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161 Cards in this Set

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Aids (def)
an infectious disease that is transmitted mainly by intimate/sexual contact and parenteral means by HIV

-CD4 lymphocyte count <200
Is HIV commonly passed to health care workers?
NO
How many years can someone go w/out showing clinical signs of HIV
10
What type of virus is HIV? and what is the core genetic material
Retrovirus

RNA is the core genetic material
Do you want a high or low CD4 count?
HIGH, the more HIV the less CD4
How early will a person develop antibodies for HIV
6-12wks
What cell does HIV replicate in?
T-helper cell

when that cell dies, the virus leaves and seeks out a new cell to infect
what is it called when people have mono-like symptoms, fever, lymphadenopathy, fatigue, mucocutaneous ulcers, pharyngitis, skin rash

(HIV related)
what time frame does it happen within?
Seroconversion sickness

2-4wks
what is the time of infection to time when symptoms of AIDS are evident called?
Incubation

(mean=10-12yrs)
Group 1/ Stage 1

(HIV)
-Immediate
-Asymptomatic
Group 2/ Stage 2

(HIV)
-HIV symptomatic stage
-SYMPTOMS show
Group 3/ Stage 3 (HIV)
-have AIDS
-CD4 count &lt;200
-opportunistic infections may be evident
What are the two ANTIBODY tests for HIV
1. ELISA or EIA

2. Western Blot Test

(if you have the antibody, you were exposed)

*ELISA is taken first, high false(+) rate so then Western Blot test is done
what are the two HIV Antigen Tests?

Which one is more sensitive
1. P24
2. PCR

*P24 is more sensitive, can do before antibody test
What test measures HIV viral load?
PCR
Asymptomatic Stage 1

(HIV CD4 stages)
-CD4 count 500-800 cells/mm3
-Asymptomatic
Early Symptomatic HIV Infection Stage 2

(HIV CD4 stages)
-CD4 count 200-500
**START antiretroviral meds**
Advanced HIV Infection Stage 3

(HIV CD4 stages)
-CD4 count <200
-pt has AIDS
-opportunistic infections
-Neoplasms
-Wasting Syndrome
What count gives you info about progression and stage of HIV?
CD4
What count tells you how active the HIV is?
Viral Load
What count tells you:
platelet count
clotting time
hemaglobiin
WBC count
CBC (Complete Blood Count)
if CD4 count is 500, is pt on antiretrovirals?
Pt doesn't have to be, it MAY BE indicated
if CD4 count is 300-500, is pt on antiretrovirals?
GENERALLY indicated

(early opportunistic infections)
if CD4 count is 200-300, is pt on antiretrovirals?
INDICATED

(some major opportunistic infections)
if CD4 count is <200, what meds are needed?
pt must PRE-MED and antiretrovirals

(AIDS dx)
How do we treat a pt w/a CD4 count >200?
Normally
When do you get a consultation based on CD4 count?
<200
What is the lowest detectable viral load for HIV?
50 copies/ml
What does the platelet count have to be to safely treat the patient?
50,000

(CBC w/differential)
What drug slows down production of HIV and is good for newly infected cells?
NRTIs

(Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors)
What drug is used to block duplication and spread of HIV?
NNRITIs

(Non-Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors)
What drug keeps non-infectious virus from becoming infectious and is also good for LONG time infected cells?
Protease Inhibitors
What drug is used on HIV patients that aren't responding well?
Nucleotides
What drug doesn't let HIV virus attack cells?
Fusion or Entry Inhibitors
What is the name of the therapy that uses 2 of the nucleoside analogs combined w/a protease inhibitor, and what is the CD4 count when this therapy is started?
Current Therapy AKA
Triple Therapy AKA
HAART

CD4 count <500
What is the most common opportunistic infection assoc w/HIV
Pneumocystitis Carinii Pneumonia
What is it when HIV is resistant to 1 drug and may become resistant to another?
Cross-resistance
Malignant neoplasias of immature white blood cells. Cancer of the WBC's affecting the bone marrow and circulating
Leukemia

-all types more common in MALES

-ACUTE more common than chronic

-Idiopathic
Where are the majority of WBC's produced?
Bone Marrow
What are immature WBC's called?
Stem cells or blasts
What form of Leukemia:

-most common in CHILDREN and <19

-Peak of incidence is 2-4yrs old

-20 fold more common w/Down Syndrome
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)
What is the prognosis of ALL
VERY good

-remission rates 90%
CURE rates 70%

(prognosis is worse for adults, REMISSION can be achieved by CHEMO, but duration is SHORT)
What form of Leukemia:

-risk factor includes exposure to radiation and BENZENE

-gen older pop (mean=63)

-DEATH in 1-3mos if left untreated
Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)

-Prognosis: <60 good, >60 poor

-<60 usually go into complete remission
When the number of blast cells is reduced and can no longer be detected the patient is said to be in ________?

(leukemia)
Remission
Tx of Leukemia 3 Phases
1. Induction (hit hard/induce state of remission)

2. Consolidation/Intensification (consolidate and kill rest of leukemic cells)

3. Remission (maintenance therapy/prevent remaining leukemic cells from expanding)
How many years of remission does a leukemic pt have to be in to be considered cured?
5
Places in the body that leukemic cells hide in and chemotherapeutics can't get to them are called what?
Sanctuaries

(CNS and testes)
What form of Leukemia:

-related to familial inheritance

-more common in Jewish, Russian, and Eastern Europe ancestry

-rare in Asian and children

-no cure
Chronic Lyphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
What are the 3 stages of CLL
1. Stage A: 2 or fewer lymph nodes

2. Stage B: 3 or more lymph nodes

3. Stage C: anemia and thrombocytopenia and any #of lymph node GROUPS (2yr survival rate)
What form of Leukemia:

-progress chronic-crisis

-60>

-inc risk w/radiation exposure

-poor prognosis (3.5yrs from time of diagnosis)
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
Clinical Signs/Symptoms of ACUTE leukemias
-sudden, severe
-death 1-3mos if untreated
**POORER prognosis if not caught early**
Clinical Signs/Symptoms of CHRONIC leukemias
-onset INSIDIOUS (quiet)
-better prognosis
-many are ASYMPTOMATIC
If the ct has severe neutropenia what do they have to do before being seen?
Pre-med
hereditary form of hemolytic anemia, resulting from defective hemoglobin molecule resulting in deoxygenated, crescent shaped erythrocytes
Sickle Cell Anemia
Etiologic factors of Sickle Cell
-African Americans

-white populations in the Mediterranean origin (protected ethnicity from Malaria)

-genetically passed by carrier parents only

-genetic code AS = trait

-genetic code SS = Sickle Cell
What blood test is given to detect Sickle Cell?
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis
with sickle cell, what is it called when production of red blood cells STOP
Aplastic Crisis
This is the medical management of what disease?

-FOLATE supplements

-vaccinate children

-genetic counseling for those w/trait

-stem-cell transplant

-PCN pre-med first 5yrs of life
Sickle Cell Anemia
What drug is used to prevent cells from sickling?
Hyroxyurea
What oral findings are there w/Sickle Cell anemia
-decreased radiodensity

-coarse trabecular pattern

-sig bone loss in children
These are Tx modifications for what disease:

-during crisis, emerg tx only

-avoid long, complicated tx

-local anesthetic w/out epi

-avoid barbituates/strong narcotics

-avoid liberal use of slicylates(aspirins)

-use nitrous-oxide w/greater than 50% oxygen
Sickle Cell Anemia
Congenital bleeding disorder of one of the blood clotting factors
Hemophilia

Inherited: genetically transferred

Acquired: secondary to diseases
What type of hemophilia accounts for most hemophiliac patients?
Hemophilia A (80-85%)
What are the 3 Classifications of Hemophilia
1. Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency)

2. Hemophilia B aka Christmas Disease
(factor XI deficiency)

3. Von Willebrand's Disease (platelet adhesion)
4 Phases of Controlled Bleeding
1. Vascular Phase (IMMEDIATELY after injury)

2. Platelet Phase (SECONDS after, mechanical plugs, becomes "sticky")

3. Coagulation Phase (MORE SLOWLY than other phases)

4. Fibrinolytic Phase (DISSOLVES blood clot)
What gene is Hemophilia A linked to?
X-linked

(dad won't transmit to sons, but daughters will become carriers)
What Hemophilia is:

-most common
-BEST known CLOTTING defect
-affects males
-apparent in childhood
-bleeding seems to stop after injury RESUMES in 1hr
Hemophilia A
What hemophilia is:

-deficiency in factor IX
-primarily manifests in males
-female carriers
(more rare)
Hemophilia B (Christmas Disease)
What hemophilia is:

-most common INHERITED bleeding disorder
-1% of population
-defect in PLATELET fx
-affects males and females
Von Willebrand's Disease
This level of hemophilia have 1% of the clotting factor and BLEED SPONTANEOUSLY
Severe
This level of hemophilia

-hemorrhage ONLY w/TRAUMA
-1x per MONTH
Moderate
This level of hemophilia:

-bleed only AFTER SEVERE INJURY and surgery
Mild
These are signs/symptoms of what disease?

-large, deep bruising
-intramuscular bruising
-HEMARTHROSES (bleeding into soft tissues/joints=pain)
-severe complications include AIRWAY obstruction, intestinal obstruction, compression of nerves=paralysis
Hemophilia
What 3 bleeding areas are life threatening w/hemophilia?
-head
-throat
-gut
what are the 4 Factor Replacement therapies for Hemophilia
1. Whole Blood
2. Plazma
3. Cryoprecipitate
4. Factor Concentrates
Why is Whole Blood replacement therapy difficult?
-must be fresh
-compatible
-need large volumes
-may overload body=stop heart
What is the best factor replacement therapy? Why?
Factor Concentrate

b/c:
-made from human blood or manufactured
-VERY EFFECTIVE

(expensive, safety depends on methods)
What meds should hemophiliacs avoid and why?
aspirin/NSAIDS

b/c they THIN BLOOD
What is the best screening test for hemophilia?
PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time)
What screen test is used to screen for possible bleeding problems b/c of THROMBOCYTOPENIA?
Platelet Count
What test measures platelet fx?
Platelet Function Analyzer 100
What test is used to screen for inherited disorders of platelet fx (how long it takes to stop bleeding after fresh cut)
Ivy Bleeding Time
Cancer of the lyphoid organs and tissues
(grouped as B-cell and T-cell neoplasms)
Lymphomas
What is the name of the lymphoma that:

-is an ORDERLY SPREAD from 1 lymph node to another

-affects any age group

-2 peaks in life (1 early, 1 in the 5th decade)

-mostly males

-firm, NON-TENDER, enlarged lymph node UPPER body (neck, underarms, chest)
Hodgkin's
What is the etiology of Hodgkin's disease
unknown
What virus is generally present w/Hodgkin's disease
Ebstein-Barr
What disease are these signs/symptoms

-fever
-BONE PAIN
-weigh loss
-night sweats
-ENLARGED lymph nodes of UNDERARM/GROIN area
-PAIN following ALCOHOL consumption
Hodgkin's Disease
What are the 4 Stages of tx for Hodgkin's disease
Stage 1: 1 lymph node or 1grp
RADIOTHERAPY only

Stage 2: 2+grps on ONE side of diaphragm
RADIOTHERAPY only

Stage III: involvement of lymph nodes on BOTH sides of diaphragm
RADIOTHERAPY or CHEMO

Stage IV: Diffuse
CHEMO
How early do patients RELAPSE w/Hodgkin's disease
2yrs

(5yr survival in earlier stages 90%
later stages 60%)
What lymphoma

-B-cells more commonly affected
-5th most common cancer in females, 6th in males
-time of dx is 67, more common

-prognosis is gen poor chemo or radation
Non-Hodgkin's
what disease are these signs/symptoms of

-TENDER lymph nodes
Non-Hodgkin's
What type of Lymphoma:

-AGGRESSIVE of B-cell origin

-one of the most CURABLE lymphomas

-Endemic to Central Africa

-tx=HIGH DOSE CHEMO

-if live past 2yrs, enjoy long-term remission
Burkitt's Lymphoma
Type of Burkitt's

-found in Africa
-related to EBV
-HIGH chance of involving jaw
-commonly involves abdomen
Endemic Burkitt's Lymphoma
Type of Burkitt's

-common in rest of world
-BONE MARROW common
-RARE jaw involvement
-90% of abdomens in children
Sporadic Burkitt's Lymphoma
What disease are these oral manifestations of?

-Waldeyer's Ring: erythematous swelling w/surface ulcerations as result of trauma (may involve pharynx, palate, tongue, gingiva, lips)

-Herpes Zoster
-Herpetic Stomatitis
-Oral Candidiasis
Lymphoma
What tx involves use of chemical agents in order to destroy/deactivate cancer cells
Chemotherapy
What two terms are used to describe chemotherapy
1. Antineoplastic (anti-cancer)

2. Cytotoxic (cell killing)
What are the 2 main uses of chemotherapy
1. reduce size of lesion and destroy cancer cells

2. After surgery, kill cancer cells that may have spread throughout body
3 Possible Chemotherapy GOALS
1. Cure
2. Control
3. Palliation (relieve symptoms of cancer)
What are the 2 Protocols for Chemotherapy
1. Cycle: 1 time/1 round schedule

2. Course: ALL cycles in entire tx
What type of chemotherapy is used BEFORE SURGERY or radiation to shrink the tumor/growth
Neoadjuvant
What type of chemotherapy is used AFTER surgery or radiation
Adjuvant
What HEALTHY cells does chemotherapy commonly affect
-skin
-lining of stomach
-intestines
-bladder
What are common side effects of chemo
-nausea/vomitting
-Retching
-appetite loss (anorexia)
-Alopecia (hair loss)
-possible weight gain
-Esophagitis
-Mucositis: inflam of mucous membrane lining ENTIRE DIGESTIVE TRACT (from mouth to rectum)
Blood related side effects of chemotherapy
-bone marrow suppression (DEC RBC's, WBC's, platelets)

-Nadir: time when blood components are at their lowest
(1-2wks after chemo starts)

Anemia: low RBC's

Neutropenia: low WBC's

Thrombocytopenia: low platelets
What is the common sign of neutropenia
"shake & bake"
fever-->chills

(ck temp 1-2xday, if >100 call dr
Signs of Thrombocytopenia
-easy bruising
-bleeding from skin doesn't stop
-INTERNAL BLEEDING
how many days after chemo is started should you treat the pt
7-20days
What type of cancer therapy uses electromagnetic radiation in order to destroy cancer cells
Radiation Therapy
What are the 3 types of beams used for radiation therapy
1. External Beam Therapy
2. Internal: Interstitial Implant, Brachytherapy
3. Systemic Radiation Therapy
What type of radiation therapy:

-usually given on outpatient basis
-treat most types of cancer
-beam generated OUTSIDE targeted at tumor site
EBT (External Beam Therapy)
What type of radiation therapy:

-place radioactive material INSIDE body
-temporary or permanent
Internal Beam
What type of radiation therapy

-radioactive material taken BY MOUTH or INJECTED
-tx for thyroid, non-hodgkins lymphoma
Systemic
What time of leukemia can be cured
Acute
what disease is caused by permanent damage to bone and blood supply, characterized by exposed bone that fails to heal after high-dose radiation in the jaws
Osteoradionecrosis (ORN)
what complication is treated by:

-mouth rinse w/Salt and Sodium Bicarbonate.
-cocktail of Benadryl and lidocaine
-Milk of Magnesia
Mucositis

(dentures should NOT be worn until acute phase has resolved)
What med is given for herpetic infenctions
Acyclovir
What form of fl should be used for radiated pt
Fl Gel for sensitivity
what is the most common secondary infection w/radiated patients
Pseudomembranous Candidiasis
What drug effects healing and causes bone problems (jaw) in radiated patients

-taken for osteoperosis
Bisphosphonate
What is the other name for Down Syndrome
mongolism
What chromosome does Down Syndrome effect
Chromosome 21 (trisomy 21)
What condition are these signs/symptoms of:

-Hypotonia (overall growth retardation)

-Microcephaly (small head)

-Strabismus (convergent eyes)

-Simian Crease (single palmar crease)
Down Syndrome
What are pt w/Down Syndrome more at risk for
Leukemia (20x)
What condition are these oral findings related to:

-Prognathism
-Protrusive, fissured tongue (tongue thrust)
-DEC salivary flow
-Microdontia
-Enamel Dyslplasia
-Malocclusion
-Macroglossia
-Taurodontism
Down Syndrome
What are oral health care precautions should be taken w/Down Syndrome
-Med Consult
-Excessive Gag reflex
-Antibiotic premed for heart defects
-consult for nitrous-oxide
What condition refers to:

a collection of neurologically-based developmental disorders in which individuals have impairments in social interaction and communication skills
Autism
What type of disorder is Autism considered to be
Sprectum Disorder
What sex is autism more common in and when does it appear
4x more common in MALES

appears w/in first 3yrs
What type of Autism is ONLY found in GIRLS?
Rett's Disorder
What condition are these signs/symptoms of:

-communication-language develops slow or never
-Echolalia (parrot-like repitition)
-difficulty w/change
Autism
What condition is:

-IQ below 70
-Sub-average intellectual fx
Mental Retardation
What are the 4 stages of Mental Retardation
1. Mild
2. Moderate
3. Severe
4. Profound
What stage of mental retardation is
-Educable
-6th grade academic ability
Mild
Mental Retardation
What stage of mental retardation is:
-trainable
-2nd grade academic ability
-good self-care skills
-jobs w/supervision
Moderate
Mental Retardation
What stage of mental retardation is:
-CUSTODIAL
-ongoing, consistent levels of support
-BASIC self care
-CLOSE supervision
-Group homes or live w/family
Severe
Mental Retardation
What stage of mental retardation is:
-Custodial
-HIGH level of support for ADL
Profound
Mental Retardation
What type of factors are these regarding mental retardation

-Chromosomal abnormalities
-Congenital factors
-Genetic neurologic disorders
-malnutrition
Prenatal factors
What type of factors are these regarding mental retardation

-Prematurity
-CNS bleeding
-Breech or High Forceps delivery
-Preeclampsia (sudden high BP)
Perinatal Factors
What type of factors are these regarding mental retardation

-Viral/bacterial Encephalitides
-Lead and Mercury Poisoning
-SEVERE malnutrition
-HEAD INJURIES
-Asphysxia
Postnatal Factors
4 Levels of Mental Retardation
Level A: severe

Level B: moderate

Level C: mild

Level D: normal
What condition are these signs/symptoms of:

-difficulty in learning/applying
-Microcephaly (small head)
-Hydrocephaly (expansion of the cranium)
Mental Retardation
What condition are these oral manifestations assoc with?

-Higher prevalence of perio
-higher incidence of malocclusion and deviations

(may be some physical self-abuse)
Mental Retardation
What are some special considerations for mental retardation
Tell-show-do
-direct communication
-warm,friendly atmosphere
-Nitrous Oxide
What condition is

-most common form of Dimentia
-brain shrinks as gap develops
-progressive, irreversible brain disorder

-no gender/race prevalence
Alzheimer's Disease
What is the etiology for Alzheimer's disease
not certain
-age and family hx possible
What condition are these signs/symptoms for

-memory loss affects job
-difficulty performing familiar tasks
-disorientation w/time and place
-change in personality
Alzheimer's Disease
4 Stages of Alzheimer's Disease
1. Early Stage
2. Middle Stage
3. Advanced Stage
4. Terminal Stage
What stage of Alzheimer's Disease is:

-forgetfullness
-personality changes
-work performance difficulty
-social withdrawal
-errors in judgment
Early stage
What stage of Alzheimer's is:

-Disorientation
-loss of coordination
-progressive memory loss
-terrible/sudden disaster reactions (b/c of loss of time)
Middle Stage
What stage of Alzheimer's is:

-Profound comprehension difficulty
-bowel incontinence
-seizures
-inability to recognize family
-aggression
Advanced Stage
What stage of Alzheimer's is:

-physical IMMOBILITY
-difficulty swallowing
-mutism
-unaware of surroundings
-total helplessness
Terminal Stage
What are the 4 FDA approved drugs for Alzheimer's and when do they have to be started to work
1. Cognex
2. Atricept
3. Exelon
4. Reminyl

have to start them EARLY
What condition is this tx plan appropriate for:

-short appt
-best in morning, not dark
-don't treat like child
-DHE short/simple
-sedation may be necessary
-3-sided toothbrush
-tell them it's "non-gagging"
-explain EVERYTHING
-put cotton rolls on instruments to trick them
Alzheimer's Diseasee
What condition can result from:

any structural/functional cardiac disorder that impairs the ability of the ventricle to fill with/eject blood
Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
What is the most common cause of death in the US
Congestive Heart Failure

(more common in elderly, 5% <40)
These are the most common causes of what condition:

-Coronary artery disease
-hypertension
-cardiomyopathy(enlarged heart)
-infective endocarditis
-valvular heart disease
-pulmonary embolism
-endocrine disease
CHF
These are the signs/sympoms of what disease:

-Rapid/Shallow breathing

-Cheyne-Stokes respiration (periodic breathing shallow to deep)

-Inspiratory Rales (crackling)

-Gallop rhythm

-Heart murmur

-Ascites (fluid accumulates in abdomen)
CHF
What are the 3 stages of CHF
1. First stage: ventricular dysfunction, development of gallop rhythm

2. Second stage: dyspnea, pulmonary congestion, peripheral edema

3. Third stage: compensated heart failure
4 Classes of CHF
Class I: no limitation, no problems

Class II: Slight limitation, fatigue , palpitations, but COMFORTABLE AT REST

Class III: MARKED limitation of activity, less than ordinary physical activity, COMFORTABLE at REST

Class IV: symptoms PRESENT at REST
what 4 Treatments are used for CHF
1. ACE inhibitors **MOST IMPORTANT when fighting CHF

2. Diuretics: given w/other meds
(lowers BP)

3. Beta Blockers: prevent adrenaline from binding to heart cells (slows heart rate)

4. Inotropes: INC strength of heart's contractions (prescribe ACE inhibitors before inotropes)