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90 Cards in this Set
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1. Which of th efollowing mishap investigation responsibilities would reside with the flight surgeon and NOT the MAJCOM?
a. Assess blame b.Calculate total dollars lost c. Identify and prevent future mishaps d. Appropriately adminsiter nonjudicial punishment |
c. Identify and prevent future mishaps
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2. Locally, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps?
a. Each inidividual b. Unit commanders c. Base safety officer d. Wing safety officer |
a. Each individual
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3. Specifically, who makes the final determination on return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics?
a. Any flight surgeon b. Health care provider c. Fligt managment office d.Chief, Aeromedical Services |
a. Any flight surgeon
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4. Which of the following is a unique characteristric of the solid propellant used in a most missle systems?
a. The exhaust fumes are highly toxic b. It is not a stable fuel source until ignited c. Once ignited, it can not be extinguished d. It is responsible for maneuvering the weapon system while in space. |
c. Once Ignited, it can not be extinguished
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5. Which of the following concerns would be considered PRIMARY physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missle Alert Facilities?
a. Sanitation, food, water, and facility safety b. Physical fitness, long hours, facility safety c. Poisonous bites and stings, long hours and sanitation d. food and water safety, physical fitness and long hours |
a. Sanitation, food, water amd facility safety
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6. What are the primary operational hazards for personnel who work at a Missle Alert Facilty or Launch Facility?
a. Boredom and personnel issues b. Toxic chemicals and computer failure c. Confined spaces and nuclear weapons d. Motor vehicle accidents and the environment |
d. Motor vehicle accidents and the environment
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7. Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishpas when?
a. the pilot declares it b. they occur off the ground c. they occur on the taxi-way d. there is an intent for flight |
d. there is an intent for flight
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8. Whenever a mishap results in reportable damages of $1,000,000 or more, you must report it as what class of mishap?
a. A b. B c. C d. D |
a. A
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9. If an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle crashes in Afghanistan, what is the procedure for determining whether it is reportable as an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle mishap?
a. Determine the dollar amount of damage b. determine if the crash was due to pilot error c. Determine if another DoD aircraft was involved d. Determine if the crash was due to weather condidtions |
c. Determine if another DoD aircraft was involved
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10. When responding to a mishap, you should approach from what direction?
a. Upwind b. Downwind c. Most direct d. Most accessable |
a. Upwind
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11. What action should you take prior to removing human remains from teh scene of an aircraft mishap?
a. Photograph the site b. Draw blood on the deceased c. Complete the 72 hour report from surviving members d. Obtain permission from Medical Group Commander |
a. Photograph the site.
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12. What soloution should you use when preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis?
a. Tap water b. Betadine c. Normal saline d. Isopropyl alcohol |
b. Betadine
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13. What steps need to be completed before completing an aircraft mishap report?
a. Compile all necessary data b. Obtain the cost of the aircraft c. Compile character statments for the pilot d. Obtain the results of the investigation board |
a. Compile all necessary data
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14. How should you report an event that is categorzied as a physiological episode?
a. Class A mishap b. Class B mishap c. Class D mishap d. Class E mishap |
d. Class E mishap
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15. Class E Physiological events are reported by message using the format found in?
a. AFI 91-202 b. AFI 91-204 c. AFI 91-205 d. AFPAM 91-211 |
b. AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports
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16. The overall purpose of flight line visits is to
a. promote flying safety b. establsih a good raport with all aircreww members c. establish a close working relationship with every unit d. ensure all working environments are properly lighted |
a. promote flying safety
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17. What is your specific responsibility to the Life Support Section/
a. Inspect for food and water sanitation b. Schedule the flight surgeon's flying time c. Make weekly shop visits to assess the working environment d. Provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs |
d. Provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs
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18. Which of the following are all rated officers?
a. Navigators, pilots, flight surgeons b. Weapons controllers, pilots, navigatotors c. Pilots. missle launch officers, astronauts d.Air traffic controllers, flight surgeons, and pilots |
a. Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons
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19. What do you do with the ORIGINAL AF Form 1042 after it is completed?
a. Place it in a permanent file b. File it in an individual's health record c. Send it to the local flight managment office d. Send it to the individual's squadron operations section |
b. File it in the individual's health record
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20. How many years must the AF Form 1041 be kept on file?
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five |
a. Two
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21. Who is responsible to train aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lenses?
a. Optometry b. Family practice c. Flight medicine office d. Force Health Protection |
a. Optometry
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22. What steps are necessary to a safe and productive soft contact lens program?
a. Identification, documentation, and evaluation b. Identification, ordering, and issuing prescriptions c. Evaluation, documentation, and issuing prescriptions d. Documentation, training, and ordering prescriptions |
a. Identification, documentation, and evaluation
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23. What is the PRIMARY device a computer uses to store information?
a. Zip drive b. Hard disk drive c. Floppy disk drive d. Compact disk read only memory |
b. Hard disk drive
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24. What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems?
a. SATE b. LINK c. FOUA d. AECP |
a. SATE
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25. What administrative tool shows every record series maintained for an office or record?
a. UMD b. MFR c. Files plan d. Staff summary sheet |
c. Files plan
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26. What is the purpose of the Physical Examinations Processing Program?
a. Track physical exams for all military personnel b.Identify military personnel who are overdue for dental exams c. Track physical exams for flying and special operations personnel d. Identify next annual exam for miiltary and non-military members |
c. Track physical exams for flying and special operations personnel
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27. Once you arrive at the knowledge Exchange webpage, what should be the next step to begin training on the Physical Examinations Processing Program database?
a. Enter your login and password b. Completye the User's Guide training c. Click the "Aerospace Medicine" tab d. Click the "Frequently Asked Questions" tab |
c. Click the "Aerospace Medicine" tab
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28. What step must you take before you can use the Physical Examinations Processing Program database?
a. Complete 5-level upgrade training b. Set up an account through the Air Force Portal c. Complete the User's Guide Training d. Obtain permission from the Force Health Managment Office |
b. Set up an account through the Air Force Portal
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29. When you input medicla information on military member into Preventive Health Assessment Individual Medical Readiness program, to what system does it connect?
a. PEPP b. DEERS c. AFCHIPS d. AIMWTS |
c. AFCHIPS
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30. What can you determine when you review a military members Individual Medical Readiness status is yellow?
a. There is no duty limiting condition b. The member is a Dental Class 3 or 4 c. Laboratory requirements are missing d. Items are outdated or need attention |
d. Items are outdated or need attention
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31. A supervisor has access to what additinal tabs in the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application (AFCITA)?
a. Units and personnel b. Multiple entry and set p c. Family Inquire and bar code d. Set up and Data Managment |
d. Set up and Data Managment
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32. What step should you take if you have a patient that experinces and adverse reaction?
a. Go to the menu bar to access the VAERS website b. Make an entry into the Personnel screen c. Make an entry into the Units screen d. Go to the Vax History site |
a. Go to the menu bar to access the VAERS website
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33. What steps might you need to take before you can accesss the Air Force Complete Immunizations Tracking Application?
a. You must see your local AFCITA program manager b. Your training record must have documentation that you are trained to give vaccinations c. You must see you rlocal AFCITA program manager, have an account establsihed and be trained to give vaccinations d. You must see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established and have the program loaded on your computer |
a. You must see your local AFCITA program manager
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34. What function does the Areomedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System serve?
a. Tracks and manages annual physical examinations b. Tracks medical eligibility of military and dependents c. Tracks personnel who are exempt from immunizations d. Tracks waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status |
d. Tracks waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status
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35. What step must you complete first to complete initial waivers with Aetromedical Information Managment Waiver Tracking System?
a. Downlaod DEERS information b. Print the daily roster of waivers c. Enter the patients demographics d. Laod your supervisor's information |
c. Enter your patient's demographics
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36. What do you do once the Aeromedcial Information Management Waiver tracking System process is completed?
a. Notify your supervisor b. Notify the Flight Surgeon c. Place information in patinet record d. Send the documents to the Force Health Managment Office |
c. Place information in patent record
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37. The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for comlpeteing required physical examinations properly are specified in ?
a. AFI 48-123 b. AFI 48-133 c. AFM 36-2108 d. AFPAM 48-133 |
a. AFI 48-123
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38. During a physical examination, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends PRIMARILY on the?
a. availability of equipment b. specialty service available c. type of medical examination d. medical history of the examinee |
c. type of medical examination
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39. The format for procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in?
a. AFI 44-113 b. AFI 48-123 c. AFM 36-2108 d. AFPAM 48-133 |
d. AFPAM 48-133
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40. Where is the AF Form 422 established on officers entering the Air Force?
a. ROTC Detachment b. First permanent duty station c. OTS at LAckland AFB, Texas d. First training base after leaving OTS |
b. First permanent duty station
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41. members with 4T profiles must have teh AF Form reviewed every?
a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 30 days d. 45 days |
c. 30 days
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42. How many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial?
a. One b. Three c. Four d. Six |
d. Six
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43. Which factor would apply to an individual who has organic defects of the ear?
a. H - hearing b. E - ear defects c. S - sensory defects d. P - physical condition |
a. H - hearing
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44. What is the main consideration under the E physical profile factor?
a. Near vision only b. Organic eye diseases c. Distant visual acuity only d. Distant and near visual acuity |
c. Distant visual acuity only
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45. A strength aptitude test is rated in which profile factor?
a. P b. U c. L d. X |
d. X
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46. What organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422?
a. Local MEB b. MAJCOM c. HQ USAF d. HQ AFPC |
d. HQ AFPC
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47. Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for no more than?
a. 12 months b. 18 months c. 3 years d. 5 years |
d. 5 years
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48. What is the first step in teh Air Force disability evaluation process?
a. Initiate PEB b. Initiate MEB c. Establish LOD d. Appoint a PEBLO |
b. Initiate MEB
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49. When would disability compenstation NOT be authorized?
a. Injury occured off base b. Accident occured off-duty c. Individual is retirement eligible d. Injury occured during an unauthorized absence |
d. Injury occured during an unauthorized absence
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50. What step must be taken if a military member has been discharged after being admitted to the hospital?
a. Admission must be entered into PIMR b. Patient must be put on convalescent leave c. Records must be reviewed to identify correct profile actions d. Patient must schedule an appointment with the flight surgeon the day of the release |
c. Records must be reviewed to identify correct profile actions
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51. What should you do if potentiallly disqualifiying information is discovered during a rceords review?
a. Refer the case to the flight surgeon b. Document the information in PIMR c. Notify the individual's commander by phone immediately d. Document teh finding in the record so it is addressed during the next annual exam |
a. Refer the case to the flight surgeon
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52. Who owns the health records?
a. Patient b. Base Commander c. Sponsor of the dependent d. United States Government |
d. United States Government
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53. What must occur to ensure health records are maintained according to Air Force and Joint Commision on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations standards?
a. MTF reviews b. Patinet interviews c. Privact Act reviews d. Staff Judge Advocate inspections |
a. MTF reviews
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54. Where is the orignal medical record maintained on deployed activte duty and ARC personnel?
a. With individual b. Home base MTF c. With individual's PCM d. Area of opertaion MTF |
b. Home base MTF
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55. In which section of the outpatient record is every completed SF 600 filed?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
b. Two
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56. You encounter a record of a member on flying statusthat has NOT BEEN identified correctly. What steps should you take to make th erecord identifiable as a member of FLYING STATUS?
a. Stamp teh word "Fly" in 1 inch block letters in the upper left corner of the front cover b. Stamp the word "Fly" in 2 inch block letters in the upper left corner of the front cover c. Attach a note for the outpatinet records personnel to correctly mark the record d. Do not mark the record but do tell the provider the patient is scheduled with |
b. Stamp the word "Fly" in 2 inch block letters in the upper left corner of the front cover
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57. In what division of the atmosphere will the phenomena of weather mostly occur?
a. Troposphere. b. Stratosphere. c. Ionosphere. d. Exosphere. |
a. Troposphere
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58. Where is the greatest barometric pressure found?
a. Exosphere b. Ionosphere c. Stratosphere d. Troposphere |
d. Troposphere.
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59. As altitude increases, barometric pressure will...
a. increase. b. decrease. c. remain constant. d. increase, then suddenly decrease. |
b. decrease.
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60. What method of measuring altitude is used to measure the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it?
a. Flight level. b. True altitude. c. Absolute altitude. d. Pressurized altitude. |
c. Absolute altitude.
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61. What gas law explains the way in which ascent to altitude induces hypoxia?
a. Boyle's law. b. Henry's law. c. Dalton's law. d. Charles's law. |
c. Dalton's law.
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62. What is the main contributing factor to in-flight noise?
a. Engines. b. Air rushing over the canopy. c. Heating and air conditioners. d. Radio communication devices. |
b. Air rushing over the canopy.
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63. The best description of in-flight noise is it.....
a. increases with airspeed and decreases with altitude. b. increases with altitude and decreases with airspeed. c. decreases with the size of the aircraft and increases with altitude. d. decreases with airspeed and increases with the size of the aircraft. |
a. increases with airspeed and decreases with altitude.
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64. What environmental stress has the greatest influence on G intolerance?
a. Wind. b. Cold. c. Heat. d. Rain. |
c. Heat.
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65. Special diet control is important to many aircrew members because it....
a. reduces in-flight snacking. b. helps to avoid overeating. c. helps to avoid poor eating habits. d. reduces the incidence of gas pains. |
d. reduces the incidence of gas pains.
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66. What causes an aircrew member's circadian rhythm to be affected on a cross-country flight?
a. Length of the flight. b. Crossing of time zones. c. Changes in dietary habits. d. Changes in weather conditions. |
b. Crossing of time zones.
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67. Airsickness during pilot training is usually due to...
a. fear of flying. b. poor motivation. c. lack of adaptation. d. acceleration forces. |
c. lack of adaptation.
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68. What is the most COMMON type of hypoxia seen in aircrew members and is often referred to as altitude hypoxia?
a. Hypoxic hypoxia. b. Stagnant hypoxia. c. Hypemic hypoxia. d. Histotoxic hypoxia. |
a. Hypoxic hypoxia.
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69. What type of hypoxia may be caused by alcohol abuse?
a. Hypoxic b. Stagnant. c. Hypemic. d. Histotoxic. |
d. Histotoxic.
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70. The cardiovascular and respiratory systems may compensate for hypoxia at altitudes up to how many feet?
a. 8,000. b. 10,000. c. 18,000. d. 25,000. |
b. 10,000.
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71. What is the prime consideration when treating hypoxia?
a. Providing the aircrew member with adequate oxygen. b. Decreaseing the aircrew members elevated nitrogen level. c. Increasing ambient oxygen pressure by descent to a lower altitude. d. Controlling the member's rate of breathing by the paper bag method. |
a. Providing the aircrew member with adequate oxygen.
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72. WHat is the most effective treatment for hyperventilation?
a. Beginning positive pressure breathing. b. Reducing the rate and depth of breathing. c. Decending immediately to a lower altitude. d. Performing an emergency oxygen equipment check. |
b. Reducing the rate and depth of breathing.
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73. Hypoxia is most frequently caused by...
a. airsickness. b. equipment malfunction. c. high G force intolerance. d. increased barometric pressure. |
b. equipment malfunction.
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74. Which of the following is NOT a factor of decompression sickness?
a. Altitude. b. Rate of ascent. c. Rate of decent. d. Physical activity. |
c. Rate of decent.
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75. How are occurrences of decompression sickness symptoms relative to age?
a. Increases with age. b. Decreases with age. c. Absent after age 40. d. Is not effected by age. |
a. Increases with age.
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76. How many hours should an individual wait to fly following diving activities?
a. 12. b. 24. c. 36. d. 48. |
b. 24.
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77. What are the usual sites for bends pain?
a. Neck and back. b. Hips, knees, ankles, feet and toes. c. Shoulders, elbows, wrists and hips. d. Shoulders, elbows, knees and ankles. |
d. Shoulders, elbows, knees and ankles.
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78. Which symptom is the most specific EARLY symptom of the chokes?
a. Dyspnea. b. Substernal pain. c. Dry, nonproductive cough. d. Anxiety and hyperventilation. |
b. Substernal pain.
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79. What key symptom differentiates chokes and false chokes?
a. Dyspnea. b. Sharp substernal pain. c. Dry, nonproductive cough. d. Burning pain on inspiration. |
b. Sharp substernal pain.
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80. Which sensation is NOT associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness?
a. Itching. b. Tingling. c. Numbness. d. Hot or cold. |
c. Numbness.
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81. One method of protecting aircrew members against decompression sickness is by restricting aerial flight to what MAXIMUM cabin altitude?
a. FL 200. b. FL 250. c. FL 275. d. FL 300. |
b. FL 250
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82. What is the BEST way to administer oxygen while treating decompression sickness?
a. Aviator's mask. b. Nasal cannulas. c. Bag-valve mask. d. High pressure ambu-bag. |
a. Aviator's mask.
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83. What is the MAXIMUM flying altitude for unpressurized aircraft when transporting a patient suffering decompression sickness?
a. 10,000 feet. b. 3,500 feet. c. 2,500 feet. d. 1,000 feet. |
d. 1,000 feet.
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84. How many hours must an individual NOT fly following complete resolution of symptoms of the bends?
a. 96. b. 72. c. 48. d. 24. |
b. 72.
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85. POSITIVE G forces affect the diaphragm by doing what to the viscera?
a. Push them in. b. Push them up. c. Push them out. d. Push them down. |
d. Push them down.
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86. In what direction are NEGATIVE G forces applied?
a. Foot-to-head. b. Head-to-foot. c. Left-to-right. d. Right-to-left. |
a. Foot-to-head.
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87. The anti-G straining maneuver is performed during the...
a. expiratory phase against partially closed glottis. b. inspiratory phase against a partially closed glottis. c. expiratory phase against a completely closed glottis. d. inspiratory phase against a completely closed glottis. |
c. expiratory phase against a completely closed glottis.
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88. Which of the senses of orientation is considered to be reliable in flight?
a. Visual. b. Vestibular. c. Respiratory. d. Proprioceptive. |
a. Visual.
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89. What sensory system is often referred to as the "seat of the pants" sense?
a. Visual. b. Vestibular. c. Respiratory. d. Proprioceptive. |
d. Proprioceptive.
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90. What is the MOST COMMON sensory illusion resulting from stimulation of the semicircular canals?
a. The leans. b. Nystagmus. c. Graveyard spin. d. Coriolis illusion. |
a. The leans.
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