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52 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The large subunit of the bacterial ribosome has _____ and _____ proteins.
2 rRNAs (5S and 23S); 34 proteins
The small subunit of the bacterial ribosome has _____ and _____ proteins.
1 rRNA (16S); 21 proteins
How do mRNAs react with the ribosome?
It lies between and contacts both parts.
The overall prokaryotic ribosome is _____.
70S
Information stored in a nucleotide sequence is _________ by tRNAs.
translated into information in a polypeptide (AA sequence)
What are the functions of the: 1) anticodon loop; 2) 3' A ; 3) other loops
1. it is complementary to the codons on the mRNA, so they attach.
2. The A attaches to the right amino acid.
3. They interact with ribosomal proteins.
What is the role of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases?
They charge tRNAs with the correct amino acids via ATP. (They attach the amino acid with the tRNA).
How is the amino acid attached to the tRNA? (Hint: what type of bond, where are they attached...)
They are attached by a high energy ester bond at the last A at the 3' end of the tRNA. This provides energy for the formation of a peptide bond by ribosome.
How does the tRNA fix any mistakes?
By proofreading. If there is a mistake, the bond is ydrolyzed.
There are ___ potential codons.
64
How many stop codons are there?
3
What is a stop codon?
one that has no complimentary anticodon, therefore it has to stop making it.
The code is ______.
degenerate - this means that there are up to 6 different codons that can encode for the same AA.
What does the wobble effect do?
it allows all 61 codons with fewer tRNAs and AA-tRNA synthetases.
For initiation of translation in bacteria, ribosomes must....
first be dissociated. When this happens, IF3 binds to 16S rRNA and keeps the 30 & 50 subunits apart.
How is the mRNA correctly aligned?
By the complementary binding of 16S rRNA to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence at 5' end. This positions the AUG site for the P site on the 50S unit.
How does the first amino acid bind to the mRNA? Where does it bind?
a tRNA with a formylmethionine attached binds to IF2 and GTP. These come together and bind at the P site.
What occurs after the tRNA has bound to the P site?
IF1 attaches and GTP gets hydrolyzed. This then expels all initiation factors and then 50S unit binds.
How many cycles are in translation elongation?
2 cycles.
After initiation of the translation of elongation, what complex binds where?
a complex of the next charged tRNA, GTP, and Elongation Factor-Tu (EF-Tu) binds to the A site.
Why does tRNA bind to a complex before attaching to the RNA?
Because the energy released by the complex helps to accurately put where the tRNA belongs on the RNA.
Explain the movement of the AA's during the first cycle of elongation?
There are AA's that are on the P-site originally. When a tRNA is placed in the A-site, the 23S rRNA ribozyme uses peptidyl transferase to move the AA's from the P site to the A site. No extra energy is required, as it occurs during GTP hydrolysis of the first cycle.
Explain the first cycle of elongation in full.
You have a GDP + EF-Tu. EF-Ts binds to it and releases the GDP. GTP then binds to EF-Tu + EF-Ts. This releases EF-Ts. The AA-tRNA then attaches to the EF-Tu + GTP. The AA-tRNA is then placed in the A-site while GTP is hydrolyzed.
Explain the movement of the AA's during the second cycle of elongation (translocation)?
The AA's don't relocate, instead the tRNA's move. The tRNA that was in the P-site, moves to the E-site. And the tRNA-AA that was in the A-site, moves to the P-site.
Explain the second cycle of elongation in full.
EF-G + GDP. GDP leaves and then GTP binds. This complex gets hydrolyzed and the tRNAs move. Start over again.
What are the stop codons?
UAA, UGA, or UAG.
When does termination occur?
When the ribosome translates a stop codon (meaning, no tRNA with an anti-codon exists).
What are the exceptions to the stop codons?
tRNA with selenocysteine is made with some UGA's in all domains. tRNA with pyrrolysine is made with some UAG's in prokaryotes.
What factors are needed for translation termination?
RF-1, RF-2, or RF-3 depending on the stop codon, and GTP hydrolysis.
The protein sequence does not yield....
properly folded proteins. This means their function may not be used until proper three-dimensional shape.
_____ aid in the proper polypeptide folding.
Chaperones
What is the trigger factor?
Proline isomerase.
How are DnaJ and DnaK used?
The mostly straighten out proteins and then rework them to put them in the right conformation. However, sometimes they are not enough and the GroEL/GroES system is needed. They require ATP.
How is GroEL/GroES used?
When DnaK and DnaJ aren't enough they use a barrel system to rework the proteins. ATP is required.
In some proteins, what is removed and what can be done?
the f-met and sometimes NH2 terminal AA's are removed. Some proteins self-splice.
The Sec system is...
a highly conserved secretion system found in all domains.
In Sec-dependent protein export, polypeptides must contain...
signal peptide at the NH2 (amino) terminal end that binds to Sec proteins in order to be exported.
What is the purpose of Sec B?
It keeps polypeptide unfolded.
What is the purpose of Sec A?
it interacts with the Sec YEG channel and drives the polypeptide through the channel using ATP.
Once the polypeptide chain has made it through the channel, what happens?
It gets refolded on the other side of the cell by chaperone proteins.
What is the purpose of signal peptidase?
It cleaves the signal peptide.
Explain the Type 1 complex system.
It is an ABC exporter that expands all layers; it exports proteins (lipases, toxins, antibiotics) outside the cell. All prokaryotes use this. ATP hyrdolysis drives this system.
Explain Type II & V.
They use the SEC proteins in the first step and then other proteins.
Explain Type III complex system.
Used by gram negative pathogensto directly inject proteins into a host cell during infection
Explain Type VI complex system.
Very similar to Type III. They inject DNA as well as proteins during conjugation.
Explain the TAT system.
TAT means Twin Arginine System. It's when two arginines are moved across. It uses a PMF.
What are the building blocks for the cell wall?
NAM-pentapeptide and NAG.
Explain the synthesis of peptidoglycan for the cell wall.
UDP-linked NAG or NAM is formed, the pentapeptide is assembled on NAM. NAM-peptide is then transferred to bactoprenol carrier (BP). NAG is then transferred to NAM, and then the whole unit is transferred across the CM by BP.
Linking of the growing NAG-NAM chain and transpeptidation occurs _____.
outside of the cell.
Cycloserine inhibits the formation of ____.
D-alanine.
What inhibits the transpeptidation step in peptidoglycan synthesis?
Vancomycin and penicillin
What does bacitracin do?
It inhibits bactoprenol from transporting back into the cytoplasm to keep the cycle going.