small and shaped something like a pine cone: located in the central portion of the brain
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melatonin
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hormone that influences the sleep and wakefulness portions of the circadian cycle
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gonads
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ovaries/testicles=the gamete-producing glands
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gamete
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a reproductive cell= sperm/ova
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gonadotropic hormone (=)
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=gonadotropin: any hormone that stimulates the gonads
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-tropin
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to stimulate
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puberty
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the condition of first being capable of reproducing sexually
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testosterone
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secreted by the testicles, stimulates the development of male secondary sex char's
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estrogen
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important in the development and maintainance of the female secondary sex char's and in regulation of the menstrual cycle
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progesterone
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the hormone released during the second half of the menstrual cycle by the corpus luteum in the ovary. Functions to complete the preparations for pregnancy
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placenta
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secretes the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (during pregnancy) to stimulate the corpus luteum to continue producing the hormones required to maintain the pregnancy (and lactation after childbirth)
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hypergonadism (hypo)
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the condition of excessive secretion of hormones by the sex glands (deficient)
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gonad (means)
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sex gland
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gynecomastia
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the condition of excessive mammary development in the male
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gynec/o
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female
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mast
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breast
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ACTH
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adrenocorticotropic hormone
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ADH
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antidiuretic hormone
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DM
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diabetes mellitus
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Epi, EPI
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epinephrine
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FBS
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fasting blood sugar
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FSH
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follicle-stimulating hormone
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GH
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growth hormone
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HBGM
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home blood glucose monitoring
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HCG
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human chorionic gonadotropin
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T3
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triiodothyronine
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T4
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thyroxine
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combining forms for penis
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pen/i, phall/i
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combining forms for testicles, testes
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orch/o, orchid/o, test/i, test/o, testicul/o
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combining forms for ovaries
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oophor/o, ovari/o
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combining forms for fallopian tubes
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salping/o
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combining forms for uterus
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hyster/o, metr/o, metri/o, uter/o
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combining forms for vagina
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vagin/o, colp/o
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combining forms for placenta
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placent/o
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genitalia
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reproductive organs
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perineum
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the external region of the area covering the pelvic floor
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scrotum
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encloses, protects, and supports the testicles
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testicles (=)
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=testes: the 2 small egg-shaped glands that produce the sperm, or spermatozoa
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seminiferous tubules
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sperm are formed within these, which are located with each testicle
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semen (=)
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=ejaculate: a whitish fluid containing the sperm and various secretions that is ejaculated from the penis upon sexual climax, or orgasm
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epididymis
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a coiled tube at the upper part of each testicle. It runs down the length of the testicle then turns upward into the body, where it becomes a narrower tube called the vas deferens
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glans penis
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a bulbous sensitive region located at the tip of the penis
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prepuce (=)
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=foreskin: covers and protects the glans penis; often removed soon after birth
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vas deferens
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the long, narrow continuation of each epididymis that leads that leads upward to the ejaculatory duct in the prostate gland
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seminal vesicles
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glands located at the base of the urinary bladder; these open into the vas deferens as it joins the urethra
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ejaculatory duct
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one of the two final portions of the seminal vesicles; formed by the union of the ductus deferens and the duct from the seminal vesicle, passes thru the prostate gland and enters the urethra
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prostate gland
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lies under the bladder and surrounds the upper end of the urethra in the region where the vas deferens enters the urethra
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bulbourethral glands (=)
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=Cowper's glands: located on either side of the urethra just below the prostate gland; their ducts open into the urethra; add an alkaline secretion to the semen that helps the sperm survive in the female reproductive tract
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sperm (=)
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male gametes; =spermatozoa: formed in the seminiferous tubules of the testicles
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gamete
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a reproductive cell
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urologist
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specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the urinary system of females and the genitourinary system of males
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balanitis
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inflammation of the glans penis and the foreskin often associated with phimosis
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balan
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glans penis
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phimosis
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a narrowing of the opening of the foreskin so it cannot be retracted to expose the glans penis
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impotence (=)
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=erectile dysfunction: the inability of the male to achieve or maintain a penile erection.
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premature ejaculation
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a condition in which the male reaches climax too soon, usually before, or shortly after, penetration
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anorchism
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the congenital absence of one or both testicles
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cryptorchidism (=)
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=undescended testis: a developmental defect in which one or both of the testicles fail to descend into the scrotum
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crypt/o
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hidden
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epididymitis (=)
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=epididymo-orchitis: inflammation of the epididymis
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hydrocele
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a fluid-filled sac in the scrotum along the spermatic cord leading from the testicles
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testicular cancer
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usually develops in the sperm-producing structures of the testis and is curable when discovered at an early stage.
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testitis (=)
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orchitis: inflammation of one or both testicles
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torsion of the testis
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a sharp pain in the scrotum brought on by twisting of the vas deferens and blood vessels leading into the testicle
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varicocele
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a knot of varicose veins in one side of the scrotum
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priapism
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a painful erection, lasting 4 or more hours, that is not accompanied by sexual excitement. Can be caused by blood-related diseases such as sickle-cell anemia or leukemia, or by medications
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azoospermia
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the absence of sperm in the semen
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zoo
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life
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low sperm count (=)
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=oligospermia: an abnormally low number of sperm in the semen
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benign prostatic hypertrophy (=)
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=prostatomegaly or enlarged prostate: an abnormal enlargement of the prostate gland often found in men over 50; may make urination difficult
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prostate cancer
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one of the most common cancers among men. May grow slowly with no symptoms, or it may grow aggressively and spread throughout the body
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prostate-specific antigen (=)
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used to screen for prostate cancer. =P-S-A test: measures the amount of prostate-specific antigen that is present in a blood specimen
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digital rectal examination
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performed in men to screen for prostate enlargement and indications of prostate cancer
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sperm analysis (=)
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=sperm count: the testing of freshly ejaculated semen to determine the volume plus the number, shape, size, and motility of the sperm
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testicular self-examination
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an important self-help step in early detection of testicular cancer, which may be indicated by lumps, swelling, or changes in the skin of the scrotum
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circumcision
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surgical removal of the foreskin of the penis and is usually performed a few days after birth
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orchidectomy (=)
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orchiectomy: surgical removal of one or both testicles
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varicocelectomy
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removal of a portion of an enlarged vein to relieve a varicocele
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sterilization
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any procedure rendering an individual incapable of reproduction
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castration (=)
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=bilateral orchidectomy: surgical removal or destruction of both testicles
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vasectomy
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male sterilization procedure in which a small portion of the vas deferens is surgically removed
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vasovasostomy (=)
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vasectomy reversal: procedure performed as an attempt to restore fertility to a vasectomized male
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ablation
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removal of a body part or the destruction of its function. May involve surgery, chemical destruction, electrocautery, extreme cold, or radiation
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prostatectomy
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surgical removal of all or part of the prostate gland
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radiation therapy or hormone therapy
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additional treatments used to control prostate cancer
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sexually transmitted diseases (=)
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=venereal diseases: can affect both males and females; transmitted thru sexual intercourse
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chlamydia
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caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis; the most common STD (may cause sterility in females
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bacterial vaginosis
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sexually transmitted bacterial infection of the vagina that may cause complications during pregnancy and an increased risk of HIV infection
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genital herpes
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caused by herpes simplex virus type 2; highly contagious; symptoms include itching or burning before the appearance of lesions (sores)
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gonorrhea
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caused by bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae; highly contagious, char'd by painful urination and an abnormal discharge from the penis or vagina
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human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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transmitted thru exposure to infected body fluids, particularly thru sexual intercourse with an infected partner
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genital warts
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caused by chronic infection by the human papilloma virus; are highly contagious, and increase the risk of cervical cancer
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syphilis
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caused by bacterium Treponema pallidum: highly contagious and can be fatal if not treated
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trichomonas (=)
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=trich: caused by the protozoan parasite Trichomonas vaginalis; causes a vaginal inflammation in the female and occasionally a urethral inflammation in the male
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vulva (=)
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=pudendum: female external genitalia; consists of the labia, clitoris,Bartholin's glands, and vaginal opening
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mons pubis
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a rounded fleshy prominence over the pubic sympysis
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clitoris
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an organ of sensitive erectile tissue located anterior to the urethral meatus and the vaginal orifice
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Bartholin's glands
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two small, rounded glands on either side of the vaginal opening that produce a mucus secretion to lubricate the vagina
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perineum
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the region between the thighs that extends b/t the vaginal orifice and the anus
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areola
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dark-pigmented area that surrounds the nipple
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mammary glands (=)
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=lactiferous glands: the milk-producing glands that develop during puberty
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lactiferous ducts (=)
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=milk ducts: carry milk from the mammary glands to the nipple
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-iferous
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carrying
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ovaries
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a pair of small almond-shaped organs located in the lower abdomen, one on either side of the uterus
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follicle
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a fluid-filled sac containing a single ovum (egg). There are thousands of these sacs on the inside surface of the ovaries
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ova
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eggs: the female gametes. the immature ova are present at birth; after a girl reaches puberty, normally one ovum matures and is released each month
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fallopian tubes (=)
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=oviducts: carry the ovum downward from the ovary to the uterus; also carry sperm upward from the vagina and uterus; Each tube extends from the upper end of the uterus to a point near but not attached to an ovary
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infundibulum
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the funnel-shaped opening into each fallopian tube
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fimbriae
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the fringed finger-like extensions of the opening of the infundibulum that catches the ovum when it leaves the ovary
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fimri
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fringe
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uterus (=)
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=womb: a pear-shaped organ with muscular walls and a mucous membrane lining filled with a rich supply of blood vessels
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anteflexion
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the normal position of the uterus: the body is bent forward
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fundus
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the bulging rounded part of the uterus above the entrance of the fallopian tubes
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corpus
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the body of the uterus; the middle portion
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cervix (=)
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=cervix uteri: the lower narrow portion that extends into the vagina
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perimetrium
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the tough membrane outer layer
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metri (means)
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uterus
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myometrium
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the muscular middle layer
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endometrium
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the inner layer, which consists of specialized epithelial mucosa rich in blood vessels
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myometrium
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the muscular middle layer of the uterus
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endometrium
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the inner layer, which consists of specialized epithelial mucosa rich in blood vessels
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vagina
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a muscular tube lined with mucosa that extends from the cervix to the outside of the body
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hymen
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a membrane that partly covers the external vaginal orifice
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menstruation (=)
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=menses: the normal periodic discharge of the endometrial lining and unfertilized egg from the uterus
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menarche
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the beginning of the menstrual function, which occurs during puberty
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men/o
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menstruation
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-arche
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beginning
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menopause
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the normal stopping of the monthly menstrual periods
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perimenopause
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the term used to designate the transition phase between regular menstrual periods and no periods at all
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gynecologist
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specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the female reproductive system
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menstrual phase
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the days when the endometrial lining of the uterus is sloughed off and discharged thru the vagina as the menstrual flow
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postmenstrual phase
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after the menstrual period, estrogen secreted by the ovary stimulates the lining of the uterus to prepare itself to receive a zygote (fertilized egg)
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ovulatory phase
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on about the 13th or 14th day of the cycle, a mature ovum is released. When ovulation occurs, the egg leaves the ovary to travel slowly down the fallopian tube. During this time, the female is fertile and can become pregnant.
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premenstrual phase
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if fertilization does not occur, hormone levels change to cause the breakdown of the uterine endometrium and the beginning of a new menstrual cycle
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anovulation
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the failure to ovulate. menstruation can continue, although ovulation does not occur
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oophoritis
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inflammation of an ovary
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oophor/o
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ovary
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ovarian cancer
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originates within the cells of the ovaries. the 3rd most common cancer of the female reproductive system; however, more women die of it than from other forms
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polycystic ovary syndrome (=)
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=Stein-Leventhal syndrome: char'd by enlargement of the ovaries caused by the presence of many cysts formed by incompletely developed follicles; due to a hormone inbalance; may cause infertility, menstrual abnormalities, and the development of secondary male char's
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ovariorrhexis
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rupture of an ovary
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pelvic inflammatory disease
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any inflammation of the female reproductive organs not associated with surgery or pregnancy; frequently occurs as a complication of an STD, can lead to infertility, tubal pregnancy, and other serious disorders
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pyosalpinx
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an accumulation of pus in the fallopian tube
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salpingitis
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inflammation of a fallopian tube
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endometriosis
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condition in which patches of endometrial tissue escape the uterus and become attached to other structures in the pelvic cavity, such as the ovaries
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fibroid (=)
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=leiomyoma: a benign tumor composed of muscle and fibrous tissue that occurs in the wall of the uterus
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metrorrhea
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an abnormal discharge, such as mucus or pus, from the uterus
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uterine prolapse (=)
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=pelvic floor hernia: the condition in which the uterus sags from its normal position and moves part way, or all the way, into the vagina; usually occurs after menopause, when reduced hormone levels weaken the ligaments
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uterine cancer
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occurs most commonly after menopause. One of the earliest symptoms is abnormal bleeding from the uterus
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cervical cancer
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the 2nd most common cancer in women and usually affects women b/t the ages 45 and 65. can be detected early thru routine Pap tests
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cervical dysplasia (=)
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=precancerous lesions: the abnormal growth of cells of the cervix that may be detected on a Pap smear. May become malignant
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endocervicitis
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inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the cervix
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colporrhexis
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laceration (tearing) of the vaginal walls
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leukorrhea
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a profuse whitish mucus discharge from the uterus and vagina
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vaginal candidiasis (=)
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=vaginal thrush or yeast infection: results from the yeast fungus Candida albicans, often exists in the vagina, suddenly being allowed to grow rapidly, unimpeded by the bacteria that usually keeps it in check. Symptoms include burning, itching, and a "cottage cheese-like" vaginal discharge
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vaginitis (=)
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=colpitis: an inflammation of the lining of the vagina; most common causes are bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, and vaginal candidiasis
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pruritus vulvae
|
a condition of severe itching of the external female genitalia
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vulvodynia
|
a nonspecific syndrome of unknown cause char'd by chronic burning, pain during sex, itching, or stinging irritation of the vulva
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vulvitis
|
inflammation of the vulva; causes include fungal or bacterial infections, chafing, skin conditions, or allergies to products such as soaps and bubble bath
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fibrocystic breast disease
|
the presence of single or multiple cysts in the breasts that are usually benign
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fibroadenomas (=)
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=fibrous breast lumps: small, benign lumps of fibrous and glandular tissue
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galactorrhea
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the production of breast milk in women who are not breast feeding, due to a malfunction of the thyroid or pituitary gland
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galact/o
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milk
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mastalgia (=)
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=mastodynia: pain in the breast, for ex., during the menstrual cycle
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mastitis
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an inflammation of one or both breasts; usually associated with the infection of a blocked milk duct during lactation
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amenorrhea
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an absence of menstrual periods for 3 or more months; normal only before puberty, during pregnancy, while breast-feeding, and after menopause
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dysmenorrhea
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abdominal pain caused by uterine cramps during a menstrual period
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hypomenorrhea
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a small amount of menstrual flow during a shortened regular menstrual period
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menorrhagia (=)
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=hypermenorrhea: an excessive amount of menstrual flow or flow over a period of more than 7 days
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menometrorrhagia
|
excessive uterine bleeding occurring both during the menses and at irregular intervals between periods
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oligomenorrhea
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light or infrequent menstrual flow
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polymenorrhea
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abnormally frequent menstruation
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premature menopause
|
condition in which the ovaries cease functioning before age 40, causing infertility and often bringing on menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes and mood swings
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premenstrual syndrome
|
a group of symptoms experienced by some women within the 2-week period before menstruation, possibly including bloating, edema, headaches, mood swings, and breast discomfort
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premenstrual dysphoric disorder
|
condition associated with severe emotional and physical problems linked to the menstrual cycle
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colposcopy
|
the direct visual examination of the tissues of the cervix and vagina using a binocular magnifier called a colposcope
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endometrial biopsy
|
a diagnostic test in which a small amount of the tissue lining the uterus is removed for microscopic examination, usually to determine the cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding
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endovaginal ultrasound
|
a diagnostic test to determine the cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding with the use of an ultrasound transducer that is placed into the vagina so that the sound waves can create images of the uterus and ovaries
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hysterosalpingography
|
a radiographic examination of the uterus and fallopian tubes following the instillation of radiopaque material into the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes
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hysteroscopy
|
the direct visual examination of the interior of the uterus and fallopian tubes using the magnification of a hysteroscope
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Papanicolaou test (=)
|
=Pap smear: an exfoliative biopsy for the detection of conditions that may be early indicators of cervical cancer
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ultrasound and laparoscopy
|
used to diagnose disorders of the reproductive system
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breast self-examination
|
an important self-care procedure for the early detection of breast cancer; checking for any new lump, or a change in an existing lump, nipple shape, or the skin over the breast
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mammography
|
a radiographic examination of the breasts to detect the presence of tumors or precancerous cells
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contraceptive
|
a measure taken or device used to lessen the likelihood of conception and pregnancy
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intrauterine device (abbrev.)
|
=IUD: a molded plastic contraceptive inserted thru the cervix into the uterus
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hormone replacement therapy
|
used when required to replace the estrogen and progesterone that are no longer produced during perimenopause and after menopause
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ovariectomy (=)
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=oophorectomy: surgical removal of an ovary
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salpingectomy
|
surgical removal of a fallopian tube
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salpingo-oophorectomy
|
surgical removal of a fallopian tube and ovary
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tubal ligation
|
surgical procedure performed for purpose of female sterilization. Each fallopian tube is ligated and a secretion is removed to prevent the sperm from reaching the ovum
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colpopexy
|
surgical fixation of the vagina to a surrounding structure. Performed to repair a uterine prolapse
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conization (=)
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=cone biopsy: the surgical removal of a cone-shaped section of tissue from the cervix. May be performed as a diagnostic procedure or to remove an abnormal area
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colporrhaphy
|
the surgical suturing of a tear in the vagina
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dilation and curettage (abbrev.)
|
D & C: the expansion of the opening of the cervix and the removal of material from the surface of the uterus. May be performed as a diagnostic or treatment procedure
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hysterectomy
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surgical removal of the uterus that may, or may not, include removal of the cervix
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bilateral hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy
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the surgical removal of the uterus and cervix, plus both fallopian tubes and ovaries
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mammoplasty/mammaplasty
|
the surgical repair or restructuring of the breast
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breast augmentation
|
mammoplasty that is performed to increase breast size
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breast reduction
|
mammoplasty performed to decrease and reshape excessively large, heavy breasts
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mastopexy
|
surgery to affix sagging breasts in a more elevated position
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ovulation
|
the release of a mature egg from the follicle on the surface of the ovary
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corpus luteum
|
secretes the hormone progesterone during the second half of the menstrual cycle. This maintains the growth of the uterine lining in preparation for the fertilized egg
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coitus (=)
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=copulation or sexual intercourse: the male ejaculates approximately 100 million sperm cells into the female's vagina.
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fertilization (=)
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conception: when a sperm penetrates the descending ovum and a new life begins
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zygote
|
single cell formed by the union of the sperm and egg
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implantation
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the embedding of the zygote into the lining of the uterus
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embryo
|
the developing child from implantation thru the 8th week of pregnancy
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fetus
|
the developing child from the 9th week of pregnancy to the time of birth
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fraternal twins
|
result from the fertilization of separate ova by separate sperm cells. these develop into 2 separate embryos
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multiple births
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beyond twins; are almost always fraternal
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identical twins
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formed from the fertilization of a single egg cell by a single sperm. As the fertilized egg cell divides, it separates into 2 parts, with each part forming a separate embryo
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chorion
|
the thin outer membrane that encloses the embryo. This contributes to the formation of the placenta
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placenta
|
a temporary organ that forms within the uterus to allow the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the mother and fetus without allowing maternal blood and fetal blood to mix. Also produces hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy.
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afterbirth
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the placenta tha is expelled at delivery
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amniotic sac (=)
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amnion or bag of waters: the innermost of the membranes that surround the embryo in the uterus and form the amniotic cavity
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amnionic fluid (=)
|
=amnionic fluid: the liquid in which the fetus floats and is protected
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umbilical cord
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the structure that connects the fetus to the placenta
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navel (=)
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belly button: formed where the umbilical cord was attached to the fetus
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cord blood
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the blood present in the umbilical cord and placenta at the time of birth, is rich in stem cells
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gestation
|
lasts approximately 280 days, the period of development of the child in the mother's uterus
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pregnancy
|
=gestation: the condition of having a developing child in the uterus
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trimesters
|
3 months each (3 total), time that divides the 40 weeks of gestation
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due date (=)
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=estimated date of confinement; calculated from the 1st day of the last menstrual period
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quickening
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the 1st movement of the fetus felt in the uterus. Usually occurs during the 16th to 20th week of pregnancy
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viable
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describes the fetus when it is capable of living outside the mother. Depends on the developmental age, birth weight and developmental stage of the lungs of the fetus
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nulligravida
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a woman who has never been pregnant
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-gravida
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pregnant
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primigravida (=)
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a woman during her 1st pregnancy =Gravida I
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nullipara
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a woman who has never borne a viable child
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-para
|
to bring forth
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primipara
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a woman who has borne one viable child
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multiparous
|
a woman who has given birth 2 or more times
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antepartum
|
refers to the final stage of pregnancy, right before the onset of labor
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Braxton Hicks contractions
|
intermittent painless uterine contractions that are not true labor pains
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parturition (=)
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=labor and childbirth: the act of giving birth
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Labor & Delivery (abrrev.)
|
=L & D: occur in 3 stages: dilation, the delivery of the baby, and the expulsion of the placenta and membranes
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postpartum
|
after childbirth
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puerperium
|
the period of 3-6 weeks after childbirth before the uterus returns to its normal size
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uterine involution
|
the return of the uterus to its normal size and former condition
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colostrum
|
the fluid secreted by the breasts during the 1st days postpartum. This fluid is rich in antibodies and confers passive immunity to the newborn
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lactation
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the process of forming and secreting milk from the breasts as nourishment for the infant
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lochia
|
the vaginal discharge during the 1st week or 2 after childbirth. It consists of blood, tissue, and mucus
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loch
|
childbirth
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neonate
|
the newborn infant during the 1st 4 weeks after birth
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vernix
|
a greasy substance that protects the fetus in utero and may still be present at birth
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meconium
|
a greenish material that collects in the intestine of a fetus and forms the first stools of a newborn
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infertility
|
the inability of a couple to achieve pregnancy after one year of regular, unprotected intercourse, or the inability of a woman to carry a pregnancy to a live birth
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obstetrician
|
specializes in providing medical care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and immediately thereafter
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neonatologist
|
specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the newborn
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neo-
|
new
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nat/o
|
born
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pediatrician
|
specializes in diagnosing, treating, and preventing disorders and diseases of children
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ped
|
child
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abortion
|
the interruption or termination of pregnancy before the fetus is viable
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ectopic pregnancy (=)
|
=extrauterine pregnancy: a potentially dangerous condition in which a fertilized egg is implanted and begins to develop outside of the uterus
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preeclampsia (=)
|
=pregnancy-induced hypertension or toxemia: a complication of pregnancy char'd by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria
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eclampsia
|
a more serious form of preeclampsia, is char'd by convulsions and sometimes coma
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abruptio placentae
|
an abnormal condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely before the birth of the fetus
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breech presentation
|
when the buttocks or feet of the fetus are presented first instead of the head
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placenta previa
|
the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the lower portion of the uterus. Symptoms include painless sudden-onset bleeding during the 3rd trimester
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premature infant (=)
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=preemie: a neonate born before the 37th week of gestation
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stillbirth
|
the birth of a fetus that died before, or during, delivery
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pregnancy test
|
performed on either a blood or urine specimen to determine the level of the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone. An usually high level=+
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fetal ultrasound
|
a noninvasive procedure used to image and evaluate fetal development
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first trimester screening
|
a noninvasive blood test that, combined with a detailed ultrasound, can be performed as early as 11 weeks into a pregnancy to detect Down syndrome
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chorionic villus sampling
|
the examination of chorionic cells retrieved from the edge of the placenta between the 8th & 10th weeks of pregnancy. Are used to test for genetic abnormalities in the developing child
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amniocentesis
|
a surgical puncture with a needle to obtain a specimen of amniotic fluid; obtained after the 14th week, is used to evaluate fetal health and to diagnose certain congenital disorders
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pelvimetry
|
a radiographic study to measure the dimensions of the pelvis to evaluate its capacity to allow passage of the fetus thru the birth canal
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fetal monitoring
|
the use of an electronic device to record the fetal heart rate and the maternal uterine contractions during labor.
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Apgar score
|
an evaluation of a newborn infant's physical status by assigning numerical values (0-2) to each of 5 criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, response stimulation and skin color
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cesarean section (=)
|
=cesarean delivery or C-section: the delivery of the child thru an incision in the maternal abdominal and uterine walls
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episiotomy
|
a surgical incision of the perineum and vagina to facilitate delivery and prevent laceration of the tissues
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episi
|
vulva
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episiorrhaphy
|
the surgical suturing to repair an episiotomy
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HCG
|
human chorionic gonadotropin
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ED
|
erectile dysfunction
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EDC
|
estimated date of confinement
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HRT
|
hormone replacement therapy
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HPV
|
human papilloma virus
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HSV-2
|
herpes simplex virus type 2
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L & D
|
labor and delivery
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LMP
|
last menstrual period
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PID
|
pelvic inflammatory disease
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PIH
|
pregnancy-induced hypertension
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PSA
|
prostate-specific antigen
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STD
|
sexually transmitted disease
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TSE
|
testicular self-examination
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VD
|
venereal disease
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zyg
|
zygote
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assessment
|
the evaluation or appraisal of a condition
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oral
|
in the mouth
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aural
|
in the ear
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axillary
|
under the arm
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hypothermia
|
an abnormally low body temp.
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hyperthermia
|
an extremely high fever
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pulse
|
the rhythmic pressure against the walls of an artery caused by the contraction of the heart
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bpm
|
pulse rate reflects the number of times the heart beats each minute and is recorded as this
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respirations (=)
|
=respiratory rate: the number of complete respirations per minute
|
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T
|
temperature
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P
|
pulse
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RR
|
respiratory rate
|
|
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BP
|
blood pressure
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|
sphygmomanometer
|
this and a stethoscope are used to measure BP
|
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|
blood pressure
|
recorded with the systolic (1st beat heard) over the diastolic (last beat heard) reading
|
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pain
|
considered to be the 5th vital sign in certain settings, is a subjective symptom and cannot be measured objectively
|
|
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pain verbal rating scale
|
patient is asked to measure his or her pain on a scale of 1 to 10 with 10 being unbearable pain and 1 being little or no pain
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|
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auscultation
|
listening thru a stethoscope for respiratory, heart, and abdominal sounds within the body
|
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|
auscult/a
|
to listen
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|
|
rale (=)
|
crackle: an abnormal rattle or crackle-like respiratory sound heard during inspiration
|
|
|
rhoncus (=)
|
=wheezing: an added musical sound occurring during inspiration or expiration that is caused by a partially obstructed airway
|
|
|
stridor
|
an abnormal, high-pitched, harsh or crowing sound heard during inspiration that results from a partial blockage of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea
|
|
|
lubb sound
|
heard first; caused by the tricuspid and mitral valves closing between the atria and the ventricles
|
|
|
dupp sound
|
shorter and higher pitched, heard second; caused by the closing of the semilunar valves in the aorta and pulmonary arteries as blood is pumped out of the heart
|
|
|
bruit
|
an abnormal intermittent musical sound heard in auscultation of a vein or artery. This sound may be heard as blood flows thru a partially blocked carotid artery or as blood flows thru an aneurysm
|
|
|
heart murmur
|
a swishing or a whistling sound that may be heard in addition to the normal sounds. Can be harmless or an indication of a septal or a valvular problem
|
|
|
palpation
|
an examination technique in which the examiner's hands are used to feel the texture, size, consistency, and location of certain body parts
|
|
|
percussion
|
a diagnostic procedure to determine the density of a body area that uses the sound produced by tapping the surface with the finger or an instrument
|
|
|
ophthalmoscope
|
used to examine the interior of the eye
|
|
|
PERRLA
|
Pupils are Equal, Round, Responsive to Light and Accomodation. is a diagnostic observation; any abnormality might indicate a head injury or damage to the brain
|
|
|
otoscope
|
used to visually examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane
|
|
|
speculum
|
used to enlarge the opening of any canal or cavity to facilitate inspection of its interior
|
|
|
stethoscope
|
used to listen to sounds within the body and during the measurement of blood pressure
|
|
|
steth/o
|
chest
|
|
|
recumbent
|
any position in which the patient is lying down on the back, front, or side
|
|
|
decubitus
|
the act of lying down or the position assumed in lying down; in radiography, describes the position of the patient when lying in a recumbent position
|
|
|
prone position
|
lying on the belly with the face down
|
|
|
supine position (=)
|
=horizontal recumbent position: lying on the back with the face up
|
|
|
dorsal recumbent position
|
supine (lying on back), with knees bent
|
|
|
Sims' position
|
patient is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up and with the left arm placed along the back
|
|
|
knee-chest position
|
patient is lying face down with the hips flexed (bent) so the knees and chest rest on the table. Used for rectal examinations
|
|
|
lithotomy position
|
patient is supine with the feet and legs raised and supported in stirrups
|
|
|
Trendelenburg position
|
patient is lying on the back with the pelvis higher than the head with the knees slightly bent and the legs hanging off the end of the table
|
|
|
stat
|
immediately
|
|
|
profile
|
tests that are frequently performed as a group on automated multichannel laboratory testing equipment
|
|
|
phlebotomy (=)
|
=venipuncture: the puncture of a vein for the purpose of drawing blood
|
|
|
capillary puncture
|
technique used when only a small amount of blood is needed as a specimen for a blood test
|
|
|
complete blood cell count
|
a series of tests performed as a group to evaluate several blood conditions
|
|
|
ESR (& meaning)
|
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate or sed rate: a test based on the rate at which the red blood cells separate from the plasma and settle to the bottom of the container; elevated sed rate= inflammation in the body
|
|
|
HCT (& meaning)
|
hematocrit test: measures the percentage, by volume, of packed red blood cells in a whole blood sample
|
|
|
-crit
|
to separate
|
|
|
PLC (& meaning)
|
platelet count: measures the number of platelets in a specified amount of blood, is a screening test to evaluate platelet function
|
|
|
RBC (& meaning)
|
red blood cell count: a determination of the number of erythrocytes in the blood.
|
|
|
Hb (& meaning)
|
total hemoglobin test: the amount of hemoglobin found in whole blood
|
|
|
-globin
|
protein
|
|
|
WBC (& meaning)
|
white blood cell count: a determination of the number of leukocytes in the blood. Elevation=infection or inflammation
|
|
|
white blood cell differential test
|
determines what percentage of the total count is composed of each of the five types of leukocyte
|
|
|
agglutination tests
|
blood tests that involve the clumping together of cells or particles when mixed with incompatible serum
|
|
|
BUN (& meaning)
|
blood urea nitrogen: the amount of urea present in the blood.
|
|
|
CRP (& meaning)
|
C-reactive protein: a blood test that detects coronary-artery inflammation that could signal an increased risk of heart attack
|
|
|
Lipid tests (=)
|
=lipid panel: measure the amounts of total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein, low-density lipoprotein, and triglycerides in a blood sample
|
|
|
prothrombin time (=)
|
=pro time: a test used to diagnose conditions associated with abnormal bleeding and to monitor anticoagulant therapy
|
|
|
serum enzyme tests
|
used to measure the blood enzymes. Useful as evidence of a myocardial infarction
|
|
|
serum bilirubin test
|
measures how well red blood cells are being broken down. Elevated tests may indicate liver problems or gallstones
|
|
|
thyroid-stimulating hormone assay
|
measures circulating blood levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone that may indicate abnormal thyroid activity
|
|
|
urinalysis
|
the examination of the physical and chemical properties of urine to determine the presence of abnormal elements
|
|
|
routine urinalysis
|
performed to screen for urinary and systemic disorders; utilizes a dipstick
|
|
|
dipstick
|
a plastic strip impregnated with chemicals that react with substances in the urine and change color when abnormalities are present
|
|
|
microscopic examination
|
performed when more detailed testing of the specimen is necessary (for ex. to identify casts)
|
|
|
casts
|
fibrous or protein materials (such as pus or fats) that are thrown off into the urine in kidney disease
|
|
|
pH
|
describes the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a substance; normal pH range of urine= 4.5 - 8.0
|
|
|
specific gravity
|
(of urine) reflects the amount of wastes, minerals, and solids that are present
|
|
|
low specific gravity
|
dilute urine; characteristic of diabetes insipidus
|
|
|
high specific gravity
|
concentrated urine; occurs in conditions such as dehydration, liver failure, and shock
|
|
|
acetone
|
has a fruity odor, is found in small quantities in normal urine and in larger amounts in diabetic urine
|
|
|
albuminuria
|
the presence of the protein albumin in the urine and is a sign of impaired kidney function
|
|
|
bacteriuria
|
the presence of bacteria in the urine
|
|
|
calciuria
|
the presence of calcium in the urine
|
|
|
creatinuria
|
an increased concentration of creatine in the urine; increased levels indicate increased muscle breakdown or a disruption of kidney function
|
|
|
drug screening
|
urine test that is a rapid method of identifying the presence in the body of one or more abuse drugs such as cocaine, heroin, and marijuana
|
|
|
glycosuria
|
the presence of glucose in the urine, most commonly caused by diabetes
|
|
|
hematuria
|
the presence of blood in the urine; may be caused by kidney stones, infection, damage to the kidney, or bladder cancer
|
|
|
gross hematuria
|
the urine may look pink, brown, or bright red, and the presence of blood can be detected without magnification
|
|
|
microscopic hematuria
|
the urine is clear, but blood cells can be seen under a microscope
|
|
|
ketonuria
|
the presence of ketones in the urine (ketones are formed when the body breaks down fat; their presence in urine may indicate starvation or uncontrolled diabetes
|
|
|
proteinuria
|
the presence of an abnormal amount of protein in the urine, is usually a sign of kidney disease
|
|
|
pyuria
|
the presence of pus in the urine
|
|
|
urine culture and sensitivity
|
an additional lab test to identify the cause of a urinary tract infection and to determine which antibiotic would be the most effective treatment
|
|
|
endoscopy
|
the visual examination of the interior of a body cavity
|
|
|
endoscopic surgery
|
a surgical procedure that is performed thru very small incisions with the use of an endoscope
|
|
|
endoscope
|
the fiber optic instrument that is used for endoscopy and is named for the body parts involved
|
|
|
laparoscopy
|
the visual examination of the interior of the abdomen with the use of a laparoscope passed thru the abdominal wall
|
|
|
lapar/o
|
abdomen
|
|
|
arthrocentesis
|
surgical puncture of the joint space to remove synovial fluid for analysis to determine the cause of pain or swelling in a joint
|
|
|
ketonuria
|
the presence of ketones in the urine (ketones are formed when the body breaks down fat; their presence in urine may indicate starvation or uncontrolled diabetes
|
|
|
proteinuria
|
the presence of an abnormal amount of protein in the urine, is usually a sign of kidney disease
|
|
|
pyuria
|
the presence of pus in the urine
|
|
|
urine culture and sensitivity
|
an additional lab test to identify the cause of a urinary tract infection and to determine which antibiotic would be the most effective treatment
|
|
|
endoscopy
|
the visual examination of the interior of a body cavity
|
|
|
endoscopic surgery
|
a surgical procedure that is performed thru very small incisions with the use of an endoscope
|
|
|
endoscope
|
the fiber optic instrument that is used for endoscopy and is named for the body parts involved
|
|
|
laparoscopy
|
the visual examination of the interior of the abdomen with the use of a laparoscope passed thru the abdominal wall
|
|
|
lapar/o
|
abdomen
|
|
|
arthrocentesis
|
surgical puncture of the joint space to remove synovial fluid for analysis to determine the cause of pain or swelling in a joint
|
|
|
radiographic contrast medium
|
substance used to make visible structures that are otherwise hard to see
|
|
|
radiopaque contrast medium
|
such as barium, does not allow x-rays to pass thru and appears white or light gray on the resulting film
|
|
|
radiolucent contrast medium
|
such as air or nitrogen gas, does allow x-rays to pass thru and appears black or dark gray on the resulting film
|
|
|
intravenous contrast medium
|
injected into a vein to make the flow of blood thru blood vessels and organs visible
|
|
|
barium
|
a radiopaque contrast medium used primarily to visualize the gastrointestinal tract.
|
|
|
radiographic projection
|
describes the path that the x-ray beam follows thru the body from entrance to exit
|
|
|
anteroposterior projection
|
has the patient positioned with the back parallel to the film. x-ray beam travels from front to back
|
|
|
posteroanterior projection
|
has the patient positioned facing the film and parallel to it
|
|
|
lateral projection (=)
|
=side view: has the patient positioned at right angles to the film. named for the side of the body nearest the film
|
|
|
oblique projection
|
has the patient positioned so the body is slanted sideways to the film
|
|
|
extraoral radiography
|
used in dentistry, the film is placed outside of the mouth
|
|
|
panoramic radiograph (=)
|
=Panorex: shows all of the structures in both dental arches
|
|
|
periapical radiographs
|
show the entire tooth and some surrounding tissue, are used to detect abnormalities, such as an abscess at the tip of the root
|
|
|
bitewing radiographs
|
show the crowns of teeth in both arches, used primarily to detect dental decay between the teeth
|
|
|
CT/CAT (& meaning)
|
computerized tomography: uses a fan-shaped x-ray beam that rotates around the patient to produce multiple cross-sectional views of the body
|
|
|
tom/o
|
to cut, section, or slice
|
|
|
MRI (& meaning)
|
magnetic resonance imaging: uses a combo of radio waves and a strong magnetic field to create signals that are sent to a computer and converted into images of any plane thru the body
|
|
|
closed architecture MRI (=)
|
=high-field MRI: patients may be uncomfortable because of the noise generated by the machine and the feeling of being closed in
|
|
|
open architecture MRI
|
the design of the equipment is less confining and more comfortable for some patients
|
|
|
MRA (= & meaning)
|
magnetic resonance angiography, =magnetic resonance angio: combines MRI with the use of a contrast medium to locate problems with blood vessels throughout the body
|
|
|
fluoro (& meaning)
|
fluoroscopy: the visualization of body parts in motion by projecting x-ray images on a luminous fluorescent screen
|
|
|
cineradiography
|
the recording of images as they appear in motion on a fluorescent screen
|
|
|
cine-
|
relationship to movement
|
|
|
diagnostic ultrasound (=)
|
=ultrasonography: imaging of deep body structures by recording the echoes of pulses of sound waves above the range of human hearing; ==ultrasound: effective for viewing solid organs of the abdomen and soft tissues where the signal is not stopped by intervening bone or air
|
|
|
carotid ultrasonography
|
the use of sound waves to image the carotid artery to detect an obstruction that could cause an ischemic stroke
|
|
|
echocardiography
|
an ultrasonic diagnostic procedure used to evaluate the structures and motion of the heart
|
|
|
Doppler echocardiogram
|
performed in the same way as an echocardiogram; however, this procedure measures the speed and direction of the blood flow within the heart
|
|
|
transesophageal echocardiography
|
an ultrasonic imaging technique used to evaluate heart structures, is performed from inside the esophagus
|
|
|
NM (& meaning)
|
nuclear medicine: utilizes radioactive substances known as radiopharmaceuticals for both diagnosis and treatment purposes
|
|
|
gamma-ray camera
|
detects gamma rays emitted by radiopharmaceuticals. data is used to generate an image showing the pattern of absorption that indicates pathology
|
|
|
nuclear imaging
|
nuclear medicine when used for diagnostic purposes
|
|
|
nuclear scan (=)
|
=scintigram: a diagnostic procedure that uses nuclear medicine technology to gather info about the structure and function of organs or systems that can not be seen on conventional x-rays
|
|
|
bone scan
|
the radionuclide tracer is injected into the bloodstream. only pathology in the bones absorbs the radionuclide, and these are visible as dark areas on the scan
|
|
|
thyroid scan
|
a radiopharmaceutical containing radioactive iodine is administered. the rate of iodine uptake by the thyroid is an indicator of thyroid function
|
|
|
SPECT (& meaning)
|
single photon emission computerized tomography: a nuclear imaging technique in which pictures are taken by one to 3 gamma cameras after a radionuclide tracer has been injected into the blood
|
|
|
gamma cameras (=)
|
=detectors: during the SPECT, they rotate around the patient's body collecting data and producing images on a variety of planes
|
|
|
perfusion
|
the flow of blood thru an organ
|
|
|
PET (& meaning)
|
positron emission tomography: combines tomography with radionuclide tracers to produce enhanced images of selected body organs or areas. Used to determine cardiac or cerebral perfusion and for brain imaging to aid in the diagnosis of epilepsy, dementia, and recurrent brain tumors
|
|
|
RIA (= & meaning)
|
radioimmunoassay; =radioassay: a lab technique in which a radioactively labeled substance is mixed with a blood specimen
|
|
|
immunofluorescence
|
a method of tagging antibodies with a fluorescent dye to detect or localize antigen-antibody combinations
|
|
|
pharmacology
|
the study of nature, uses, and effects of drugs for medical purposes
|
|
|
pharmacist
|
specialist who is licensed to formulate and dispense prescribed medications
|
|
|
prescription
|
an order for medication, therapy, or a therapeutic device
|
|
|
prescription drug
|
a med that may be dispensed only with a prescription from an appropriately licensed professional
|
|
|
over-the-counter drug (=)
|
= O-T-C: a med that may be dispensed without a written prescription
|
|
|
generic drug
|
usually named for its chemical structure and is not protected by a brand name or trademark
|
|
|
brand name drug
|
sold under the name given the drug by the manufacturer
|
|
|
addiction
|
compulsive, uncontrollable dependence on a substance, habit, or practice to the degree that stopping causes severe emotional, mental, or physiologic reactions
|
|
|
ADR (& meaning) (=)
|
adverse drug reaction; =side effect or adverse drug event: an undesirable drug response that accompanies the principal response for which the drug was taken
|
|
|
compliance
|
the patient's consistency and accuracy in following the regimen prescribed by a physician or other health care professional
|
|
|
contraindication
|
a factor in the patient's condition that makes the use of a drug dangerous or ill advised
|
|
|
drug interaction
|
changes the effect of one drug when it is administered at the same time as another drug
|
|
|
idiosyncratic reaction
|
an unexpected reaction to a drug
|
|
|
palliative
|
a substance that eases the pain or severity of a disease but does not cure it
|
|
|
paradoxical drug reaction
|
an induced effect that is the exact opposite of that which was therapeutically intended
|
|
|
placebo
|
a substance containing no active ingredients that is given for its suggestive effects
|
|
|
potentiation (=)
|
=synergism: a drug interaction that occurs when the effect of one drug is potentiated (increased) by another drug
|
|
|
inhalation administration
|
refers to vapor and gases taken in thru the nose or mouth and absorbed into the bloodstream thru the lungs
|
|
|
oral administration
|
refers to drugs taken by mouth to be absorbed from the stomach or small intestine; may be taken in forms such as liquids, pills, or capsules
|
|
|
percutaneous treatment
|
a procedure that is performed thru the skin
|
|
|
rectal administration
|
the insertion of medication in the rectum by use of either suppositories or liquid solutions
|
|
|
sublingual administration (& abbrev.)
|
(SL): medication is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve slowly
|
|
|
parenteral administration
|
the administration of medication by injection thru a hypodermic syringe
|
|
|
subcutaneous injection (& abbrev.)
|
made into the fatty layer just below the skin (SQ)
|
|
|
intradermal injection (& abbrev.)
|
made into the middle layers of the skin (ID)
|
|
|
intramuscular injection (& abbrev.)
|
made directly into muscle tissue (IM)
|
|
|
intravenous injection (& abbrev.)
|
made directly into a vein (IV)
|
|
|
bolus (=)
|
=bolus infusion: a single dose of drug usually injected into a blood vessel over a short period of time
|
|
|
ac
|
before meals
|
|
|
b.i.d., bid
|
twice a day
|
|
|
c (with line over it)
|
with
|
|
|
NPO
|
nothing by mouth
|
|
|
p.c.
|
after meals
|
|
|
p.o.
|
by mouth
|
|
|
p.r.n.
|
as needed
|
|
|
q.d.
|
every day
|
|
|
q.h.
|
every hour
|
|
|
q.i.d.
|
four times a day
|
|
|
t.i.d.
|
three times a day
|
|
|
Ba
|
barium
|
|
|
CBC
|
complete blood count
|
|
|
ECHO
|
echocardiography
|
|
|
ESR
|
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
|
|
|
LAP
|
laparoscopy
|
|
|
MRA
|
magnetic resonance angiography
|
|
|
RBC
|
red blood count
|
|
|
TEE
|
transesophageal echocardiography
|
|
|
PA
|
posteroanterior
|
|
|
AP
|
anteroposterior
|
|
|
Lat
|
lateral
|
|
|
obl
|
oblique
|
