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236 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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how many parts is the CFETP divided into and what is contained in those parts?
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Divided into two Parts. Part one infor pertaining to the overall management of the 4n0 taining, part 2 is the training requirements.
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in what part of the FETP woudl you find community college of the AF upgrade taininig diagrams and requirements for specialty qualification?
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the primary PFSC is the highest level of training obtained, duty afsc is used to show the actual position one is filling
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on what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed in the STS?
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AF from 797 job qualification standard continuation
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what si teh master trainig plan designed to do? what is ciricled?
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plan spcifically outlines traiing goals and for enlisted withing the assgined area. core tasks, upgrade training, and specific tasks
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what specific four people are important to developing your future?
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unit training manager, trainer, task certifier, supervisor
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who is responsible to order and track your progress in the CDCs and orders your course exam when you have completed your CDC test?
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Unit training manger
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who is the key ingredient to your training program and what are some attributes necessary for success?
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the trainee is the key ingrediant dont be afraid to step up and assist with procedures
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how is sustainment training accomplished?
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accomplished through qualification training, formal training coouses in services, and exersizes
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list at least three of the basic qualifications to be or maintain your sttatus as a 4n
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completion of the AMSA course, NREMT-B training, rediness training, QTPS and RSVPS
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what is the purpose of an inservice?
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in services are generally given on topics that you suse frequently or have a high probability of encountering in your worksite. theyre focus is on improvement
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how are subspecialties of the 4n career field identified?
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are identified by the use of shredouts or special experiance identifiers
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whats the title of the 4n0x1c shredout?
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IDMT
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what does the SEI 494 stand for?
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Areomedical evacuation technician
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what is required to be completed to achieve that AFSC 4N051?
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phase one and two upgrade training requirements
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what skill level has accomplished all priimary duty requirements, PME requirements for skill level and is in trainig to become or is a mid level manager?
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4N071
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who recieves the comopleted job inventory and what is the information used for?
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CFM ( career feild manager) helps decide that future of workshops and classes
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what is HAS and who completes it?
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Gas- Graduate assessment survey, its something the supervisor fills out about you.
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what areas are assessed on GAS>
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millitary standards, performing at apprentice standards arrival at duty station, famililarity with AEF
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who is responsible for conduction AFSC job inventory surveys?
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AFOMS
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how is documentation of 4N0X1 trainnig maintained?
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maintained in a six part folder known as an OJT folder or Enlisted training and competancy folder
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in what section is the CFETP placed?
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part 2 section b of the OJT folder
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what form is used to document special task certification and recurring training? in what section would you file this form in your OJT folder?
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AF from 1098, special task certificate and reoccuring training filed in section 3
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where is AETC form 156 traiing report placed and when may it be removed?
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part 4 section b once the person has upgraded to journeyman the report can be removed
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you just recieved your new NREMT card. where shoudly ou file a copy of it?
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part 6 section b
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what steps shoudl you follow to develop and conduct an in service?
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prepare lesson, research material use trainig referances evaluate lerning, document training comments
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what does MEPRS stand for?
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medical expense and performance recording system
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how are alll hospital activits grouped in MEPRS?
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According to type and section
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what is the MEPRS used for?
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MEPRS permits viewing of teh overall operation of the MTF in one database and is the primary tool used to make manpower budget and other resource allocation decisions
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what si the technicians responsibility in completing the MEPRS information?
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the technician must ensure accurate and timely infor is provided
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what is a manpower authorization?
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a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, oprganization location, skill grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position
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what is the purpose of the UMD>
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the UMD is used to help manage manpower resourses it is the primary codument that reflects all positions authorized to accomplish the mission
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what tool is used to list the actual people assigned to a work center?
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UPMR
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what is the propse of the UMPR?
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The UPMR is a means to manage manower by using a list of actual people assigned to the work center this tool matches that names ofthe names of personell to the actual position he or she is assigned
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what is the differance between an ACR and an ACN?
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the ACR is the request by an organization to change its manpower authorization. the ACN is the MAJCOMs response to approve or sidapprove the ACR
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according to military guaidance , who is responsible for management of public property and allocation, control, care , use and safeguarding of public property under control of the af?
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each individual
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What is the commanders responsbility regarding material accountability?
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ensuring only qualificed personnel are selvected and assigned a property custodians taht adequate space is provdied for proper storrage of medical supplys and equipment, the perscribed records are maintained
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who provides the recommendation to the hospital commander for appointing the clinic or unit property custodian?
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based on the recommendation of the clinic/unit custodian
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how will the appointment of the property cutodian be made? decribe the process.
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by a written delegation of authority letter. two copies will be made, containing sample signatures of the authorized rep appointed prop custodian and one copy will go to the memo and the other copy with kept in the new property custodians folder
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what actions are property custodians authorized to perform with the medical meterial in their particular account?
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request and recieve
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the property custodian finds equipment or supplies missing or damage to equipment, who should he or she notify?
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their supervisors then the MeMO folks
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what is MEMO?
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the medical equipment management office
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what must occur of the property custodian will be absent from the account for 46 days or more?
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the account must be transferred to someone else.
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what are the supervisory responsbilities regarding medical material?
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training of personell on proper use of equipment and ensuring supplyu discipline is exercised by those under their supervision
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what percentage of medical equipment malfunction can be attributed to operator error?
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over 70%
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list five tenets of supplyu discipline
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1.) safe gaurding and preserve public property 2.) use equipment and supplies for their intended use. 3.) avoid ordering excess material if excess is discovereed, turn it in. 4.) adhere to procedures and procedures of storage issue and turn in of property
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are the tenets of supply discipline promarily the responsbvility of the property custodian? explain
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no. the tenets apply to all personnel even if they arent property custodians
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how is the activity issue, turn in summary accessed?
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Through DMLSS
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what type of action is recorded on the activity issue turn in summary?
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supply and exuipoment items issued to or turned in by the section
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how often should the property custodian follow up on back order items?
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every 30 days
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if an item listed on the back order report is no longer needed, what should the custodian do? what does MEMO do?
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medical logisitics muct be informed, memo will attempot to cancel the order with the supplier
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what list or form shows all property charged to the clinic or unit account?
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the CRL shows all property charged to your account
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what must occur before a new custodian signs for all property in an account?
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the new custodian and the current custodian p[erform a physical inventory to account for all equipment and its location.
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if an item is listed but not present during the inventory, what form should reflect its location?
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af for 1297
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when an item is added or removed from the equipment account, what document should be maintained until a new CRLL is generated?
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AF form 601 and the CAL
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when can a completed AF form 601 be destroyed?
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When the tiem shows up on the custodian receipt/locator list (CRL)
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you have teken over an account and made an initial inventory of equipment. How much longer do you wait until you make another inventory?
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at least annually, however the reconmmendation is once a quarter or as mandated by the commander
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how often should inspections be conducted on equipment?
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on a regular basis, usually daily
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whose responsibility is it to check for faulty electical cords and inopoerable parts or functions?
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everyone
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who repairs medical equipment?
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biomedical equipment repair technicians
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what are three simple tips to detect and correct equipment problems?
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inspect, remove, report
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what are the primary sources to record equipment repair?
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af from 1297 and CRL
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who should you consult with to resolve equipment maintenance problems or confirm current and local maintenance policy?
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BMET
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describe the meaning of moral character
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food moral character usually boils down to treating others how you would want to be treated
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describe autonomy
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respect for others, reconizing the right of an individual to make their own deision
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what two things does the scope of practice as defined by the STS permit?
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identifies those skills technicians are permitted to ( and shoud) perform and skills that should not be performed if the skill is not listed in the STS
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how can patients asist in a facility quality improvement procss?
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by informing the patient advocate of all recommendations, questions, and complaints pertaining to the health care facility
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what must be developed by each mtf regarding the use of chaperones?
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a local policy
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what important obstacle should be avoided when discussing death with small children?
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the temptation to minimize the event
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what are the stages of the grieving process?
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denial, anger, bargainng, depression, acceptance
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medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by what?
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public law privacy act of 1974
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medical personnel must comply with what acts and codes?
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privacy act of 1974,
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what single form eliminates the need for separate privacy act statemetn for each medical or dental document?
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dd form 2005, pricvacy act statement health care records or af form 2100a series health record outpatient
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what are some military actions for noncompliance with HIPPA guidlines?
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millitary actions may include verybacl counseling non judicial punishment or even a court marshall
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what legal term is used to describe negligence by a professional?
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malpractice
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making a photograph of a patient available to the public without the patients consent is what type of violation?
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invasion of privacy
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before obtaining informed consent, what details must be explained to the patient?
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reason for procedure how procedure is performed, who will perform the procedure, risks other options expectant outcomes
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what does a DNR order prohibit?
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initiation of pulmonary or cardiopulmonary resuscitation in the event of respiratory or cardio respitaory arrest
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what is the unigue featurs of a durable power of attorney?
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designates another individual as the primary decision maker
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what are the four phases of a helping relationship?
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preinterative, introductionary, working and termination
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what are six barriers to effective communication?
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language, changing the subject, options insted of facts, talking too much, not paying attention, illness
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what bebefit does the patient advocate provide?
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having a patint advocate assigned to each section makes it possbiel to solce problems on the lowest level possible.
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what are some ways to determine patient needs and expectations?
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execute good communication skills, practice SA, and ask how may i help tyou sir or mam?
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what actions constitutes good communication?
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concentrate on whats being said, occaisionally repeat back a paraphrased version of whats said, ask questions if you dont understand, dont interrupt think about the feelings behind the words
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list some benefits of the customer service survey
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identifyes areas or personell providing outstanding customer service, identify opportunities for improvement, to suggest improvements
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how should you handle a customer that is dissatisfied and diggicult to deal with?
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stay calm, do not argue if possbile have themn step out into a private room, get assistance from supergisor do not take it personally, give yourself time to de stress afterwards
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while you are at teh front desk making an appointment for a patient the phone starts ringing and there is no one else around to answer it. what shoudl you do?
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politely ask the PT to excuse yourself before answering the phone, ask the caller to hold a moment or ask for their name and number to get back with them.
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why is it important not to give medical advice over the telephone?
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medical advice over the phone leads to in accurate self treatment and is leagally risky
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what should you do if there is any question regarding a patients symptoms?
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ask nurse or pcm for advice make sure the pt is taken care of or released by a licensed pro
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what are two ways to practice effective time management which contributes to stress management?
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delegate when permitted, shape responsibilites
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why does a cultural background often bring satisfaction to an individual?
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because individuals often experiance a sence of pride and safety through a cultual background they shar with others, particually their own fam.
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list the seven habits of a sucessffull PCM team
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be proactive, being customer focused, managing a panel , instilling the babit of prevention, working as a team member, seeking infor to help focus, communication
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list the responsibilities of the aerospace med tech
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perform basic physical exams, history taking and patient counseling, order labs and xrays, follow protocols extablished by providers, cordinate pt follow ups, ensure med records are up to date.
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which pcm team member is known as the information expert?
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health services management tech
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explain how to veriify bebficiary eligibility
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designated medical facility poersonnel confirm the patients identity and verify entitlements by performing a deers and id check. individuals requesting care must show satisfactory evidence of their beneficiary status.
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explain the treatment process for an individual who has questionable eligibility for routine care.
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a complete medical authority should perform a risk assessment if there is a possibility of risk to either the PT or the AF treat the PT
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explain the process on an individual who has questionable eligibility but needs emergent care.
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always provide care first and then dtermine eligibility after treatment
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list five functions of ahlta
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pt registration, admission, disposition and transfer 2.) inpatient activity documentation 3.) outpatient admin data 4.)laboratory 5.)drug/labrotory test 6.)quality assurance 7.)radiology 8.)clinical diet info 9.)pharmacy
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what does ahlta support?
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ahlta suports health protection, population, health, MHS optimization, by enabling the MHS to determine the deplyment status of units demand management effectiveness, disease prevalence, management and outcomes
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what does DEERS function as
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as a repository and a date base record
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what is the overall strategy of population health management?
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to focus on managing the health and defined population, for optimum health is the ultimate goal of medicine
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for what is coding used?
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pt record documentation, reimbursement, staffing considerations, program management and utilization control
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what are the four sections in the ICD-9?
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the docing guidlines, disease alphabetical index, disease toblar list, appendixes
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describe the normal anatomical position
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standing upright, arms at side, palms facing forward
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what does superior mean?
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toward the head
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what is the correct anatomical position of the eyes as they relate to the chin?
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the eyes are superior to the chin
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what does proximal mean?
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closer to a given point of origin
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describe the anatomical position of the elbow as it relates to the wrist
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the elbow is proximal to the wrist
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s the longitudinal axis?
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an imaginary line which psses length wise through a portion of teh body or bone
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t type of movement occurs when the entire arm makes circles while stratched out to the side?
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circumduction
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what type of movement occurs when the toes are pointed away from the face while lying supine?
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plantar flexion
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what is adduction?
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moving a body part toward the midline
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what is protaction?
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moving a body part forward, away from the middle of the body
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what si the purpose of medical abbreviations?
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medical short hand which are quick clear and concise way to communicate through documentation
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what accrediting agency oversees patient saety with approved an unapproved medical abbreviations and medical terminology?
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the joint commision on accredition of health care organizaions
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the docotrs orders state a patients vital signs must be completed qid, how often should you take the patients vitals?
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four times a day
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why did JCAHO declare abbreviations such as AS OS qd and CC unusable?
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because of the high risks of being misxed up or mistaken for another term
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lwhere is the lacrimal gland located?
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within the orbit on one side of the eye
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ow many extrinsic muscles extend from the outer surface of the eye to the bones of the orbit?
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SIX
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where is vitreous humor located?
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within the vitreous body
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what muscle causes the eye to roate toward the midline?
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medial rectus
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what is accommodation?
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the ability of a lens to adjust its thikcness and shape to focus on an object at caious distances
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what two actions occur in the len when you look at a distant object?
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ciliary muschles relax and the lens becomes thinner
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what are the two external ear structures?
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the auricle (pinna) and external auditory canal
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is the system of chambers and tubes in the inner ear called?
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lambrynth
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approximately how many hair cells are located in the organ of corti?
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16000 cells
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how many vibrations per second can normal hearing detect?
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20000
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what part of the ear does the pinna guide sound waves into?
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external auditory canal
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what does dynamic equilibrium involve?
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interpreting head and body movement
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how many passageways are in the nala conchae?
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three= superior meatus, middle meatus, inferior meatus
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where are the olfactory receptors located?
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the upper postieror nasal cavity
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what are olfactory tracts?
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pathways which extend beyond olfactory bulbs
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how many primary odor groups can the nose detect?
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seven
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why are some odors difficult for us to detect?
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because olfactory receptors are located high up in the nose
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what percent of odor intensity is lost within the first second after receptor stimulation?
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50%
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what is the outermost layer of the epidermis?
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stratum corneum
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what layer of the skin contains blood vessels, sweat glands, and hair follicles?
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dermis
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hair shafts are composed mainly of what type of cells?
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deaad epidermal cells
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eat gland is usually connected to hair follicles?
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apocrine
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what type of glands secretes sebum?
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sebacious
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at is one function of the integumentary system
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one of the following- body temp, protectino, external physical characterisitcs
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when external emperaturs are high, what do blood vessels in the skin do? why?
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dilate-to increase blood flow and stimulate sweating
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what substance is produced in the deepest layer of the epidermis to protect the skin aginst damage caused by ultraviolet rays from the sun?
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melanin
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how does aging affect the skin
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decreases skin elasticity
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what is the outermost portion of a bone called?
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periosteum
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what is the main portion of a bone called?
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compact bone
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what is a condyle?
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rounded bone end that joins with another bone
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how many muscles are in the body?
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over 500
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what is the outer surface of muscle called?
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epimysium
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what type of muscle is found in the walls of blood vessels?
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multi unit
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what type of joint is a suture?
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fiberous
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what type of joint is a condyloid?
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synovial
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what is hematopoiesis?
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blood cell formation
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the heart is located in what area of the thorax?
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mediastinum
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what valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle?
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bicuspid
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what are the two largest veins in the body?
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inferior, superior vena cava
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waht are teh two functions of lymphatic system?
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maintain proper fluid balance, and devend against infection
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after passing through the lymph nodes, lmphatic vessels merge to from what component of the lymphatic system?
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lymphatic trunks
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what vein is joined to the thoracic duct?
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left subclavien vein
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into which vein does all lymnph eventually empty?
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one of the two subclavien veins
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what are macrophages?
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infection fighting organizms in lymph
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What is the function of lymphocytes?
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to fight infection
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To what part of the circulatory system do the alveoli connect directly?
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capillaries
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what is teh maiun function of the pleurae? how many layersd do the pleurae have?
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pleurar are protective linings, there are two layes
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How many lobes does the right lung have?
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3
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where are intecostal muscles?
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between the ribs
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what is the primary stimulus to breathe?
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the need to eliminate carbon dioxide from the lungs
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what controls teh action and the diaphragm?
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phrenic nerves
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when filled to capacity, approximately how much air can the lungs hold?
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6 liters
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what are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
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central nervous system, periphial nervous system
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what is the sensitive region in a neuron where impulses originates called?
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trigger zone
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where is the motor area of the serebrum located?
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frontal lobe
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what is teh name of the third cranial nerve?
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oculomotor nerves
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what type of movements does the somatic nervous system control?
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voluntary
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what part of teh nervous system automatically causes body functions to speed up?
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sympathetic
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what part of the nervous system automatically causes body functions to return to normal?
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parasympethetic
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what is contained in the third layer of the alimentary canal wall?
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submucosa contains blood vesssels, nerves, glands, and lymphatic vessels
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what are deciduous teeth?
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also known as primary 20 total. lost in teh same order they appear
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what portion of the pharynx is located behind the palate and serves as a passageway for food and air?
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the oropharynx
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what quadrant is the stomach located in?
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LUQ
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where is teh gall bladder located?
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RUQ
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where is bile produced?
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in the liver
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what are the involuntary muscle contactyions that move food from the esophagus to the stomach?
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peristalsis
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where is bile produced and stored?
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liver and gallbladder
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what is the function of the villi in the small intestine?
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to assist movement and absorbtion of nutrition
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where are the kidneys located?
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superior portion of the posterior abdominal cavity or either side of the spinal cord
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what is the concave portion of the kidney called?
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renal pelvis
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between what two parts of the urinary system do the ureters extend?
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the kidneys and teh bladder
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what is the approximate length of the female urethra
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1.5 inches
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what happens to the fluid waster that is filtered from the blood by capillaries in the glomerulus?
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waste is squeezed into the bowmans capsule
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what is the capacityy of an adults urinary bladder?
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1000-1800
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what are teh primary male sex organs?
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the testes
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what are the two male external accessory sex organs?"
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penis and scrotom
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where is teh prostate gland located?
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surrounds the beginning of teh urethra under the bladder
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what two male internal accessory sex organs does the vas deferens connect?
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epididymis and seminal vesicle
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after sperm cells are produced, where do they mature?
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epididymis
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why does the prostate gland secrete fluid into th eejaculatory duct?
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to protect sperm
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what male hormone is responsible for certain male characterisitcs?
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testosterone
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what are the primary female sex organs?
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ovaries
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what holds ovaries in their position?
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inner medulla and outer cortex
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how many layers does the uterine wall have?
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perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium
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how many female external accessory organs are there?
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four- vuvla labia majoria, labia minora, clitoris, vestibule
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at what age do females usually reach puberty?
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13
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what is the first menstrual sysle in the life of the female called?
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menarche
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what are the two female hormones?
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estrogen, progesteron
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when do menses being?
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3-7 first days
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what are cells that act as hormone receptors called?
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target cells
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what is the master gland?
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pituitary gland
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what gland scretes STH?
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anterior lobe
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what hormone promotes the production of maternal milk following childbirth?
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prolactin
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where are the adrenal glands located?
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on the superior side of eash kidney
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how many hormones are secreted by the islets of langerhans?
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3
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glucagon has a direct effect on which organ?
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the liver
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where is the repository for all mishaop investigation reports?
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the air force safety center
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what are the four specific disciplines in teh USAF safety program?
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flight safety, wepons safety, ground safety, system safety
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at the local level, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps?
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everyone assigned
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what are teh annual physical examinatinos and routine medical care designed to do for aircrew members?
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monitor and maintain health of aircrew members
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what genderal topics should be discussed periodically during the unit flying safety brifings?
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self medicatino, envoirmental stresses, cardiovascular risk factors and self imposed stresses
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what major command is responsible for missile operations?
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space command
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what are the primary hazards associated with a missle launch facility?
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tripping, fallings, confined spaces, and noise
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what are common personnel issues affiliated within a missle alert facility?
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extended duty rotations, boredome, fatigue, interpersonal problems
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how does the af categorize mishaps?
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by the envoirment in which they occur
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when does intent for flight exist?
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when aircraft brakes are released adn when aircraft power up
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which class of mishapo exists when reportable damage to an aircraft is 1,000,000 $ or more?
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class a`
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chich type of event is deemed important enough to trend for mishap prevention despite the fact they do not meet other mishap class reporting criteria?
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HAP events
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from what direction should the ambulance approach an accident site?
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upwind direction
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what procedure is used to classify the type and severity of an injury?
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triage
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what are the four triage categories and which classification has the highest priority?
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Minimal, expectant, delayed, immediate-immediate has the highest priority
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what are teh advantages of establishing a casualty holding area?
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besides simplfying transportation, it inhances the use of supplies and equipment
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what is the purpose of the 72-hour activities report?
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to determine tha adverse physiological or psychological factors in the crewmembers and wether they met flying standards
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who has the responsbility of search and recovery of human remains at an accident site?
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mortuary afffairs officer
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why should you avoid using alchohol-based solutions during autopsies?
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the smallest amount of alchohol can be left on tissues causing a false positive
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when an off base accident occurs, who has the authority to release the reamins for transportation to the MTF
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local officials
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why does the air force investigate mishaps?
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to determine their causes and recomment changes and to prevent reoccurances of a simular nature
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what report is used to document all physiological episodes?
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by message, format afi 91-204 on an af form 91-204
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define physiological episode
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event which freates abnormal physical , mental, or behavior symptoms
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what are the objectives of visting flight related envirments?
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promote flying safety provides medical indoctrine, and inspects facilities
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