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188 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Describe the "Anatomic Position".
- Erect or lying supine
- Arms at sides
- Palms face forward
- Legs together
- Feet directed forward
What are the four "Anatomic Planes"?
1. Median (Midsagittal) Plane
2. Sagittal Plane
3. Frontal (Coronal) Plane
4. Transverse (Horizontal) Plane
Describe the "Median (Midsagittal) Plane".
- Vertical plane
- Divides body equally into left and right
Describe the "Sagittal Plane".
- Vertical plane
- Parallel to "Median (Midsagittal) Plane"
- Off of midline
Describe the "Frontal (Coronal) Plane".
- Vertical plane
- Perpendicular to "Median (Midsagittal) Plane"
- Divides body into anterior and posterior sections
Describe the "Transverse (Horizontal) Plane".
- Perpindicular to "Median (Midsagittal) Plane" and "Frontal (Coronal) Plane"
- Divides body by cross sections
Define the difference between the terms "Superficial" and "Deep".
- Superficial is close to the surface of the body
- Deep is close to the center of the body
Define the difference between the terms "Medial" and "Lateral".
- Medial is toward the median (midline / midsagittal plane)
- Lateral is away from the median
Define the difference between the terms "Anterior" and "Posterior". What are the interchangeable terms for these?
- Anterior, or Ventral, is toward the front aspect of the body
- Posterior, or Dorsal, is toward the back aspect of the body
Define the difference between the terms "Palmar" and "Plantar".
- Palmar is the ventral side of the hand; Dorsal is used for the back of the hand
- Plantar is the sole of the foot; Dorsal is used for the top of the foot
Define the difference between the terms "Superior" and "Inferior". What other terms can be interchanged for these?
- Superior, or Cephalic, or Rostral, is toward the head
- Inferior, or Caudal, is toward the feet
Define the difference between the terms "Proximal" and "Distal".
- Proximal is close to the median or near the origin of a structure
- Distal is away from the origin of a structure
Define the difference between the terms "Prone" and "Supine". Provide examples for clarification.
- Prone is anterior surface down (e.g. laying on your stomach)
- Supine is anterior surface up (e.g. laying on your back)
Define the difference between the terms "Extrinsic" and "Intrinsic".
- Extrinsic originates outside of a part
- Intrinsic is located entirely within a part
Define the difference between the terms "Varus" and "Valgus".
- Varus - angulation of a body segment towards the midline
- Valgus - angulation of a body segment away from the midline
What are the four terms of laterality?
1. Bilateral
2. Unilateral
3. Ipsilateral
4. Contralateral
Which term for laterality is used to describe paired structures?
Bilateral
Which term for laterality is used to describe structures that only occur on one side of the body?
Unilateral
Which term for laterality is used to relate two structures on the same side as each other?
Ipsilateral
Which term for laterality is used to relate two structures on the opposite side as each other?
Contralateral
Define the difference between the terms "Flexion" and "Extension". Provide examples.
- Flexion decreases the angle between body parts (e.g. bending arm at elbow)
- Extension increases the angle between body parts (e.g. straightening leg at knee)
Define the difference between the terms "Abduction" and "Adduction".
- Abduction is movement away from the median
- Adduction is movement towards the median
Define the difference between the terms "Medial Rotation" and "Lateral Rotation". Provide examples.
- Medial rotation is movement of the anterior surface toward the median (e.g. bringing flexed arm across chest)
- Lateral rotation is movement of the anterior surface away from the median (e.g. directing the head to the side)
Define the difference between the terms "Elevation" and "Depression".
- Elevation raises or moves a structure superiorly
- Depression lowers or moves a structure inferiorly
Define the difference between the terms "Protraction" and "Retraction". Provide examples.
- Protraction moves a structure anteriorly (e.g. stick tongue out of mouth)
- Retraction moves a structure toward the median (e.g. withdrawing tongue)
What terms of movement does "Circumduction" combine?
- Flexion / Extension
- Abduction / Adduction
Which joint specific terms of movement refer to rotations of the forearm? What do these terms specifically describe?
- Pronation - medial rotation so that palm faces posteriorly
- Supination - lateral rotation so that palm faces anteriorly
Which joint specific terms of movement refer to rotations of the foot? What do these terms specifically describe?
- Inversion - rotates the plantar surface inward
- Eversion - rotates the plantar surface laterally
Which joint specific terms of movement refer to rotations of the ankle joint? What do these terms specifically describe?
- Plantar flexion - downward flexion (flexion) of the foot
- Dorsiflexion - upward flexion (extension) of the foot
Which joint specific terms of movement refer to rotations of the temporomandibular joint? What do these terms specifically describe?
- Protrusion - anterior movement of the mandible
- Retrusion - posterior movement of the mandible
Which joint specific terms of movement refer to rotations of the hand at the wrist? What do these terms specifically describe?
- Radial deviation - abduction of the hand (movement away from median)
- Ulnar deviation - adduction of the hand (movement towards the median)
Which joint specific term of movement refers to rotation of the thumb?
Opposition / Reposition - rotation about a complex axis (uniquely human characteristic)
What are the four ways that bones can be classified?
1. Shape
2. Location
3. Structure
4. Development
What are the types of bone shapes?
1. Long bones
2. Short bones
3. Flat bones
4. Irregular bones
5. Sesamoid bones
What are the two portions of the skeleton?
- Axial (skyll, vertebral column, ribs, sternum, and hyoid)
- Appendicular (limbs and pectoral and pelvic girdle)
What are the two ways bones can be differentiated based on structure?
- Compact
- Spongy
What are the two ways that bones can be distinguished based on development?
- Membranous bone
- Endochondral (cartilaginous) bone
Joints can be classified by the substances that unite the bones; what are the three categories?
1. Fibrous - bones connected by fibrous tissue
2. Cartilaginous - bones connected by cartilage
3. Synovial - joint cavity lined by synovial membrane
What kind of movement occurs at a fibrous joint? Give two examples of this kind of joint.
- Minimal or no movement
- Syndesmoses (inferior tibiofibular)
- Sutures (skull)
What kind of movement occurs at a cartilaginous joint? Give two examples of this kind of joint.
- Movement depends upon the compressibility of the intervening fibrocartilage (no gliding)
- Primary - located between epiphysis and diaphysis (disappear with age)
- Secondary (aka symphyses) - strong, slightly movable joints (e.g., intervertebral discs)
What kind of movement occurs at a synovial joint?
- Bones slide across one another
What is the most common type of joint?
Synovial joint (bones slide across one another)
What are the components of a synovial joint?
1. Articular Cartilage
2. Fibrous Capsule
3. Synovial Membrane
Describe the "Articular Cartilage" that contributes to the structure of a Synovial Joint?
- The areas of the bone that come in contact, the articular surfaces, are usually covered with "Hyaline Cartilage"
- This receives no blood vessels or nerves
Describe the "Fibrous Capsule" that contributes to the structure of a Synovial Joint?
- Attached to the bones away from the site of contact
- Completely encases the joint
Describe the "Synovial Membrane" that contributes to the structure of a Synovial Joint?
- Thin membrane inside of the fibrous capsule
- Secretes a thin film of fluid within the synovial cavity that permits smooth movements between bones
What are the six types of Synovial Joints?
1. Plane
2. Hinge
3. Saddle
4. Condyloid
5. Ball and Socket
6. Pivot
Describe a "Plane" Synovial Joint and give an example.
- Articular surfaces are flat; joint permits gliding motions
- e.g., intercarpal
Describe a "Hinge" Synovial Joint and give an example.
- Permits flexion and extension only
- e.g., elbow
Describe a "Saddle" Synovial Joint and give an example.
- Permits ab/adduction and flexion/extension
- e.g., carpometacarpal joint of thumb
Describe a "Condyloid" Synovial Joint and give an example.
- Permits ab/adduction and flexion/extension, although movement in one plane is usually greater
- e.g., wrist
Describe a "Ball and Socket" Synovial Joint and give an example.
- Allows movement in multiple axes and planes
- e.g., shoulder
Describe a "Pivot" Synovial Joint and give an example.
- Permits rotation around a central axis
- e.g., superior radioulnar
What is Hilton's Law (re: nerve supply to joints)?
Innervation of joints is generally by branches of nerves that either supply the muscles acting at that joint or the skin covering the joint
How many vertebrae are there at birth compared to how many there are as an adult?
- 33 vertebrae at birth (5 sacral and 4 coccygeal fuse)
- 26 vertebrae as adult (7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx)
What separates the individual vertebrae? Function?
Intervertebral discs - fibrocartilage acts as shock absorbers
What is the structure of the intervertebral discs?
- Tough outer "Annulus Fibrosus"
- Inner "Nucleus Pulposus"
What does the spinal cord run through?
Vertebral Foramina
What are the spinal cord and brain bathed in?
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
Between what layers is the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) found?
- Pia mater
- Arachnoid mater
What passes through the intervertebral foramina?
Spinal Nerves (31 pairs)
(Intervertebral foramina are formed by successive vertebrae)
What are the two types of curvatures of the spine and how are they differentiated?
- Primary Curvatures - develop during fetal period; concave anteriorly (thoracic and sacral)
- Secondary Curvatures - develop in response to forces generated by holding head (cervical) and walking (lumbar); convex anteriorly
What are the three types of abnormal curvatures of the spine?
- Kyphosis
- Lordosis
- Scoliosis
What is "Kyphosis"?
- "Hunchback" - increase in posterior curvature of spine
What causes "Kyphosis"?
- Most commonly "postural kyphosis" (due to bad posture)
- Also caused by resorption of the anterior parts of the thoracic vertebral bodies from osteoporosis
What is "Lordosis"?
Abnormal increase in the anterior curvature of the spine; can lead to lower back pain
What causes "Lordosis"?
- May be caused by weakening of anterior abdominal wall musculature as a result of weight gain
- Or may be transiently manifested in pregnant women due to anterior fetal protrusion in abdomen
What is "Scoliosis"?
Abnormal lateral curvature of spine
What causes "Scoliosis"?
May be caused by an absent half of a vertebra or a wedge-shaped vertebra, or by an asymmetric weakness in back musculature
What are the five important ligaments to know for the vertebral column?
- Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
- Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
- Supraspinous Ligaments
- Ligamentum Flavum
- Interspinous Ligaments
Where does the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament run?
- Superior to Inferior in front of vertebral bodies
- Connects adjacent vertebrae
- Runs from occipital bone (skull) to sacrum
What is the function of the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament?
- Helps secure intervertebral discs
- Prevents hyperextension of vertebral column
What can happen during whiplash to a specific ligament of the vertebral column?
Cervical hyperextension of the anterior longitudinal ligament
Where does the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament run?
- Runs on posterior aspect of vertebral bodies (inside the vertebral canal)
- Runs from axis (C2) to sacrum
- Continuous with tectorial membrane (which attaches to occipital bone superiorly)
What is the function of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament?
Helps prevent hyper-flexion of vertebral column and posterior protrusion of discs (herniation)
Which ligament of the vertebral column helps prevent herniation?
Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (if hyper-flexed, disc may protrude)
Where does the Supraspinous Ligament run?
Attaches to tips of adjacent vertebral spines (posterior side of vertebrae)
In the cervical region, what two ligaments combine and thicken to form the Ligamentum Nuchae?
Supraspinous and Interspinous Ligaments
What does the Ligamentum Flavum connect to?
Connects to lamina of adjacent vertebrae
Which ligament of the vertebral column is yellowish in color?
Ligamentum Flavum
What does the Interspinous Ligament connect?
Connects adjacent vertebral spines
Spinal arteries supply blood to what areas?
- Vertebral column
- Nerve roots
- Spinal cord
The spinal arteries take origin from what other arteries?
Many:
- Cervical region: occipital, vertebral, deep cervical, and ascending cervical
- Thoracic region: posterior intercostals
- Lumbar region: subcostal and lumbars
- Sacral region: iliolumbar and lateral sacrals
If the blood supply is disrupted to the spinal cord, what can result?
- Paresis (weakness)
- Paralysis (loss of function)
Which veins are important for returning blood to the heart from the back? Where are they located, generally speaking?
- External vertebral venous plexus (external to vertebral column)
- Internal vertebral venous plexus (within vertebral canal)
What do the vertebral venous plexuses drain into?
- Vertebral vein
- Intercostal vein
- Lumbar vein
- Lateral sacral vein
Why is it important to note that the vertebral venous plexuses connect freely between the neck, thorax, abdomen, and pelvis?
May provide a route for the spread of infection or cancerous cell metastasis to the vertebrae, spinal cord, and/or brain
What are the three layers of muscle in the back?
- Superficial (extrinsic muscles)
- Intermediate (extrinsic muscles)
- Deep (intrinsic muscles)
What muscles should be known from the "superficial" muscle group of the back?
- Trapezius
- Latissimus dorsi
- Levator scapulae
- Rhomboids major and minor
Where do the "superficial" muscles of the back connect to?
Shoulder girdle; connect appendicular to axial skeleton
What muscles should be known from the "intermediate" muscle group of the back?
- Serratus posterior superior
- Serratus posterior inferior
What are the "serratus posterior superior and inferior" muscles used for?
Respiration
Injury to what muscles would hinder respiration?
Serratus posterior superior and inferior muscles
What muscles should be known from the "deep" muscle group of the back?
- Erector spinae: spinalis (medial), longissimus (intermediate), iliocostalis (lateral)
- Splenius
- Semispinalis
- Multifidus
- Rotatores
What is the function of the deep erector spinae muscles?
Extension of the vertebral column
Injury to which muscles usually causes "back strain" due to excessive extension and/or lateral rotation of the vertebral column?
Erector spinae muscles (spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis)
Which area of the back is easiest to hear breath sounds from from a stethoscope?
"Auscultatory Triangle" - bounded by the latissimus dorsi, trapezius, and medial border of scapula; rhomboid major forms the floor
Where does the spinal cord run to and from?
- Starts at the foramen magnum with the medulla oblongata of the brain
- Terminates at the L1 or L2 vertebra with the "Conus Medullaris"
What surrounds and protects the spinal cord?
- Three meninges: dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater
- CSF in subarachnoid space
Where are the enlargements of the spinal cord? What comes off of these enlargements?
- Cervical and lumber enlargements
- Gives origin to the brachial and lumbar plexuses
The spinal cord tapers off to form what structure?
Conus medullaris
The pia mater extends past the conus medullaris (inferior end of spinal cord) to form what?
- Filum terminale
- Extends from the conus medullaris to the posterior surface of the coccyx
How many spinal nerves are there? How do they connect to the spinal cord?
- 31 pairs of spinal nerves
- Attach to spinal cord by ventral (motor) and dorsal (sensory) roots
Which of the two "roots" of the spinal nerves has a ganglion?
Dorsal root (ganglion) - contains sensory information
The lumbar and sacral nerves extend downward to form what structure?
"Cauda Equina" = horse's tail; vertical leash of nerves around the filum terminale (extension of pia mater)
After the spinal nerve emerges from the intervertebral foramen, it divides into what structures?
- Large ventral ramus
- Smaller dorsal ramus
- Both contain motor and sensory fibers
Which of the three meninges of the spinal cord is the most external? What is it made of?
Dura mater - made of dense fibrous tissue
Which of the three meninges of the spinal cord is in the middle?
Arachnoid mater - delicate, impermeable membrane
What separates the arachnoid mater from the pia mater?
A wide space called the subarachnoid space, which is filled with CSF
Which of the three meninges of the spinal cord is closest to the spinal cord?
Pia mater - vascular membrane
What structure represents the thickened pia mater between the nerve roots?
Denticulate Ligament
How can you distinguish a cervical vertebrae from the other types of vertebrae?
- Smallest vertebral body
- Foramen within transverse process (foramen transversarium)
How can you distinguish a thoracic vertebrae from the other types of vertebrae?
- Medium sized vertebral body
- Facets for rib tubercle on transverse process
How can you distinguish a lumbar vertebrae from the other types of vertebrae?
- Largest vertebral bodies
- Short vertebral spines
- No foramen or facet for rib on the transverse process
What are the two special vertebrae?
- Atlas (C1) - holds up the head
- Axis (C2) - contains "dens" or "odontoid process" on which atlas turns
Which of the cervical vertebrae is the strongest?
Axis (C2)
What is the bump on the back of the skull called above the nape of the neck? (Surface Anatomy)
External Occipital Protuberance
Along the midline of the back, what structures can be felt? (Surface Anatomy)
Spinous processes of vertebrae
What bony structure can be felt running diagonally from the back of the shoulder towards the middle of the back on either side? (Surface Anatomy)
Spine of Scapula
What structure on the top of the shoulder can be felt that the clavicle articulates with? (Surface Anatomy)
Acromion of Scapula
What pointy structure can be felt on the middle of either side of the back (bottom of the "shoulder blade")? (Surface Anatomy)
Inferior angle of scapula
Heading medially and superiorly from the "inferior angle of the scapula" what structure can be felt? (Surface Anatomy)
Medial Border of the Scapula
Which superficial back muscle can be felt extending from the upper back through the neck? (Surface Anatomy)
Trapezius
Which superficial back muscle covers the ribs? (Surface Anatomy)
Latissimus dorsi
The top of the hip bone that can be felt on the lower back is called what? (Surface Anatomy)
Iliac Crest
What are the two important joints to know between vertebrae?
- Intervertebral Joint / Symphysis
- Zygapophyseal Joint / Facet
The Intervertebral Joint / Symphysis is found where? What does it consist of?
In between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae; Filled with intervertebral disc for additional weight support (secondary cartilaginous joints)
The Zygapophyseal Joints / Facets are found where?
In between the inferior articular process of the superior vertebrae and the superior articular process of the inferior vertebrae
What is the purpose of the zygapophyseal joint?
- Assists in keeping adjacent vertebrae aligned
- In particular, prevents one vertebra from slipping anteriorly on the vertebra below
What makes up the intervertebral disc?
- Pads of fibrocartilage
- Anulus fibrosus (outer fibrous portion)
- Nucleus pulposus (watery for absorbing shock)
- Permit movement between adjacent vertebrae
Which arteries supply the spinal cord with blood?
- 1 anterior and 2 posterior spinal arteries arise from the vertebral arteries (these only sufficient to supply the upper cervical spinal cord levels)
- Reinforced by radicular arteries (branch off of the posterior intercostal arteries)
Where do the spinal nerves run? How does this make them vulnerable?
- They leave the spinal cord via the ventral and dorsal root where they combine to form the spinal nerve
- This runs through the space between intervertebral foramina (between adjacent pedicles, vertebral bodies, intervertebral discs, and articular processes)
- Herniation of the disc, fracture of vertebral bodies, and osteoarthritis of neighboring joints can put pressure on the nerves
Spinal nerves are above/below which vertebrae?
- C1-C7 spinal nerves go above the vertebra of the corresponding number
- C8 and inferior spinal nerves go below the vertebra of the corresponding number (although C8 goes below C7 vertebra)
Based on where spinal nerves are positioned relative to the corresponding vertebrae, when a herniated disc appears, which spinal nerve will it affect? Provide an example.
- E.g., if the intervertebral disc between L4 and L5 herniates, the L5 spinal nerve will be affected
- Spinal nerves beyond C8 go laterally above the intervertebral disc below their corresponding vertebrae
Where does the spinal cord end (in terms of which vertebrae) in the adult?
- At Conus Medullaris (vertebral level L1-L2)
- Cauda Equina (extension of spinal nerves beyond L1/L2 level which descend inferiorly until their respective exits
Where does the spinal cord end (in terms of which vertebrae) in the infant?
- Beyond L1-L2 (adult)
- Approximately at L3
- The difference is due to the spinal cord halting growth in early childhood while the skeletal system continues to grow
What does "bifidus" (as seen in the disorder Spina Bifida?
Cleft in two parts
What occurs abnormally in the disorder Spina Bifida?
- Vertebral laminae fail to fuse
- Lack of spinous process
- Usually at lower lumbar or sacral levels
What are the four specific types of Spina Bifida?
- Spina bifida occulta
- Spina bifida cystica
- Spina bifida cystica with meningocele
- Spina bifida cystica with meningomyelocele
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spina Bifida Occulta"?
- "cultus" = to cover or hide
- One or more spinus processes fail to form at lumbar or sacral levels
- Usually asymptomatic
- Often goes unrecognized and may be marked by a tuft of hair in skin over the defect
- Mildest form of spina bifida
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spina Bifida Cystica"?
- "kystis" - bladder
- A cyst protrudes through the defect in the vertebral arch
- Can be diagnosed in utero based on elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein and amniocentesis and by ultrasound imaging
- May result in hydrocephalus ("water in the brain") and neurological deficits
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spina Bifida Cystica with Meningocele"?
- "meninx" - membrane; "kele" - tumor
- Protrusion of the membranes of the spinal cord through a defect in the spinal column
- The "cyst" is lined by the meninges and contains CSF
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spina Bifida Cystica with Meningomyelocele"?
- "meninx" - membrane; "kele" - tumor; "myelos" - marrow
- Protrusion of the membranes and spinal cord through the defect in the vertebral column
- Displacement of the cord stretches lumbosacral spinal nerves and results in bladder, bowel, or lower limb weakness
What is the route in which malignant diseases can be spread from the pelvis to the skull?
Vertebral Venous Plexus
What tissues are passed through when giving a spinal tap?
- Skin
- Fascia
- Interspinous Ligament
- Ligamentum Flavum
- Fatty Tissue
- Internal Vertebral Venous plexus
- Dura Mater
- Arachnoid Mater (into subarachnoid space where CSF is taken)
What is the procedure for giving a spinal tap?
- Fourth lumbar spine is identified by passing an imaginary line between the highest points on the iliac crests
- Patient lies on side with vertebral column well flexed (hunched like cat)
- Lumbar puncture needle is passed through vertebral canal either above or below 4th lumbar spine
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spinal Cord Ischemia"?
- Blood supply to the spinal cord is meager
- Anterior and posterior spinal arteries have small and variable diameters
- Reinforcing segmental arteries vary in number and size
- Ischemia of spinal cord can easily follow minor damage to the arterial supply as a result of regional anesthesia, pain block procedures, or aortic surgery
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spondylitis"?
- "spondylos" = vertebra; "itis" = inflammation
- Inflammation of one or more of the vertebrae
- Can result in additional bone growth by osteoblasts at margins of vertebral bodies
- Anterior longitudinal ligament and the sacroiliac joints may undergo calcification
- Ankylosis = joint stiffening
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spondylolysis"?
- "lysis" = loosening
- A loosening of the firm attachment of the contiguous vertebrae
- Involves degenerative changes in intervertebral disks
- Additional bone growth by osteoblasts at margins of vertebral bodies
What occurs in the specific disorder "Spondylolisthesis"?
- "olisthesis" - a slipping and falling
- Forward movement of the body of a lower lumbar vertebra on the vertebra below it, or upon the sacrum
- "Scotty dog appears decapitated" - lengthened isthmus or "neck"
What does the Central Nervous System (CNS) consist of? What is its function?
- Brain and Spinal Cord
- Center of perception
- Site of integration of sensory information
- Initiation and coordination of motor activity
What does the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consist of? What is its function?
- Includes cranial nerves and spinal nerves
- Conveys neural impulses to the CNS as input from sense organs/receptors
- Receives output from CNS to go to muscles and glands of body
What's the difference between a nerve and a tract?
- Nerve is a collection of nerve fibers that carry information toward and away from the CNS (within the PNS)
- Tract - collection of nerve fibers within the CNS
Where is a "nerve" found?
Within the PNS
Where is a "tract" found?
Within the CNS
What's the difference between a ganglion and a nucleus?
- Ganglion - collection of cell bodies outside the CNS (within the PNS)
- Nucleus - collection of cell bodies within the CNS
What is the difference between afferent and efferent neurons?
- Efferent = motor neurons, carry nerve impulses away from the CNS to effectors such as muscles and glands (via ventral root)
- Afferent = sensory or receptor neurons, carry nerve impulses from receptors or sense organs toward the CNS (via dorsal root)
Afferent neurons go towards or away from the CNS?
Towards (carrying sensory information)
Efferent neurons go towards or away from the CNS?
Away (carrying motor impulses)
Describe the Somatic Nervous System.
- External part of body
- Afferent portion includes the neural structures of the CNS and PNS that are involved in conveying and processing conscious and unconscious sensory information
- Efferent portion includes the neural structures of the CNS and PNS that are involved in motor control of voluntary muscle
Describe the Visceral Nervous System?
- Internal part of body
- Afferent portion includes the neural structures that convey sensory information from the splanchnic (visceral) part of body
- Autonomic NS (motor only) - contains neural structures of CNS and PNS that are involved in motor activities influencing the involuntary (smooth) and cardiac musculature and glands of viscera and skin
What are the two branches of the Visceral Nervous System?
Autonomic NS (motor only):
- Parasympathetic NS
- Sympathetic NS
Describe the Sympathetic Nervous System.
- A branch of the Visceral NS / Autonomic NS
- Stimulates activities that are mobilized by the organism during emergency and stress situations
- Fight, fright, and flight response
- AKA thoracolumbar or adrenergic system
Describe the Autonomic Nervous System.
- A branch of the Visceral NS / Autonomic NS
- Stimulates activities that are associated with conservation and restoration of body resources
- AKA craniosacral system or cholinergic system
What are the four "general neural modalities"?
- GSE = general somatic efferent
- GSA = general somatic afferent
- GVE = general visceral efferent
- GVA = general visceral afferent
Describe the basic function of GSE neuron(s).
- General Somatic Efferent
- Innervate voluntary striated muscles of the head, body wall, and extremities
Describe the basic function of GSA neuron(s).
- General Somatic Afferent
- Conveys sensory input regarding pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception from the head, body wall, and extremities to the CNS
Describe the basic function of GVE neuron(s).
- General Visceral Efferent
- Innervates smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glands to provide motor input
Describe the basic function of GVA neuron(s).
- General Visceral Afferent
- Conveys sensory information from the visceral organs to the CNS
How many neurons are needed to carry a signal from the periphery to the CNS (GSA and GVA)? Describe the pathway.
- Two: one peripheral and one central
- Peripheral - cell body in dorsal root; pseudounipolar; distal end is a free nerve ending or in contact with a receptor; proximal end enters spinal cord through dorsal root; synapses with central neuron
- Central neuron - lies completely in the gray matter of spinal cord or brain stem; sends axons to higher centers of brain
How many neurons are needed to carry a signal from the CNS to the periphery (GSE)? Describe the pathway.
- One: only a peripheral neuron
- Peripheral - cell bodies of motor neurons lie in gray matter of brain stem (cranial nerves) or ventral horns of spinal cord gray matter (spinal nerves); axon courses through a cranial nerve or spinal nerve to make synaptic connections with voluntary muscle fibers at NMJ
Where are the nerve cell bodies for GSA and GVA pathways?
- Peripheral neuron cell body in dorsal root ganglion
- Central neuron cell body in gray matter of spinal cord or brainstem
Where are the nerve cell bodies for GSE pathways?
- Peripheral neuron cell body in gray matter of brain stem (cranial nerves)
- Peripheral neuron cell body in gray matter of ventral horn (spinal nerves)
Through which root do the sensory (GSA and GVA) nerves enter the spinal cord / brainstem?
Dorsal root
Through which root do the sensory (GSE and GVE) nerves exit the spinal cord / brainstem?
Ventral root
How many neurons are needed to carry a signal from the CNS to the periphery (GVE)? Describe the pathway.
- Two peripheral neurons
- Preganglionic neuron - originates in gray matter of brain stem or lateral horn of spinal cord gray matter; myelinated axon courses through a cranial/spinal nerve; terminates by synapsing on postganglionic neuron located in a ganglion outside CNS
- Postganglionic Neuron - cell body in postganglionic neuron; unmyelinated axon extends peripherally to terminate in smooth muscles, cardiac muscle, or glands
Where are the nerve cell bodies for GVE pathways?
- Preganglionic neuron - cell body located in gray matter of brain stem or lateral horn of spinal cord gray matter
- Postganglionic neuron - cell body in autonomic ganglion
In what case are preganglionic and postganglionic neurons found?
- General Visceral Efferent (GVE)
- Preganglionic neuron starts in gray matter and is myelinated
- Postganglionic neuron starts in autonomic ganglion and is unmyelinated and ends on smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Describe a typical spinal nerve.
- Leaving the spinal cord are two branches, the dorsal root and ventral root
- Dorsal root contains sensory neurons returning to the CNS; dorsal root ganglion contains cell body of sensory neurons
- Ventral root contains motor neurons leaving the CNS
- Dorsal and ventral roots come together to form "spinal nerve" containing both sensory and motor fibers
- The spinal nerve divides into the dorsal and ventral rami
- Dorsal ramus contains mixed fibers going to the deep back muscles/skin
- Ventral ramus contains mixed fibers going to the trunk and limbs
What are the two types of GVE neurons?
- Sympathetic
- Parasympathetic
Specifically, how do sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord to reach their targets?
- Sympathetic preganglionic fibers start in cell bodies in spinal levels T1-L2 ("thoracolumbar") and pass through:
- Ventral roots and into spinal nerve
- Ventral primary rami
- Myelinated white rami communicans
- Sympathetic chain (synapses at paravertebral ganglia)
- Postganglionic fibers pick up at sympathetic chain (paravertebral ganglia) and pass through:
- Unmyelinated gray rami communicans
- Spinal nerve
- Destination: skin, blood vessels, arrector pili muscles, glands, muscles of body wall and extremities
What is meant by the "thoracolumbar outflow"?
- Exit of sympathetic preganglionic fibers through the ventral roots
- These fibers enter the spinal nerves and then go on to their destinations
If a sympathetic preganglionic nerve does not synapse at the paravertebral ganglia, where can it also synapse?
- Pass through sympathetic chain to form a splanchnic nerve
- This leads to a prevertebral ganglion from the cervical to coccygeal regions
What is the difference between the kinds of transmitters the sympathetic preganglionic and postganglionic nerves use?
- Preganglionic: cholinergic they release acetylcholine
- Postganglionic: adrenergic they release norepinephrine
Where do the postganglionic fibers that came from the prevertebral ganglion (as opposed to the normal paravertebral ganglion) lead to?
Splanchnic nerves and perivascular plexuses lead to the visceral structures of the head, neck, thorax, abdomen, and pelvis
When are the white rami communicans and gray rami communicans used?
- White rami communicans: sympathetic PREganglionic fibers pass through here after leaving the ventral rami; this leads to the sympathetic chain with the paravertebral ganglia (myelinated)
- Gray rami communicans: sympathetic POSTganglionic fibers pass through here after leaving the paravertebral ganglia; this leads back to the spinal nerve and off to the destination of the nerve (not myelinated)
What is a dermatome?
- An area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve (there is some overlap)
- Each of these nerves relays sensation from a particular region of skin to the brain
What is a myotome?
- The muscles served by a single nerve root
- Motor equivalent of a dermatome