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785 Cards in this Set

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TORTS
TORTS
Types of intentional torts
[1] Battery; [2] Assault; [3] False Imprisonment; [4] IIED
Types of intentional torts to property
[1] Trespass to Chattels; [2] Trespass to Land; [3] Conversion
Types of Defenses to Intentional Torts
[1] Consent; [2] Self-Defense, Defense of others, Defense of Property
Transferred only applies in the following situations (must be the original tort and the transferred tort)
[1] Assault; [2] Battery; [3] False imprisonment; [4] Trespass to land; [5] Trespass to chattels
Causation is satisfied if Δ’s conduct was a __________ in bringing about the injury
Substantial factor
Elements of battery
[1] harmful or offensive contact; [2] to Π’s person; [3] Intent; [4] Causation
What standard is used for harmful or offensive contact (element of battery)?
Reasonable person standard
Is contact considered offensive if consented to? What about ordinary contacts of everyday life?
No. Also, there is implied consent for ordinary contacts of everyday life.
Elements of assault
[1] an act by Δ creating a reasonable apprehension in Π; [2] of immediate harmful or offensive contract to Π’s person; [3] Intent; [4] Causation
Are words enough for assault?
No. words must be coupled w/ conduct
Elements of false imprisonment
[1] an act or omission on the part of Δ that confines or restrains Π; [2] to a bounded area; [3] intent; [4] causation
What are sufficient methods of confinement or restraint for false imprisonment?
[1] physical barriers, [2] physical force; [3] threats of force; [4] failure to release; [5] invalid use of legal authority
In order to be false imprisoned, does Π have to know about it?
Yes
Elements of Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress (IIED)
[1] An act by Δ amounting to extreme and outrageous conduct; [2] intent or recklessness; [3] causation; [4] Damages – severe emotional distress
Normal conduct can become outrageous in three situations:
[1] continuous in nature; [2] directed toward certain type of Π (kids, old people, pregnant ladies, supersensitive adults known to be supersensitive
What is the only intentional tort to the person that requires damages?
IIED
How can a bystander recover under IIED?
Either by: prima facie elements of IIED; or that [1] she was present when injury occurred; [2] she is close relative to injured person; and [3] Δ knew facts [1] & [2]
What’s the fallback tort position?
IIED
Elements of Trespass to Land
[1] Physical Invasion of Π’s real property; [2] Intent; [3] Causation
Elements of Trespass to Chattels
[1] An act by Δ that interferes w/ Π’s right of possession in a chattel; [2] Intent; [3] Causation; and [4] Damages
What are two types of interference w/ Chattels?
Intermeddling or dispossession
Elements of Conversion
[1] An act by Δ that interferes with Π’s right of possession in a chattel; [2] The interference is so serious that it warrants requiring Δ to pay the chattel’s full value; [3] Intent; [4] Causation
What are examples of acts that would be conversion?
Theft, wrongful transfer, wrongful detention, substantially changing, severely damaging, or misusing a chattel.
What can a Π recover in Conversion?
Damages (FMV) or possession
What is the Act by Δ necessary for [1] Trespass to Chattels; and [2] Conversion?
[1] An interference w/ Π’s right of possession of chattel (either intermeddling or dispossession); [2] AN interference w/ Π’s right of possession so serious as to warrant that Δ pay the chattel’s full value
What is the Intent necessary for [1] Trespass to Chattels; and [2] Conversion?
[1] Intent to do the act that brings about the interference; [2] Intent to do the act that brings about the interference
What is the remedy necessary for [1] Trespass to Chattels; and [2] Conversion?
[1] Recovery of actual damages from harm to chattel or loss of use (if dispossession, damages based on rental value); [2] Damage award of FMV of chattel at time of conversion (i.e., forced sale of chattel). May instead recovery chattel (replevin)
Two questions to ask in Consent fact patterns
[1] Was there a valid consent (no fraud)? [2] Did Δ stay w/in boundaries of consent (not use gun in boxing match)?
Generally, a Δ is not liable if Π expressly consents to Δ’s conduct. What are the exceptions?
[1] Mistake will undo express consent if Δ knew of and took advantage of the mistake; [2] Consent induced by fraud will be invalidated if it goes to an essential matter, but not a collateral matter; [3] consent obtained by duress will be invalidated unless the duress is only threats of future action or future economic deprivation.
Can individuals without capacity consent?
No. ex: incompetents, drunks, young kids
When dealing w/ fact patterns concerning any kind of defense, what three questions should be asked?
[1] Is privilege available? Tort must now be or about to be committed. Already committed torts do not qualify. [2] Is a mistake permissible as to whether the tort being defended against (battery, trespass, etc.) is actually being committed? [3] Was a proper amount of force used?
How is the requirement of capacity different for express consent than from the intent element of intentional torts?
Not everyone has capacity to consent to a tort. But incapacity is no defense because everyone (even young child) has capacity to commit a tort.
When can someone use self-defense?
When a person reasonably believes that she is being or is about to be attacked, she may use such force as is reasonably necessary to protect against injury.
Is mistake allowed in self-defense?
A reasonable mistake as to the existence of danger
How much force is allowed in self-defense?
Only that force that reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the harm (including deadly force).
When is defense of others available?
When the actor reasonably believes that the other person could have used force to defend himself.
Is mistake allowed in defense of others?
A reasonable mistake is permitted
When is defense of property available?
One may use reasonable force to prevent the commission of a tort against her real or personal property. A request to desist must be made. No force after tort was committed. One may use force in hot pursuit.
Is defense of property available against one who has a privilege?
NO. Whenever an actor has a privilege to enter on to the land of another b/c of necessity, recapture of chattels, etc., that privilege will supersede the privilege of the land possessor to defend her property.
Is a mistake allowed as to whether or not a person has a privilege to enter land when defense of property is undertaken?
No.
When can force be used to recapture chattels?
Only when in hot pursuit of one who has obtained possession wrongfully (e.g., theft)
What are the limitations of force being used to recapture chattel?
[1] Timely demand is required; [2] Recovery only from wrongdoer; [3] Entry on land to remove chattel – (a) can enter wrongdoer’s land; (b) Innocent party’s land – notice must be given and it must be done at a reasonable time; (c) if owner’s fault, then only through legal process
Is mistake allowed to recapture chattels or enter land?
No Mistake allowed. But shopkeepers have privilege to retain for reasonable time.
What type of torts is necessity a defense for?
Property torts
What are the elements of defamation?
[1] Defamatory language; [2] Of or concerning the Π; [3] Publication thereof by Δ to a third person; [4] Damage to Π’s reputation
What are the elements of defamation that involve a matter of public concern?
[1] Defamatory language; [2] Of or concerning the Π; [3] Publication thereof by Δ to a third person; [4] Damage to Π’s reputation; [5] Falsity of the defamatory language; [6] Fault on the part of Δ
What does publication mean?
Communication of the defamation to someone other than the Π. Such publication can be made either intentionally or negligently. It is the intent to publish, not the intent to defame, that is the requisite intent.
What is libel? What are the damages?
Written or printed publication of defamatory language. Π does not need to prove special damages and general damages are presumed. If original defamation is libel, any repetition, even if oral, is also libel.
What is slander? What damages must be proved.
Spoken defamation. Special damages must proved unless defamation falls under slander per se categories
What are the slander per se categories?
Defamatory statements that: [1] adversely reflect on one’s conduct in a business or profession; [2] One has a loathsome disease; [3] One is or was guilty of a crime involving moral turpitude; or [4] a woman is unchaste
If a statement of public interest is true, does Π have cause of action for defamation? Are there any other causes of action?
No cause of action for defamation. But consider IIED or invasion of right to privacy (unless Π is a public figure)
What is the level of fault that a public figure or public official must prove?
Malice.
What is malice?
[1] Knowledge that the statement was false; or [2] reckless disregard as to whether it was false. SUBJECTIVE TEST
What is the level of fault that a private person must prove?
Negligence regarding the falsity must be proved if the statement involves a matter of public concern. (If not a matter of public concern, C’l restrictions do not apply).
In defamation cases brought by a private person, what damages are recoverable when [1] The Δ is negligent? [2] The Δ acted with malice?
[1] Negligent  only actual injury damages are recoverable; [2] Malice  damages may be presumed and punitive damages are allowed
For a PUBLIC OFFICIAL or PUBLIC FIGURE, [1] What is the Fault required? [2] What are the damages recoverable?
[1] Actual Malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard as to truth or falsity; [2] Presumed damages under CL rules (and punitive damages where appropriate)
For a PRIVATE PERSON and matter of PUBLIC concern, [1] What is the Fault required? [2] What are the damages recoverable?
[1] At least negligence as to statement’s truth or falsity; [2] Damages only for proved “actual injury” (if Π proves actual malice, presumed and punitive damages may be available)
For a PRIVATE PERSON and a matter of PRIVATE CONCERN, [1] What is the Fault required? [2] What are the damages recoverable?
[1] No fault as to truth or falsity need be proved; [2] Presumed damages under CL rules (and punitive damages where appropriate)
What are defenses to defamation?
[1] Consent – complete defense. [2] Truth – complete defense when Π doesn’t need to prove falsity (statement is about a purely private matter)
Does Π need to prove falsity in a CL defamation case?
No, b/c defamatory statements are presumed to be false; Δ has burden to prove truth as a defense.
What absolute privileges will protect a Δ in defamation cases?
Statements made in judicial proceedings, legislators in debate, federal executive officials, compelled broadcasts, between spouses
What are the four branches of invasion of right to privacy?
[1] Appropriation of Π’s picture or name; [2] intrusion upon Π’s affairs or seclusion; [3] publication of facts placing Π in false light; [4] public disclosure of private facts about Π.
What are defenses to invasion of right to privacy?
Consent and defamation privilege defenses
What are the elements of Intentional Misrepresentation (fraud, deceit)?
[1] misrepresentation of material fact; [2] Scienter – knew or believed it was false; [3] intent to induce Π to act or refrain from acting in reliance upon misrep; [4] Causation; [5] Justifiable reliance; and [6] Damages (actual pecuniary loss)
What are the defenses to intentional misrepresentation?
There are none
What are elements of negligent misrepresentation?
[1] misrepresentation by Δ in business or professional capacity (commercial setting); [2] Breach of Duty toward particular Π; [3] causation; [4] justifiable reliance; [5] Damages
Elements of malicious prosecution
[1] institution of criminal proceedings against Π; [2] termination in Π’s favor; [3] absence of PC; [4] improper purpose; [5] damages
What are elements of abuse of process?
[1] wrongful use of process for an ulterior motive; [2] definite act or threat against Π in order to accomplish an ulterior purpose
What are elements of Interference w/ Business Relations?
[1] Existence of a valid contractual relationship between Π and 3rd party or valid business expectancy of Π; [2] Δ’s knowledge of the relationship or expectancy; [3] intentional interference by Δ inducing a breach or termination of the relationship or expectancy; and [4] damages
What are the elements of negligence?
[1] Duty on part of Δ to conform to a specific standard of conduct for protection of Π against an unreasonable risk of injury; [2] a breach of that duty by Δ; [3] breach is actual and proximate cause of Π’s injury; and [4] damage.
What’s the basic standard of care for negligence?
The Reasonable Person – objective standard
Is there a duty to protect those off the premises from natural conditions? From artificial conditions?
Not from natural conditions. But there is duty to protect from unreasonably dangerous artificial conditions or structures abutting adjacent land.
In urban areas, are owners liable for damages caused off the premises by trees on the premises?
Yes
What is the duty to undiscovered trespassers?
No duty is owed to undisclosed trespassers.
What is the duty to discovered trespassers?
Landowner must [1] Warn or make safe concealed, unsafe, artificial conditions known to the landowner involving risk of death or serious bodily harm, and [2] use reasonable care in the exercise of “active operations” on the property
What are the elements of attractive nuisance doctrine?
Π must show: [1] dangerous condition on the land that the owner is or should be aware of; [2] the owner knows or should know children frequent the vicinity of the condition; [3] the condition is likely to cause injury; [4] the expense remedying the situation is slight compared with the magnitude of the risk. [a child does NOT have to be attracted onto the land by the dangerous condition, nor is the attraction alone enough for liability]
What is a licensee?
One who enters onto the land w/ possessor’s permission for her own purpose or business, rather than for the possessor’s benefit. A social guest is a licensee.
What is the duty owed to licensees?
Possessor has a duty to [1] warn of dangerous conditions (natural or artificial) known to the owner that create an unreasonable risk of harm to the licensee and that licensee is unlikely to discover, and [2] exercise reasonable care in the conduct of “active operations” on the property. Possessor has NO DUTY TO INSPECT OR REPAIR
What is an invitee?
One who enters for a purpose connected with the business of the landowner or enters as a member of the public for a purpose for which the land is held open to the public. One can lose invitee status if she exceeds the scope of the invitation.
What is the duty owed to an invitee?
Same duty owed to licensee PLUS a duty to make reasonable inspections to discover nonobvious dangerous conditions and, thereafter, make them safe.
What is the modern trend regarding licensees and invitees?
Rejects them.
If a guest of a tenant is injured, is the landlord liable?
Yes. But keep going in analysis and determine if tenant is also liable to the guest b/c of the tenant’s status as the owner/occupier of the premises.
What are the duties of a vendor of realty?
Vendor must disclose to the vendee concealed, unreasonably dangerous conditions o f which the vendor knows or has reason to know, and which he knows the vendee is not likely to discover on a reasonable inspection.
When can a statute’s specific duty replace the more general CL duty of care?
If: [1] statute provides for a criminal penalty; [2] statute clearly defines the standard of conduct; [3] Π is within the protected class; [4] statute was designed to prevent the type of harm suffered by Π.
When is the duty to avoid causing emotional distress to another breached?
When Δ creates a foreseeable risk of physical injury to Π, either by: [1] causing a threat of physical impact that leads to emotional distress, or [2] directly causing severe emotional distress that by itself is likely to result in physical symptoms.
What is the injury requirement for NIED?
Only if Δ’s conduct caused some physical injury.
What are the two situations where physically injury is not required in NIED?
Erroneous report of relative’s death and mishandling of a relative’s corpse.
What is the conduct required for [1] IIED; [2] NIED?
[1] Extreme and outrageous conduct by Δ; [2] Subjecting Π to threat of physical impact or severe emotional distress likely to cause physical symptoms
What is the fault required for [1] IIED; [2] NIED?
[1] Intent to cause severe emotional distress or recklessness as to the effect of conduct; [2] Negligence in creating risk of physical injury to Π
What are the causation and damages required for [1] IIED; [2] NIED?
[1] Δ’s conduct must cause severe emotional distress; [2] Δ’s conduct generally must cause tangible physical injury (e.g., miscarriage)
When is bystander recovery for when another is physically injured allowed for [1] IIED; [2] NIED?
[1] Π bystander must be present when injury occurs and be a close relative of the injured person, and Δ must know these facts when he intentionally injures the other person (or Δ must have intent to cause Π distress); [2] Π bystander must be within the zone of danger created by Δ’s negligent misconduct (i.e., must be subjected to threat of impact). Modern trend allows recovery based on foreseeability factors
Generally, one does not have a legal duty to act. What are the exceptions?
[1] Assumption of duty by acting; [2] Peril due to Δ’s conduct; [3] Special relationship between parties; [4] Duty to control 3rd persons
What theories can a Π use to prove breach of duty?
[1] Custom or usage; [2] Violation of statute (neg per se); [3] Res Ipsa Loquitur
What does Π have to prove for liability to attach?
Actual cause and proximate cause
What’s the difference between joint cause approach (substantial factor test) and Alternative Causes approach?
Under joint causes approach, both parties caused the harm. Under the alternative causes approach, although both parties acted negligently, only one caused the harm.
What is the general rule for proximate cause (legal causation)?
A Δ generally is liable for all harmful results that are the normal incidents of and within the increased risk caused by his cats. This is a foreseeability test.
If the answer choice turns on the proximate cause issue, the correct answer choice will almost always be phrased in …
“if” or “unless” terms (e.g., Π will prevail if it was reasonably foreseeable that …” or “Δ will not be liable unless he should have foreseen that…”
Δ is liable where his negligence caused ________ or ________
Where his negligence caused a foreseeable harmful response or reaction from a dependent intervening force or created a foreseeable risk that an independent force would harm Π.
What dependent intervening forces are almost always foreseeable?
[1] negligence of rescuers; [2] subsequent medical malpractice; [3] efforts to protect the person or property of oneself or another; [4] injuries caused by another reacting to Δ’s actions; [5] subsequent diseases caused by a weakened condition; and [6] subsequent accident substantially caused by the original injury.
What are examples of independent intervening forces?
Negligent acts of 3rd persons; [2] crimes and intentional torts of 3rd persons; [3] acts of God
What does independent intervening force mean?
They are not a natural response or reaction to the situation created by Δ’s conduct, but may be foreseeable if Δ’s negligence increased the risk of harm from these forces.
Are damages reduced if a Π receives $ from another source?
No
What are the requirements of assumption of the risk?
Π must have [1] known of the risk; and [2] voluntarily proceeded in the face of the risk
What’s the default defense to negligence on MBE?
Pure comparative negligence
What is the definition of: [1] Contributory Negligence; [2] Implied Assumption of Risk; [3] Pure Comparative Negligence; [4] Partial Comparative Negligence?
[1] Π’s own negligence contributes to her injury; [2] Π knew of a risk and voluntarily assumed it; [3] Π’s own negligence contributes to her injury; [4] Π’s own negligence contributes to her injury
What is the Effect of using: [1] Contributory Negligence; [2] Implied Assumption of Risk; [3] Pure Comparative Negligence; [4] Partial Comparative Negligence?
[1] Π’s claim completely barred; [2] Π’s claim completely barred; [3] Π’s damage award reduced by % of fault attributable to her; [4] Π’s damage award reduced if her fault is below the threshold level; otherwise, Π’s claims are barred
Are the following defenses negated by Δ’s Last Clear Chance: [1] Contributory Negligence; [2] Implied Assumption of Risk; [3] Pure Comparative Negligence; [4] Partial Comparative Negligence?
[1] Yes; [2] N/A; [3] N/A; [4] N/A
Do any of the following apply to Wanton or Reckless Tortious Conduct: [1] Contributory Negligence; [2] Implied Assumption of Risk; [3] Pure Comparative Negligence; [4] Partial Comparative Negligence?
[1] No; [2] Yes; [3] Yes; [4] Yes
What are the elements of Strict Liability?
[1] Existence of an absolute duty on the part of the Δ to make safe; [2] Breach of that duty; [3] The breach of the duty was the actual and proximate cause of the Π’s injury; and [4] damage to the Π’s person or property
What are the three requirements for application of Strict Liability to Ultrahazardous Activities?
[1] the activity must involve risk of serious harm to persons or property; [2] the activity must be one that cannot be performed without serious harm no matter how much care is taken; and [3] the activity is not commonly engaged in the particular community (blasting, manufacturing explosives, etc.)
What are the 5 theories of product liability?
[1] Intent; [2] Negligence; [3] strict liability; [4] implied warranties of merchantability and fitness for a particular purpose; [5] representation theories (express warranty and misrepresentation)
Which theory of product liability is the easiest to prove?
Strict liability – use this if the question doesn’t indicate what theory Π is using
What elements are necessary for any products liability claim?
[1] A defect and [2] existence of the defect when the product left Δ’s control.
What are the types of defects that give way to products liability claims?
[1] manufacturing defects; [2] design defects; [3] inadequate warnings
How do you prove a manufacturing defect?
Show that product failed to perform as safely as an ordinary consumer would expect. (works for defective food products claims, too)
How do you prove a design defect?
Δ could have made product safer, w/o serious impact on the product’s price or utility
What does compliance and noncompliance with government standards show in products liability claims?
Noncompliance establishes that it was defective. Compliance is evidence, but not conclusive, that the product is not defective.
Does it matter in products liability cases if there was no privity?
No. But it will be a favorite MBE wrong choice. Any foreseeable Π, including a bystander, can sue any commercial supplier in the chain of distribution regardless of the absence of a contractual relationship between them.
Who can sue in products liability cases under the theory of negligence? What must they show?
Users, consumers, bystanders. Must show same as negligence – duty, breach, actual & proximate cause, damages
What are the elements of the breach necessary for the negligence theory of products liability cases?
[1] Negligent conduct of Δ leading to [2] the supplying of a defective product.
Who can sue in products liability cases under the theory of strict liability? What must they show?
Users, consumers, bystanders Elements are [1] strict duty owed by a commercial supplier of a product; [2] breach of that duty; [3] actual and proximate cause; and [4] damage.
Who will be held liable under strict liability theory of products liability?
Any commercial supplier. Casual sellers will NOT be held liable.
What does merchantability mean?
Whether the goods are of average and acceptable quality and are generally fit for the ordinary purpose for which the goods are used.
What does fitness for a particular purpose mean?
It arises when the seller knows or has reason to know the particular purpose for which the goods are required and that the buyer is relying on the seller’s skill and judgment in selecting the goods.
Who can sue under strict liability in products liability cases?
Narrow version of horizontal privity, which includes buyer, family, household, and guests
A seller will be liable for misrepresentation of facts concerning a product where:
[1] The statement was of a material fact concerning quality or uses of goods; and [2] the seller intended to induce reliance by the buyer in a particular transaction.
Under the products liability theories, who can sue under the theory of: [1] Negligence; [2] Strict Liability; [3] Implied Warranties ( (a) Merchantability & (b) Fitness for a Particular Purpose)?
[1] Any foreseeable Π; [2] Any Foreseeable Π; [3] Purchaser and her family, household, and guests
Under the products liability theories, who can be sued under the theory of: [1] Negligence; [2] Strict Liability; [3] Implied Warranties ( (a) Merchantability & (b) Fitness for a Particular Purpose)?
[1] Any commercial supplier (e.g., manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer); [2] Any commercial supplier; [3] (a) A merchant dealing in the kind of goods sold; (b) Any seller of the goods
Under the products liability theories, what constitutes breach under the theory of: [1] Negligence; [2] Strict Liability; [3] Implied Warranties ( (a) Merchantability & (b) Fitness for a Particular Purpose)?
[1] Negligent conduct that results in the supplying of a defective product; [2] The supplying of a defective product; [3] (a) Sale of goods not generally acceptable or fit for ordinary purposes; (b) Sale of goods not fit for purpose that seller knows or has reason to know of (and knows that buyer is relying on seller’s judgment)
Under the products liability theories, what damages can be recovered under the theory of: [1] Negligence; [2] Strict Liability; [3] Implied Warranties ( (a) Merchantability & (b) Fitness for a Particular Purpose)?
[1] Personal injury and property damage (no recovery for economic loss standing alone); [2] Personal injury and property damage (no recovery for economic loss standing alone); [3] Personal injury and property damage (recovery solely for economic loss IS permitted)
Under the products liability theories, what defenses are available under the theory of: [1] Negligence; [2] Strict Liability; [3] Implied Warranties ( (a) Merchantability & (b) Fitness for a Particular Purpose)?
[1] Assumption of the risk and any type of contributory negligence; [2] In Contributory Negligence States – assumption of the risk and unreasonable misuse (failure to discover or guard against defect is NOT a defense); in Comparative Negligence States – any type of fault (under type of fault (under state’s comparative negligence rules); [3] In Contributory Negligence States – Assumption of the risk, unreasonable misuses, and failure to give reasonable notice of breach; In Comparative Negligence States – Any type of fault (under state’s comparative negligence rules)
What is a private nuisance?
A substantial, unreasonable interference with another private individual’s use or enjoyment of property that he actually possesses or to which he has a right of immediate possession.
What does substantial interference mean (in relation to private nuisance)?
Interference that is offensive, inconvenient, or annoying to the average person in the community.
How is private nuisance different from trespass to land?
In a trespass, there is an interference w/ the landowner’s exclusive possession by a physical invasion; in a private nuisance, there is an interference with use or enjoyment.
What is a public nuisance?
An act that unreasonably interferes with the health, safety or property rights of the community.
What is the vicarious liability of an employer for the tortious acts of the employee?
Employer is vicariously liable if tortious act is within the scope of employment relationship
What is the vicarious liability of an employer for the tortious acts of the independent contractor?
Employer is NOT vicariously liable unless activity is inherently dangerous or duty is nondelegable on public policy grounds
What is the vicarious liability of an employer for the tortious acts of the partner or joint venturer?
The other partners or joint venturers are vicariously liable if tortious act is within the scope and course of partnership or joint venture.
What is the vicarious liability of an employer for the tortious acts of the driver of automobile?
Owner of automobile is NOT vicariously liable unless jdxn has family car doctrine or permissive use statute
What is the vicarious liability of an employer for the tortious acts of the bailee of chattel?
Bailor is NOT vicariously liable
What is the vicarious liability of an employer for the tortious acts of the Child?
Parent is NOT vicariously liable (except for limited statutory liability for willful and intentional torts)
What is the vicarious liability of an employer for the tortious acts of the patron of tavern?
Tavernkeeper is NOT vicariously liability in absence of Dramshop Act
For contribution to apply, both Δs must have ________, but ________ applies when one of the parties is much more responsible than the other.
Measureable degree of culpability. … Indemnity applies
Does indemnity or contribution affect how much Π gets?
No. Rather, they deal w/ how much of the total award each defendant ultimately must pay.
What does indemnity do? When is it available?
Indemnity involves shifting the entire loss between or among tortfeasors. It is available: [1] by contract; [2] in vicarious liability situations; [3] under strict products liability; [4] in some jdxns, where there has been an identifiable difference in degree of fault
CONTRACTS
CONTRACTS
What is a quasi-K?
It’s not really a K. It’s a remedy that is granted. Aka Restitutionary relief
What is the measure of recovery under Quasi-K?
It may as justice requires be measured by either: (a) the reasonable value of the services rendered (i.e., what it would have cost to obtain the services from someone else in the claimant’s position), or (b) the extent to which the other party’s property has been increased in value or his other interests advanced.
Can a breaching party recover in Quasi-K under the Restatement?
Yes, so long as it’s not a willful breach for party’s own convenience or financial advantage.
How is a bilateral contract formed?
It’s formed from an offer that’s open as to method of acceptance. You can accept by promise for by the beginning of performance.
How is a unilateral K formed?
Formed from offer that requires performance. (Hamer $5k to nephew to quit smoking)
Two types of MBE unilateral K situations
[1] Where offer expressly requires performance (Hamer); [2] Offer of reward, prize, or contest.
What are the two factors that determine whether A2 applies?
[1] Type of transaction – a sale (passing of title from Seller to Buyer for a price). [2] Subject matter of transaction – goods (movable property)
What is a sale?
A sale is the passing of title from Seller to Buyer for a price
What’s the test for hybrid contracts?
Predominant purpose test – is it mainly goods with incidental services? Or mainly services with incidental goods?
What are four things courts look at for the predominant purpose test?
[1] How much $ was spent on goods & on services? [2] How much time was spent on labor? [3] How sophisticated was the labor? [4] Does the K contain typical sales language?
Essential elements of an offer
[1] The identity of the offeree and the subject matter; [2] the price to be paid; [3] the time of payment, delivery or performance; [4] the quantity involved, and [5] the nature of the work involved.
What is a limitation on requirements or output contracts?
Can’t be unreasonably disproportionate. No quantity unreasonably disproportionate to any stated estimate may be tendered or demanded. Or if there is no stated estimate, no quantity unreasonably disproportionate to any normal or otherwise comparable prior output or requirements may be tendered or demanded.
Is an advertisement an offer? Is there an exception?
Generally, an advertisement is not an offer. It’s a mere invitation for offers. Exception #1 – If it is specific as to quantity and indicates who can accept. Exception #2 – If it operates like a reward.
Four methods to terminate an offer
[1] Termination by lapse of time; [2] Termination b/c of words or conduct of Offeror (Revocation); [3] Termination b/c of words or conduct of Offeree (Rejection); [4] Termination b/c of death of a party prior to acceptance
What are the ways in which the offeror can terminate an offer?
[1] Statement by Offeror to Offeree indicating unwillingness to contract, or [2] Conduct of Offeror that is inconsistent with an intention to make the K and of which the Offeree is aware.
When does revocation of an offer sent through the mail become effective?
Once it is received.
4 situations where an offer cannot be revoked (exception to general rule):
[1] If the Offeror has promised to keep the offer open and this promise is supported by consideration; [2] If it is (a) a contract for the sale of goods, (b) there is a written promise to keep the offer open, and (c) the promise is made by a merchant; [3] If there has been reliance by the Offeree that is reasonably foreseeable (reliance alone is not enough); [4] If performance of a unilateral K has begun.
What is a merchant?
Person who deals in goods of the kind or who otherwise holds himself as having knowledge or skill peculiar to the practices or goods involved
In the UCC, additional terms become part of the K if:
[1] Both parties are merchants; [2] the additional term does not “materially alter” the K; and [3] the offeror does not object w/in a reasonable time. Otherwise, it becomes a mere proposal and must be separately accepted by the other party.
Methods of accepting an offer (5 fact patterns)
[1] the offeree starts to perform; [2] the offeree promises to perform; [3] the offeree sends its acceptance through the mails; [4] the Seller of goods send the wrong goods; [5] the offeree is silent
What is the mailbox rule?
A mailed acceptance is effective when posted (even if it never arrives
Two exceptions where mailbox rule does not apply:
[1] Rejection mailed first, then letter of acceptance – rejection received first. Letter of acceptance operates as a counteroffer. [2] Acceptance mailed first, then rejection sent – rejection received first. If offeror relied on letter of rejection before the acceptance is received, estoppel may apply.
What is an accommodation?
An exception for when a Seller of goods sends the wrong goods the accommodation is not an acceptance. It’s a counteroffer that Buyer doesn’t have to accept. But he can’t sue for breach.
What are the elements of consideration?
[1] the promisee must suffer some “legal detriment”; [2] the detriment must induce the promise (i.e., the promisor makes his promise to induce the conduct of the promisee); [3] the promise must induce the detriment (i.e., the promisee is induced to act by the promise)
What are the forms of legal detriment (4)
[1] Performance (doing something not legally obligated to do); [2] Forbearance (not doing something legally entitled to do); [3] promise to perform; [4] promise to forbear
What are some possible issues to look for in analyzing consideration? (9)
[1] Conditional gift; [2] legal detriment; [3] past consideration; [4] adequacy of consideration; [5] Pre-existing duty rule; [6] part payment as consideration for promise to forgive balance of debt; [7] settlement of a claim; [8] promise to pay debt barred by statute of limitations; [9] Illusory Promises
Promissory Estoppel elements
[1] Promise; [2] Reliance that is both foreseeable and justifiable; [3] Enforcement necessary to avoid injustice
Who lacks capacity to consent?
[1] infants (under 18); [2] mental incompetents; [3] intoxicated person
Lacking capacity to contract – Mental incompetent?
A person who is unable to understand in a reasonable manner the nature and consequences of the transaction, or is unable to act in a reasonable manner in relation to the transaction and the other party has reason to know of his condition.
Lacking capacity to contract – Intoxicated persons
The other party has reason to know that, by reason of intoxication, he is unable to understand in a reasonable manner the nature & consequences of the transaction, or he is unable to act in a reasonable manner in relation to the transaction.
What are the contracts within the SOF?
[1] Promise in consideration of marriage; [2] Promise by executor or administrator to pay an obligation of the estate from his own funds; [3] Promises to answer for the debt of another; [4] K not capable of being performed w/in a year of the date that the K was entered into; [5] Promise creating an interest in land; [6] Sale of goods for $500 or more; [7] Modifications
SOF mnemonic
MYLEGSS – Marriage; Year (1); Land; Executor; Guarantee; Sale of Goods $500+; Statute of Limitations – Statute of Frauds  Statute of Frogs. “I want your legs.” “My Legs???”
In the SOF, what is the primary benefit exception?
When someone makes a promise to answer for the debt of another, but it benefits the person making the promise. Ex: a sole shareholder making a promise to pay the debts of a corporation.
What is the equal dignity rule?
Ex: Since a contract for the sale of Real Estate need to be in writing, a writing is needed to authorize someone to sign it for you (unless he is in your presence). The authorization should be given the same dignity as the documents.
Generally, is a new writing needed for a modification in order to satisfy the SOF?
If the original agreement came within the SOF and was satisfied by a writing, that same writing may satisfy the statute as to the modified agreement as long as no essential terms were modified.
Is a new writing needed for a modification in order to satisfy the SOF under the UCC?
As long as the quantity is not modified, the original writing may satisfy the SOF even if some other modification is agreed upon – no new writing would be needed.
What happens if the SOF is not satisfied as to a modification?
The original contract stands unmodified. MBE will try to trick you by saying that the whole K is void.
How is the SOF satisfied for contracts other than sales of goods?
[1] writing; [2] Part performance of oral agreement to buy real estate; [3] Part performance of an oral agreement that cannot be performed within a year; [4] Estoppel to plead SOF
What contents are needed for a writing to satisfy the SOF in a contract other than the sale of goods?
[1] ID the parties; [2] ID the subject matter; [3] Must contain all the essential terms; [4] Must be signed by the party to be charged (i.e., if Bob is raising SOF as a defense, his opponent must produce writing signed by Bob)
For part performance of oral agreement to buy real estate to satisfy the SOF, what must happen?
Two of the following three must occur: [1] Full or part payment; [2] possession; and/or [3] improvements
What are the contents of the writing necessary to satisfy the SOF for sale of goods for $500 or more?
You must have a writing signed by the party to be charged. [1] Quantity; [2] Indicate that K for sale has been made between parties must afford basis for believing there is a K. Easier standard to meet than essential elements. [3] Signed by party to be charged.
If Merchant A receives a letter from Merchant B asserting the existence of a K, and A does not believe that any such K exists, what should A do? Why?
A should respond. A delay in responding will result in a loss of SOF Δ under 2-201
What is the UCC Merchant Confirmation Rule?
[1] Both parties are merchants; [2] Writing claims there is a K; [3] Writing signed and states quantity; [4] Failure to object in writing w/in 10 days of receipt
In situations of ambiguity (mutual misunderstanding), there will be no K if:
[1] the parties use a material term open to at least 2 reasonable interpretations; [2] each party attaches a different meaning to the term; and [3] neither party knows or has reason to know meaning attached by the other. (Peerless)
For mutual mistake of material fact (Rose the cow) – there will be no K if:
[1] Both parties are mistaken; [2] basic assumption of fact; [3] materially affects the agreed exchange; [4] not a risk that either party bears
For mutual mistake of material fact, what are the differences when the mistake concerns the nature of the subject matter and the mistake concerns the value of the subject matter
Nature of the subject matter – no K. Value of the subject matter – no relief available.
What are exceptions to the general rule for unilateral mistake (Cts are reluctant to avoid a K for a mistake that was not shared by the other party)?
[1] Obvious mistakes – if the other party knows or should have known of the mistake, courts grant relief to the mistaken party. [2] Avoidance before significant reliance by the other party – courts have granted a bidder relief from a unilateral mistake in the calculation of its bid if avoidance is sought before any significant reliance by the other party. This is especially true if the mistake was a clerical error as opposed to an error in judgment, and if enforcing the K would be very oppressive on the mistaken party.
What is duress?
It’s when a party is left w/ no reasonable alternative but to enter into a K.
What happens if a K was made under duress?
It’s voidable
What is undue influence?
The gist of it is unfair persuasion. It may exist where a person uses a position of trust & confidence, or a position of dominance, to convince the other to enter into a transaction that is not in that other party’s best interest. It often results in the enrichment of one party at the expense of the other. If undue influence is shown, the K is voidable. It will pop in Wills situations also.
What are the types of fraud and misrepresentation?
[1] Fraud in the inducement; [2] Fraud in the factum; [3] Innocent Misrepresentation; [4] Non-Disclosure
What is fraud in the inducement? What effect on a K?
You’re deceived about the subject matter. It’s the most common. Ex: I persuade you to enter into a K to purchase some land by lying to you about the total acreage. VOIDABLE
What is fraud in the factum (or execution)? What effect on a K?
You’re deceived about the nature of the document you’re signing. You think you’re signing an autograph, but it’s really a K. There is no K. There is NO K.
What is innocent misrepresentation? What effect on a K?
Ex: I say my home is 2400 sq ft when it only has 2000. If you reasonably relied on it, you can AVOID the K. But if I said 2050 sq ft, then chances are you can’t get out of it. But you could get damages.
What is the general rule of non-disclosure?
There is no duty to disclose facts that would tend to discourage the other party from entering into the K. But there are many exceptions. [1] Statutory Disclosure Rules (truth in lending act); [2] active concealment (treated like a misrep); [3] where partial disclosure is misleading; [4] changing circumstances cause a previous true assertion to no longer be true; [5] party becomes aware that other party is operating under a mistake as to a vital fact (most heavily litigated); [6] there is a confidential or a fiduciary relationship.
What are the exceptions to the rule of non-disclosure?
[1] Statutory Disclosure Rules (truth in lending act); [2] active concealment (treated like a misrep); [3] where partial disclosure is misleading; [4] changing circumstances cause a previous true assertion to no longer be true; [5] party becomes aware that other party is operating under a mistake as to a vital fact (most heavily litigated); [6] there is a confidential or a fiduciary relationship.
What is unconscionability?
[1] based on “unfair surprise” and “oppression”; [2] Look for both “procedural” (gross disparity of bargaining power, terms tucked away, etc.) and “substantive” (grossly unfair terms) unconscionability. Most courts require both. [3] judged at the time the K is entered into. [4] decided by the judge.
How can a K be illegal?
[1] K may be illegal as to its subject matter (drugs) VOID; [2] Subject matter may be legal, but purpose is illegal (leasing a plane for transporting drugs) if the renter is ignorant of purpose, he can recover damages for breach; [3] Against public policy – neither party can enforce.
Besides the words of the parties, what are other sources of contract terms?
[1] Custom & Usage – how these deals are usually done in their particular place and particular trade; [2] Past Dealings between the parties – how these particular people have performed these Ks in the past; [3] UCC, if sale of goods – some terms are implied unless specifically excluded (warranty of title, implied warranty of merchantability
What does the PER prevent?
Terms from becoming part of the K
What facts trigger PER?
[1] written K intended as final agreement (totally or completely integrated); [2] Earlier of contemporaneous agreements; the PER does not apply to oral or written agreements made after the final writing; it does not apply to modifications.
What is the PER rule?
Where parties have agreed to a written K as the final expression of their agreement, a prior written or oral agreement, or a contemporaneous oral agreement, cannot be used to vary the terms of the agreement. [a contemporaneous written agreement is part of the final written agreement]
What are the PER issues that the judge decides?
[1] do the parties intend that, even though it is not complete, the written agreement is final as to the terms in that agreement? (partially integrated); [2] Do the parties intend the written agreement to be not only final as to the terms in the agreement, but also their complete agreement? (completely integrated) [note – merger clauses, sometimes called integration clauses, are strong evidence that the parties intended the written agreement to be completely integrated.
What is strong evidence that the parties intended a written agreement to be completely integrated?
Merger clauses (aka integration clauses)
What does a judge look for when deciding on PER issues?
[1] merger clause – not conclusive (especially in consumer transactions); [2] How complete does it look (napkin or 20 pages of K); [3] time length of negotiations; [4] presence of lawyers
What are exceptions to PER?
[1] using earlier agreement to explain the final writing; [2] Using earlier agreement to establish a Δ (e.g., fraud, duress, mistake, etc.); [3] Using the earlier agreement to show that the written K would not become effective until a condition occurred (condition precedent); [4] using earlier agreements to add to the final writing if the court concludes that the final writing was not intended as the complete agreement (the agreement in only partially integrated) – you can add but you can’t contradict. [5] Collateral agreements are admissible; [6] Oral or written agreements after the final writing
What is a collateral agreement?
[1] agreed to for separate consideration, or [2] is such an agreement as in the circumstances might naturally be omitted form the writing. (it’s only partially integrated). A collateral agreement is a separate K.
What are the types of delivery obligations of a Seller of goods?
Shipment K and Destination K
In a Shipment K, the Seller completes its delivery obligation when it:
[1] gets the goods to the carrier, [2] makes appropriate arrangements for shipment (considering the nature of the goods), and [3] notifies the Buyer that the goods are coming (and obtains and tenders any documents necessary to enable the Buyer to take possession.
In a Destination K, the Seller completes its delivery obligation when it:
Not complete until they are tendered to the Buyer. Tender – making goods reasonably available to Buyer
How do you tender to a Buyer?
Make the goods reasonably available to the Buyer
What are the sources of delivery terms?
Course of Dealing, Usage of Trade, the parties words
What is FOB?
Free on Board (city)
What is CIF?
Costs, Insurance, Freight (city)
What is C&F?
Cost and Freight (city)
What is FAS?
Free along side (ship or port)
What is Ex-Ship?
From the carrying vessel. It means away from the ship.
What is the general rule for delivery terms?
Most Ks are shipment contracts. Contracts with the provision Ex-Ship, or with the provision FOB followed by a city other than where the Seller and/or the goods are located (e.g., FOB Buyer’s place of business) are destination Ks. All others are shipment Ks.
Which delivery terms represent destination Ks?
Ex-Ship or FOB followed by a city other than where the Seller and/or the goods are located (e.g., FOB Buyer’s place of business)
What do most delivery terms represent?
Shipment contracts. Exceptions are Ex-Ship or FOB followed by a city other than where the Seller and/or the goods are located (e.g., FOB Buyer’s place of business)
For delivery terms, if the contractual language is unclear, what is the presumption?
If it’s unclear (e.g., the K calls for shipment to the Buyer, but does not contain usual shipment terms such as FOB or CIF), the presumption is that the transaction is a shipment K.
Who has the risk of loss when goods are damaged w/o the fault of Buyer or Seller?
If risk of loss on Buyer – he has to pay full K price for the lost damaged goods. If risk of loss on Seller – there is no obligation on Buyer; and there is possible liability on Seller for nondelivery (though commercial impracticability may excuse Seller’s nondelivery).
How do you recognize a risk of loss question on the bar exam?
Look for a situation where: [1] after the K was formed but before Buyer receives the goods, [2] the goods are damaged or destroyed and [3] neither the Buyer nor the Seller is to blame.
How do you decide who has risk of loss in delivery contracts?
[1] Agreement of the parties – any agreement of the parties control; [2] Breach – were the goods non-conforming so that the Buyer would have a right to reject or revoke, or did the Buyer wrongfully repudiate? If so, special rules apply.
What happens when there is no agreement as to delivery terms, no breach, and delivery by common carrier other than Seller, when does risk of loss shift?
The risk of loss shifts from Seller to Buyer at the time that the Seller completes its delivery obligations.
What happens when there is no agreement as to delivery terms, no breach, and no delivery by common carrier other than Seller, when does risk of loss shift?
The determining factor is whether the Seller is a merchant. Risk of loss shifts from a merchant-Seller on the buyer’s receipt of the goods; risk shifts from a non-merchant seller when the seller tenders the goods. Goods are tendered when the seller is holding the goods for the buyer and lets the buyer know that the goods are available to her. Tender comes before receipt.
Compare the risk of loss in Sale on Approval vs. Sale or Return situations
Sale or Return Situations – The same rules apply. Usually pops up in situations where the goods are delivered to a buyer who plans to resell the goods, and the buyer has a right to return the goods to the seller even thought they conform to the K (e.g., goods taken on assignment) Sale on Approval – Risk of loss is on seller until the buyer accepts the goods. Here the goods are delivered to the buyer primarily for the buyer to use, and the buyer has a right to return the goods even though they conform to the K (e.g., buyer using a piece of equipment on a trial basis)
What does it mean for something to go to the basis of the bargain?
It’s a natural tendency to induce reliance by the buyer. It’s the type of thing that a buyer would rely upon. It’s NOT puffery.
Compare Warranty vs. Puffery
[1] if it’s in writing, it’s more likely to be warranty; [2] the more specific that it is, the more likely to be a warranty; [3] look at the industry involved (puffing at car dealership)
What is the implied warranty of merchantability (IWOM) and who gives it?
Only given by merchants who deal in goods of the kind. It’s when any person buys any goods from any merchant, a term is automatically added to the K by operation of law – that the goods are fit for the ordinary purposes for which such goods are used.
What are the triggering facts for an IWOF?
Buyer has particular purpose; buyer is relying on seller to select suitable goods; seller has reason to know of purpose and reliance
What’s the warranty for an IWFO? How do you show it?
That the goods are fit for a particular purpose. You have to show that the buyer relied and the seller knew of the reliance
What is the Implied Warranty of Title?
Seller warrants that it has good title, and there are no undisclosed security interests, liens, or other encumbrances.
What are the different warranties of quality?
[1] Express Warranties (by words or conduct); [2] Implied warranty of merchantability; [3] Implied warranty of Fitness; [4] Implied Warranty of Title
What are the principal contractual limitations on warranty liability?
[1] Disclaimer and [2] limitation of remedies
What is a disclaimer of warranty?
A contract clause that eliminates warranties
What is necessary to disclaim an IWOM or IWOF?
[1] must be conspicuous (so written that a reasonable person would notice it); [2] it must mention “merchantability” or may be more general language which in common understanding calls the buyer’s attention to the exclusion of warranties and makes plain there is no implied warranty (e.g., These goods are being sold “as is” or “with all faults”; All warranties are disclaimed; There are no implied
For IWOM or IWOF, can you exclude or modify the warranties?
Yes, by COD, COP, or Trade Usage
What happens in IWOM or IWOF situations where the seller demanded that the buyer examine the goods fully?
There are no implied warranties wrt defects which an examination ought to have revealed. But it must be a demand and not a mere asking. This is narrowly interpreted by courts.
How do you disclaim an IWOT?
It may be excluded or modified only by specific language or by circumstances (sales by sheriffs, executors, foreclosing lienors) which give buyer reason to know that the seller does not claim title in himself, or is purporting to sell only an unknown or limited right.
What is a limitation of remedies clause? Is it valid?
A K provision that limits or controls the recovery for any breach of warranty. It does not eliminate the warranty. Such a remedy limitation is valid so long as it is not unconscionable, and so long as the limited remedy does not fail of its essential purpose.
How do courts view a limitation of consequential damages? How does the UCC view this limitation?
Generally, it’s ok to say “no consequential damages” but if it’s unconscionable, the court won’t uphold. Under the UCC, any attempt to limit consequential damages for personal injuries in case of consumer goods is prima facie unconscionable. The courts might also apply for equipment, but it wouldn’t be prima facie.
How does the UCC view a limitation of consequential goods in consumer goods?
Any attempt to limit for personal injuries in cases of consumer goods is prima facie unconscionable.
What is the statute of limitations for a breach of warranty? When does it start to run?
It’s 4 years. It starts to run form the tender of delivery (even if buyer is unaware of breach). But when the warranty explicitly extends to the future performance of the goods (e.g., 90-day warranty, 5-year warranty, lifetime warranty), then the 4-year starts to run when the breach is or should have been discovered.
What is a condition?
A promise modifier. It holds up the performance of one or both of the parties. True conditions are events that are outside the control of either party.
What is a condition coupled with a covenant?
An event that affects the duty to perform that is to some extent within the control of one of the parties and creates a legal obligation on the party to use reasonable good faith efforts to cause the event to occur.
what are the types of conditions?
[1] Condition precedent; [2] Condition concurrent; [3] Condition Subsequent
What is a condition precedent?
It’s the most common and it must occur before an absolute duty of immediate performance arises in the other party. Ex: I’ll buy the house if I can get financing.
What is a condition concurrent?
It’s two conditions that are capable of occurring together, and the parties are bound to perform at the same time. Ex: I will sell you a book for $10. (you giving me the book and me giving you the $10 are concurrent)
What is a condition subsequent?
One the occurrence of which cuts off an already existing duty of performance. (ex: insurance will pay, but if you don’t go after the person who hit you, the insurance won’t help you)
What is an express condition? Hints to look for?
One that is expressed in the contract. Look for “if”, “subject to,” “in the event that,” “unless,” or “on condition that”. Ex: I will mow your lawn this weekend if my lawn mower is returned by the repair shop in time.
What is a constructive/Implied by law condition?
They are read into the contract by the court; they are created by operation of law. This is done in the interest of fairness to ensure that both parties receive the performance for which they bargained. A party’s substantial performance of the K is said to be a constructive condition of the other party’s obligation to perform. Ex: if P agrees to paint house, it’s implied he will paint all of it.
What is Excuse of conditions?
Look to the person who benefits form the condition, the person who is protected by the condition. Ask whether she has done or said anything that justifies taking away that benefit or protection, leaving her unconditionally obligated to perform.
What are examples of excuse of condition?
[1] failure to cooperate; [2] estoppel/waiver
What is the difference between estoppel and waiver?
Estoppel is based on a statement or conduct by the person protected by a condition before the conditioning even was to occur and requires a change of position (reliance). Waiver – is a similar statement or conduct made by the person after the conditioning event was to occur and does not require a change of position (reliance).
What is the standard for satisfaction of an express condition?
Strict compliance.
What is the standard for a constructive condition?
Substantial performance is the general standard for satisfaction of a constructive condition.
Sale of Goods – What is perfect tender? What are the options available?
General standard of A2. subject to limited exceptions, the seller is obligated to deliver perfect goods. If the goods or tender of delivery fail in any respect to conform to the contract, the buyer can reject the whole, accept the whole, or accept any commercial unit and reject the rest. De Minimis will not violate Perfect Tender
Sale of Goods – What’s the second chance for perfect tender called and in what situations does it arise?
Cure [1] Contractual right to cure (limitation of remedy clause); [2] Time for Performance has not yet expired; [3] Time for performance has expired – the statutory test is whether the seller has reasonable grounds for believing that the improper tender would be acceptable, perhaps w/ a money allowance. Look for info about prior deals.
Sale of Goods – What has to happen to allow cure after the time for performance has expired in perfect tender situations?
the statutory test is whether the seller has reasonable grounds for believing that the improper tender would be acceptable, perhaps w/ a money allowance. Look for info about prior deals.
Sale of Goods – What is required for the rejection of the goods?
[1] Notice – buyer that wishes to reject must notify the seller. Must take affirmative action to avoid acceptance.
Sale of Goods – When rejecting goods, what kind of notice is required?
The notice should be timely, because the seller could cure, the stuff might depreciate in value, and should be specific in the reasons for rejecting.
Sale of Goods – What kind of specificity should a buyer offer when rejecting goods?
Buyer must state reasons for rejecting. Can’t rely on unstated defect to justify rejection or establish breach if: [1] seller could have cured if he knew about it; or [2] between merchants, when the seller has, after rejection, made a request in writing for a full and final written statement of all defects upon which the buyer proposes to rely.
Sale of Goods – When is rejection of goods allowed?
[1] If the goods are less than perfect, the buyer has the option to reject unless it is an installment sales K (then the perfect tender rule wouldn’t apply); [2] rejection must occur before acceptance.
Sale of Goods – What is an installment sales contract?
It requires or authorizes delivery in separate lots to be separately accepted. But if the K doesn’t authorize it, you have no right to do it separately.
Sale of Goods – Why is it necessary to identify installment sales contracts?
Buyer has the right to reject an installment only where there is a substantial impairment in that installment that cannot be cured.
Sale of Goods – Does breach in one installment ever permit the buyer to reject not just that one installment, but the entire contract?
Where breach wrt substantially impairs the K.
Sale of Goods – When has the buyer accepted goods?
[1] When she, after a reasonable opportunity to inspect, indicates to the seller that the goods conform to requirements or that she will keep them even though they conform; or [2] When she fails to make an effective rejection; or [3] When she does any act inconsistent w/ the seller’s ownership (but look to facts – mobile home where person has nowhere else to live).
Sale of Goods – What is the buyer’s right of inspection before acceptance?
Buyer has right to inspect goods before payment and acceptance. Sometime, payment is required by the K before inspection.
Sale of Goods – What is the effect of acceptance of goods?
Buyer cannot later reject them.
Sale of Goods – What are the requirements for revoking an acceptance?
[1] Nonconformity substantially impairs the value of the goods to him (whether it would be a substantial impairment to a reasonable person in the buyer’s position)* (This is subjective and objective.); and [2] excusable ignorance of grounds for revocation or reasonable reliance on seller’s assurance of satisfaction; and [3] revocation within a reasonable time after discovery of nonconformity and before any substantial change in the condition of the goods which is not caused by their own defects.
Sale of Goods – What does a buyer have to do after revoking acceptance of goods?
Must hold the goods for the seller using reasonable care. A merchant buyer must follow any reasonable instructions from the seller if seller has no agent or place of business at the market of rejection or revocation.
Sale of Goods – What’s a buyer’s payment obligation?
[1] in the absence of an agreement for credit, the buyer must pay cash, [2] the buyer can pay by check, and [3] the seller can refuse the check, but if seller demands cash, the buyer must be given reasonable amount of time to get it.
Sale of Goods – What’s the effect of breach on risk of loss if the goods are so defective that buyer has a right to reject them?
The risk of loss remains on the seller until the defects are cured or the buyer accepts the goods in spite of their defects.
Sale of Goods – What’s the effect of breach on risk of loss if the goods are defective and buyer rightfully revokes her acceptance?
The risk of loss is on the seller to the extent of any deficiency in the buyer’s insurance coverage.
Sale of Goods – What’s the effect of breach on risk of loss if the seller has identified conforming goods to the K, and the buyer repudiates or otherwise breaches the K before the risk has passed to her?
The risk of loss falls on the buyer to the extent of any deficiency in the seller’s insurance coverage.
Sale of Goods – If tender is less than perfect, what can the buyer do in a sale of goods K?
Reject the goods and withhold payment – the buyer is excused from paying (and can sue for damages)
At CL, if one party to a K substantially performs, what is the other party’s obligations?
Require to perform. A minor breach by one party to the K will not excuse performance by the other party (though the other party can sue for damages). A party’s substantial performance is said to be a “constructive condition” of the other party’s obligation to perform.
What is the technical term for anticipatory repudiation?
Excuse by reason of other party’s pre-performance indication of an unwillingness or inability to perform
What is repudiation?
Unequivocal manifestation by one party to the other that [1] the repudiating party cannot or will not perform its obligations under the K [2] made prior to the time that the repudiating party’s performance is due
What does anticipatory repudiation do for the non-repudiating party?
Excuses the duty to perform. It also gives an immediate claim to damages for breach unless the claimant (non-repudiating party) has already finished her performance.
Can you retract a repudiation?
Yes, as long as the other party hasn’t relied on it.
What are the four types of agreements that excuse a K?
[1] Modification; [2] Accord & Satisfaction; [3] Rescission; [4] Novation
What is a modification?
It’s an agreement changing the duties under the K. discharge of the original obligations occurs as soon as this new agreement is entered into. We are not changing the people, but the duties of the people.
What are we changing with a modification?
The duties of the people, NOT the people.
What is an accord & satisfaction?
An agreement to accept substitute performance in FUTURE satisfaction of a contractual duty. The accord is the new agreement to accept a different performance in order to discharge an existing contractual duty. The satisfaction is the performance of the new agreement. The original duty is not discharged until performance of the new agreement.
Under an accord & satisfaction, when is the original duty discharged?
Not until performance of the new agreement.
What can you sue on if a party breaches an accord?
The original agreement or the accord agreement.
What is a rescission?
A cancellation of duties under the K. Discharge occurs at the time of this new agreement. Some performance must remain to be done on each side of the K. if either or both parties have fully performed, there is no valid rescission.
Can you have an oral rescission? Are there exceptions?
Yes, you can have oral rescission. Exceptions – [1] transferring intent in land (need writing); [2] UCC – when you put in clause for having written rescissions.
What is Novation?
Substitution of a party. Immediate excuse. It requires agreement of both parties to the original contract and the new party. It’s different than delegation.
Does delegation relieve the original party of its duty?
No
Excuse by Reason of impossibility or impracticability – triggering facts
Look for: [1] post-K occurrence, [2] that was not reasonably foreseeable at the time of the K, that was not a risk assumed by a party to the K, [3] that renders performance impossible (commercially impracticable), [4] without the fault of the party seeking to be excused.
What effect did the destruction of subject matter of contract or means of performance have at CL?
Discharged/excused.
Destruction of goods in a sale of goods situation (UCC) raises three questions:
[1] Were the goods destroyed the subject matter of the K? [2] Did the buyer have the risk of loss at the time of the destruction? and [3] how is destruction of some of the goods that are the subject matter of the K to be handled?
For UCC, you only worry about impossibility if …
The seller has risk of loss. If the buyer has risk of loss, he still has to pay.
Is a farmer a merchant?
No. non-merchant
What are types of situations where there might be an excuse by reason of impossibility or impracticability?
[1] destruction of subject matter of K or means of performance; [2] incapacity of a person necessary to perform; [3] governmental regulation or order; [4] increase in costs of performance (just an increase by itself is usually an assumed risk); [5] temporary impossibility
What happens with temporary impossibility in performance of a K? What’s an example?
Bad weather on a construction project. It suspends contractual duties, but generally does not discharge them. When performance becomes possible, the duty springs back into existence. The duty will not spring back if the burden on either party to the K would be substantially increased or different from that originally contemplated.
What should you look for in an excuse by reason of frustration of purpose?
Look for: [1] Post-K occurrence; [2] not reasonably foreseeable at the time that the K was entered into; [3] totally or nearly destroys the purpose or value of the K; and [4] the purpose of the K was known to both parties at the time of the K. (Krell wanted to watch the king. Krell got his deposit back)
What are the tests for determining whether a K provision is a valid liquidated damages clause or an invalid penalty provision?
[1] at time of K, damage was difficult to estimate, and [2] at time of K, provision was a reasonable forecast of possible damages.
What is the general measure of damages for breach of an ordinary K?
The injured party is entitled to recover an amount that would put him in as good a position as if the K had been performed. (Expectation Damages)
What are incidental damages?
They include the cost incurred in a reasonable effort to avoid loss resulting from the breach.
What are foreseeable consequential damages?
They include injury to person or property and lost profits resulting from breach. Hadley – only liable for losses resulting from the breach that a reasonable person would have foreseen could result from the breach at the time of the entry into the K.
What are avoidable damages?
Damages that she could have reasonably avoided. She must make efforts to mitigate damages she is not expected to take steps that involve undue burden, risk, or humiliation.
What are speculative damages?
Damages must be established to a reasonable certainty (not mathematical accuracy). Where Π’s expectation damages are too speculative to measure, reliance damages may be recovered.
What are the two relevant facts for general contract damages policy of A2?
[1] Who breached; [2] Who has the goods. There are four basic A2 damages fact patterns and four sets of rules.
A2 - What’s the formula for when Seller breaches & Buyer keeps the goods?
FMV if perfect – FMV as delivered
A2 - What’s the formula for when Seller breaches, Seller keeps the goods?
(MP at time of discovery of the breach – K Price) or (Replacement Price – K Price)
A2 - What’s the formula for when Buyer breaches, Buyer has the goods?
K Price. (MP doesn’t matter!)
A2 - What’s the formula for when Buyer breaches, Seller has the goods?
(K Price – MP at Time & Place for tender) or (K Price – Resale Price)
What do you need when you are trying to get resale?
Need: [1] good faith; [2] commercially reasonable manner
What are the general principles of equitable remedies?
They are available only if remedies at law (money damages) are not available. [1] Unclean hands; [2] impossibility and hardship; [3] laches
What is unclean hands?
General principle of equity – Available if Π is guilty of improper conduct wrt the same transaction involved in litigation
What is impossibility and hardship?
General principle of equity – equity will not order something that is not within the capacity of the person ordered to do it; nor will equity order relief when the burden on the Δ is disproportionate to the gain to the Π.
What is laches?
General principle of equity – where Π has delayed bringing suit, and this delay has substantially increased the cost or difficulty of performance by the Δ, or has made it much more difficult for the Δ to defend the lawsuit. Much more flexible than SOF
What are some equitable remedies?
[1] Specific Performance; [2] equitable rescission; [3] reformation
What is equitable rescission?
Equitable Defense – This remedy is available where performance is excused b/c of impossibility, impracticability, or frustration of purpose. It can also be used where the K is void or voidable on ground such as mutual mistake.
What is reformation?
Equitable Defense – used where the agreement was incorrectly recorded.
Under the UCC, what does reasonable grounds for insecurity / adequate assurance of performance mean?
Where either party to a sale of goods has reasonable grounds for insecurity about the other party’s performance, it may in writing demand adequate assurance of performance and may, if commercially reasonable, suspend performance until it receives such assurance. If such assurance is not received w/in a reasonable time not exceeding 30 days, it can be treated as a repudiation of the K.
What is a seller’s right of reclamation?
An unpaid seller has no special rights in goods it has delivered to the buyer even though it has not yet been paid for the goods. The seller can obtain special rights by obtaining A9 security interest or by meeting the requirements of § 2-702. Under § 2-702, An unpaid seller has the right to reclaim its goods if: [1] it is a credit sale; [2] the buyer is insolvent when it receives the goods; [3] demand for return is made w/in 10 days of buyer’s receipt of the goods or within a reasonable time if buyer made false representations of solvency.
Under § 2-702, An unpaid seller has the right to reclaim its goods if:
[1] it is a credit sale; [2] the buyer is insolvent when it receives the goods; [3] demand for return is made w/in 10 days of buyer’s receipt of the goods or within a reasonable time if buyer made false representations of solvency.
What does it mean to be insolvent?
Liabilities > assets; or not paying debts when due.
Who is the promisor in 3pb situations?
The person who is to render performance that benefits the 3pb
Who is the promisee in 3pb situations?
The person bargaining w/ the promisor for promisor’s performance
Do intended bens have legal rights under a K?
Yes
Do incidental bens have rights under a K?
No
How do you determine if a party is an intended ben?
Consider the promisee’s intention. Was the purpose of the promisee, according to the language of K, to get the benefit for herself primarily, or to confer a Ben on another person?
What do courts look at in determining the intention of the promisee?
[1] whether the 3rd party is expressly designated in the K; [2] whether performance by the promisor is to be made directly to the third party; [3] whether the 3rd party has any rights under the K (e.g., the right to designate when and where performance is to be made); and [4] whether the 3rd party has a relationship w/ the promisee from which one could infer that the promisee wished to make an agreement for the 3rd party’s benefit.
When is a 3rd party a creditor/donee?
A 3rd party is a donee Ben unless it was already a creditor of the promisee when the K was entered into between the promisee and promisor.
Can the promisor and the promisee modify or terminate the rights of a 3rd party ben?
The answer to this question depends on whether the Ben’s rights have vested.
When do the rights of a beneficiary vest?
[1] when the 3rd party brings suit to enforce the promise; [2] when the 3rd party materially changes its position in justifiable reliance on the promise; or [3] when the 3rd party manifests assent to the promise in a manner invited or requested by the parties (this rests in part on the analogy to the law of offer and acceptance and in part on the probability that the Ben will rely in ways difficult or impossible to prove.)
What is the exception to the general rule of when 3pb rights vest?
Contrary contract provisions control.
Paul promises to pay me if I paint Betty’s house. Who is [1] 3pb? [2] Promisor? [3] Promisee?
[1] 3pb = Betty; [2] Promisor = Me; [3] Promisee = Paul
In 3pb situations, who can sue whom?
[1] Ben can sue Promisor; [2] Promisee can sue the Promisor; [3] Creditor Ben can sue Promisee on the existing obligation between them.
X contracts w/ Y to perform janitorial services. Y then delegates the contractual duty to perform janitorial services to Z. Who is [1] Delegating party? [2] Delegate? [3] Obligee?
[1] Delegating party – Y [2] Delegate – Z (person to whom the duties are being delegated; [3] Obligee – X (the one to whom the duties are owed)
What’s the difference between delegate and assign?
You assign rights and you delegate duties. When they say assign duties, the mean delegate.
Is the duty delegable? – Contract provisions – What if the K prohibits assignments?
They really mean no delegation. More likely, the K won’t say.
At CL, delegation is possible unless:
[1] Special skills, or [2] special reputation
Do you need the consent of the oblige for delegation?
No.
Do you need consideration for delegation?
No
What are the consequences of delegation?
[1] Delegating party remains liable. [2] Delegate liable to oblige only if he receives consideration from delegating party.
Compare an assignment of rights with a 3pb situation
w/ 3pb, you are adding a person w/ rights. With assignment, you are substituting one person with rights for another.
What’s the CL rule of assignments?
An assignment cannot substantially change the duties of the obligor. Otherwise, it’s ok
Can you assign output/requirement Ks?
These can be assigned. UCC now says requirements can’t be unreasonably disproportionate from year to year or to the original requirements.
What should you look at when analyzing contracts to see how they address assignments?
Determine whether the K [1] merely prohibits assignments or [2] also invalidates assignments.
What does a prohibition of assignments mean for the rights and powers?
It takes away the right to assign, but not the power to make effective assignment.
What is the language required for a present assignment?
“I assign”, not “I promise to assign” or “I will assign” or “I intend to give you an assignment.” (Note: it is not necessary to use the word “assign”; any accepted words of transfer will suffice.
Do you need a writing to have an effective assignment?
Absent a statute to the contrary, a writing is not required to have an effective assignment.
What kinds of assignments need to be in writing?
[1] Wage assignments; [2] assignments of an interest in land; [3] assignments of choses in action worth more than $5000; [4] assignments intended as security interests under A9 of UCC
Assignee vs. Obligor – generally
Assignee takes the place of the assignor. The obligor generally does not participate in the assignment.
What’s the general rule of gratuitous assignments?
It’s possible to make one. Generally, a gift assignment can be freely revoked.
How can revocation of a gratuitous assignment be revoked?
Accomplished directly or indirectly.
How can revocation of a gratuitous assignment be indirectly revoked?
By [1] the death or bankruptcy of the assignor, [2] the assignor taking performance directly from the obligor, or [3] the making of a subsequent assignment of the same right by the assignor to another.
What’s the general rule pertaining to claims among assignees?
Since a later gift assignment revokes an earlier gift assignment, the general rule for resolving claims among assignees who did not provide consideration is a last in time rule.
When is a gratuitous assignment not revocable?
If: [1] the assignment is in a writing either signed or under seal that is delivered by the assignor, or [2] the assignment is accompanied by delivery of a writing of a type customarily accepted as a symbol or as E of the right assigned. Ex: deed of gift, non-negotiable promissory note, savings bank book, life insurance policy, registered bond
A gratuitous assignment ceases to be revocable to the extent that before the assignee’s right is terminated:
[1] the obligor has already performed (i.e., there has been payment or satisfaction of the obligation); or [2] the assignee has obtained a judgment against the obligor, or [3] the assignee has entered into a new K w/ the obligor by Novation; or [4] the assignee has relied on the assignment in a way that is reasonable, foreseeable, and detrimental.
If the gift assignment is not revocable, will it be revoked by later assignment? What’s the priority?
It will not be revoked by a later assignment and will take priority over a later assignment.
What’s the general rule for assignments for consideration?
The first assignee for consideration has priority over all subsequent assignees and over all creditors of the assignor.
A subsequent assignee for value can take priority over earlier assignees if it is _________ and:
Without notice; and [1] it is the first to obtain a judgment against the obligor, or [2] it is the first to obtain payment from the obligor, or [3] it enters into a new K with the obligor by novation that supersedes the obligation running to the assignor in favor of the new one running to him (this assumes that the obligor also had no knowledge of the prior assignment at the time of the novation), or [4] it gets the first delivery of a tangible token or writing, the surrender of which is required by the obligor’s K (a symbolic writing), or [5] it can set up an estoppel against the first assignee (e.g., the first assignee permits the assignor to retain a document that would indicate to a reasonable person that the assignor was the sole owner of the right)
When there is an assignment for value, what does the assignor warrant to the assignee? What would be an example? What happens if the obligor is incapable of performing?
That the rights assigned actually exist and that he will do nothing to impair the value of the assignment. E.g., the warranty is breached where the assignee brings an action against the obligor to enforce the obligation and the obligor successfully asserts against the assignee a defense which it has against the assignor. (Remember, the obligor can raise any defenses against the assignee that it has against the assignor.) Note: The assignor will not be liable to the assignee simply b/c the obligor is incapable of performing. The assignor does not warrant what the obligor will do.
CRIM LAW
CRIM LAW
What are the major Specific Intent crimes?
Inchoate: [1] Solicitation; [2] Attempt; [3] Conspiracy… [4] 1st Degree premeditated murder; [5] Assault; [6] Larceny & robbery; [7] Burglary… Defraud: [8] Forgery; [9] False Pretenses; [10] Embezzlement
Define purposely
When a person’s conscious object is to engage in certain conduct or cause a certain result.
Define knowingly
When a person is aware that his conduct is of a particular nature or knows that his conduct will necessarily or very likely cause a particular result.
Define recklessly
When a person knows of a substantial and unjustifiable risk and consciously disregards it.
What are the elements of conspiracy?
It requires [1] an agreement between two or more persons; [2] an intent to enter into the agreement; and [3] an intent by at least two persons to achieve the objective of the agreement. A majority of states now require an overt act, but an act of mere preparation is enough.
What are the elements of attempt?
Intent to commit a crime that falls short of completing the crime.
Shorthand ways to remember the Four insanity tests
[1] M’Naghten - Δ does not know right from wrong; [2] Irresistible Impulse – an impulse that Δ cannot resist; [3] Durham – but for mental illness, Δ would not have done the act; [4] ALI or MPC – combination of M’Naghten and irresistible impulse.
What is the imperfect self-defense doctrine?
When one of the elements of justified deadly force is missing ([1] w/o fault; [2] confronted with unlawful force; [3] threatened w/ imminent death or great bodily harm). It can reduce murder to manslaughter.
What is battery?
The unlawful application of force to the person of another resulting in either bodily injury or an offensive touching. A Completed Assault!
What are aggravated batteries?
[1] battery w/ a deadly weapon; [2] battery resulting in serious bodily harm; [3] battery of a child, woman, or police officer
What is assault?
Either: [1] an attempt (specific intent) to commit a battery or [2] the intentional creation – other than mere words – of a reasonable apprehension in the mid of the victim of imminent bodily harm. If there is actual touching, it is battery. Touching = NO assault
What is aggravated assault?
Assault w/ deadly weapon or intent to main or rape. Treated more severely than simple assault.
Think of assault as ….
Two separate crime: [1] attempted battery assault – a specific intent crime (Δ must intend to commit crime) and [2] creation of reasonable apprehension assault.
CL – What is murder?
The unlawful killing of a human being w/ malice aforethought.
CL – when does malice aforethought exist?
If there are no facts reducing the killing to voluntary manslaughter or excusing (i.e., giving rise to defense) and it was committed w/ one of the following states of mind: [1] Intent to kill; [2] intent to inflict great bodily injury; [3] reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk of human life (abandoned/malignant/depraved heart); or [4] intent to commit a felony (felony murder)
CL – What is voluntary manslaughter?
A killing that would be murder but for the existence of adequate provocation.
Exam tip for Voluntary Manslaughter
Note the interplay between reasonable person and Δ: [1] Sudden and intense passion that would cause reasonable person to lose control; [2] Δ lost control; [3] not enough time for reasonable person to cool off; [4] Δ did not cool off.
What is imperfect self-defense and what does it do?
Murder may be reduced to manslaughter even though: [1] Δ was at fault in starting altercation; or [2] Δ unreasonably but honestly believed in necessity of responding w/ deadly force; [3]
When is a killing considered as involuntary manslaughter?
If it was committed with criminal negligence (grossly negligent) or during the commission of an unlawful act (misdemeanor or felony not included w/in the felony murder rule)
On the MBE, if it just says “manslaughter” what should you assume?
Voluntary
Statutory Modification of CL Classification of Murder – A murder will be 2nd degree murder unless it comes under the following circumstances which would make it 1st Degree Murder:
[1] Deliberate and Premeditated; [2] Felony murder – if murder is committed during perpetration of enumerated felony (usually arson, robbery, burglary, rape, mayhem, & kidnapping) – other than these, it will be 2nd; [3] Others – killings performed in other ways like torture.
Does voluntary intoxication apply to 1st degree murder?
Yes, b/c it’s based on premeditation which is specific intent. If Δ was so intoxicated that he was unable to premeditate, he can be convicted only of 2nd degree murder, which requires only reckless indifference to human life (and for which voluntary intoxication is NOT a defense)
What is felony murder and what is implied?
Any death caused in the commission of, or in an attempt to commit, a felony is murder. Malice is implied from the intent to commit the underlying felony.
What are limitations on liability for the felony murder rule?
[1] Δ must be guilty of underlying felony (if he has Δ to underlying felony, he has Δ to felony murder rule); [2] felony must be distinct form killing itself; [3] Death must have been a foreseeable result of the felony; [4] Death must have been caused before the Δ’s immediate flight from the felony –once Δ reaches temporary safety, subsequent deaths are not felony murder; [5] Δ is not liable for felony murder when a co-felon is killed; [6] under agency theory, Δ is not liable when an innocent party is killed unless the death is caused by Δ or his agent (accomplice).
What is false imprisonment?
Unlawful confinement of a person without his valid consent. It’s not confinement to simply prevent a person from going where she desires to go, as long as alternative routes are available to her.
What is kidnapping?
Unlawful confinement of a person that involves either [1] some movement of the victim; or [2] concealment of the victim in a secret place.
What is rape?
Unlawful carnal knowledge of a woman by a man, not her husband, without her effective consent. Slightest penetration is sufficient.
Larceny consists of:
* [1] A Taking; [2] And carrying away; [3] Of tangible personal property; [4] Of another; [5] By trespass; [6] With intent to permanently deprive. ------ **[1] A taking of (obtaining control); [2] And carrying away (asportation – slight movement enough); [3] Of tangible personal property (excluding realty, services, and intangibles, but including written instruments embodying intangible rights such as stock certificates); [4] Of another with possession; [5] By trespass (without consent or by consent induced by fraud); [6] With intent to permanently deprive that person of her interest in the property (must exist at time of taking or it’s not larceny).
What is embezzlement?
* [1] the fraudulent; [2] Conversion; [3] of Personal Property; [4] of another; [5] By a person in lawful possession of that property ------------- **[1] the fraudulent; [2] Conversion (i.e., dealing w/ the property in a manner inconsistent w/ the arrangement by which Δ has possession); [3] of Personal Property; [4] of another; [5] By a person in lawful possession of that property
What are the elements of false pretenses?
* [1] Obtaining title; [2] to personal property of another; [3] By an intentional false statement of past or existing fact (false promise to do something in future will not ground liability); [4] with intent to defraud the other. -----** Victim must actually be deceived by, or act in reliance on, the misrepresentation
Robbery consists of:
* [1] A taking; [2] of personal property of another; [3] from the other’s person or presence (including anywhere in his vicinity); [4] By force or threats of immediate death or physical injury to the victim, a member of his family or some person in victim’s presence; [5] with the intent to permanently deprive him of it. (3, 4, 5 are assault) ------ ** Robbery = Larceny + Assault
What is extortion?
Corrupt collection of an unlawful fee by an officer under color of office. It often will consist of obtaining property by means of threats to do harm or to expose information.
What are the elements of Receipt of Stolen Property?
[1] Receiving possession and control; [2] of “stolen” personal property; [3] Known to have been obtained in a manner constituting a criminal offense; [4] by another person; [5] with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of his interest in it.
What are the elements of forgery?
[1] Making or altering (by drafting, adding, or deleting); [2] A writing w/ apparent legal significance (e.g., a K not a painting); [3] So that it is false; i.e., representing that it is something that it is not, not merely containing a misrepresentation (e.g., a fake warehouse receipt, but not an inaccurate real warehouse receipt); [4] with intent to defraud (although no one need actually have been defrauded)
What are the elements of Uttering a Forged Document?
[1] The malicious; [2] Destruction of or damage to; [3] the property of another. Malice requires no ill will or hatred. But it does require that the damage or destruction have been intended or contemplated by the Δ.
What are the elements of burglary?
[1] Breaking; [2] and Entry; [3] of a dwelling; [4] Of Another; [5] At nighttime; [6] With the intent to commit a felony in the structure
Burglary – What is Breaking?
Creating or enlarging an opening by at least minimal force, fraud, or intimidation; if the Δ had the resident’s consent to enter, the entry is not a breaking. The breaking can be actual or constructive. If a door is open, then there is no breaking. But look for an interior door to be opened.
What elements does arson contain?
* [1] Malicious; [2] Burning; [3] of the dwelling; [4] of another --- **[1] Malicious = intentional or with reckless disregard of an obvious risk; [2] Burning = requiring some damage to the structure caused by fire. No water damage, no smoke damage, and no explosions (unless it causes the fire). [3] No barns, no discos. BUT, MBE questions may assume that it can apply to structures other than dwellings; [4] You can’t own it
CRIM PRO
CRIM PRO
What is the exclusionary rule?
Judge-made doctrine that prohibits the introduction of E obtained in violation of a Δ’s 4th, 5th, or 6th rights. Illegally obtained E is not admissible at trial and all fruits of the poisonous tree must also be excluded.
What are exceptions to the fruits of poisonous tree doctrine?
[1] statements obtained in violation of Miranda; [2] Δ’s intervening act of free will; [3] inevitable discovery; [4] violations of knock & announce rule
Exclusionary rule is inapplicable to:
[1] grand juries (unless E was obtained in violation of fed. wiretapping statute); [2] Civil Proceedings; [3] Internal Agency Rules; [4] Parole Revocation Proceedings
What constitutes a seizure?
When a reasonable person would believe that she is not free to leave or terminate an encounter with the government
An arrest occurs when …
The police take a person into custody against her will for purposes of criminal prosecution or interrogation.
When can the police Stop & Frisk?
When they have a reasonable suspicion of criminal activity or involvement of a crime, supported by articulable facts. If they have reasonable suspicion that detainee is armed & dangerous, they may frisk for weapons.
What is the duration & scope of a stop & frisk?
No longer than necessary to conduct a limited investigation to verify the suspicion. May ask for name and arrest upon refusal. Can arrest if PC for arrest arises. Property seizures are valid if based on reasonable suspicion.
To be valid, a roadblock must:
[1] Stop cars on basis of some neutral, articulable standard; [2] be designed to serve purposes closely related to a particular problem pertaining to automobiles and their mobility.
Questions to ask in search & seizure situations
[1] Does Δ have a 4th right (seizure by government concerning a place or thing in which the Δ had a reasonable expectation of privacy)? [2] Did gov have a valid warrant (issued by a neutral and detached magistrate on a showing of PC and reasonably precise as to the place to be searched and items to be seized)? [3] If the police did not have a valid warrant, did they make a valid warrantless search and seizure?
What are the warrantless search exceptions? (mnemonic)
PI CHASE – [1] Plain View; [2] Incident to Lawful Arrest: [3] Consent; [4] Hot Pursuit; [5] Auto Search; [6] Stop & Frisk; [6] Evanescent Evidence (Exigent Circumstances)
To have a 4th right, a person must have …
His own reasonable expectation of privacy wrt the place searched or item seized. Determination made on totality of circumstances
A person has a legitimate expectation of privacy any time:
[1] he owned or had a right to possession of the place searched; [2] place searched was his home, whether or not he owned or a had a right to possession of it; or [3] he was an overnight guest of owner of place searched
There is no reasonable expectation of privacy in: (mnemonic)
Very Gross Dog Vapors Harass So Brody Can’t Learn; [1] Voice; [2]Garbage; [3] Driveway; [4] Vehicle; [5] Handwriting; [6] Smell; [7] Bank records; [8] Curtilage; [9] Land visible from public place
A warrant will be issued only if…
There is PC to believe that seizable E will be found on person or premises at time warrant is executed. Officers must submit to magistrate an affidavit setting forth circumstances to allow mag to make independent determination of PC
What’s test for informers?
Totality of circumstances. Anonymous informer is ok
A search warrant based on affidavit will be held invalid if all three are met:
[1] False statement was included in affidavit by affiant; [2] affiant intentionally or recklessly included the false statement; and [3] false statement was material to finding of PC. Δs are rarely successful in this challenge.
Incident to a lawful arrest, the police may…
Search the person and areas into which he might reach to obtain weapons or destroy E (including entire passenger area of car). They can also make a protective sweep of area if they believe accomplices are present.
What is needed for the auto exception to warrant?
PC that vehicle contains fruits, instrumentalities, or E of a crime. They may search whole vehicle and any container that might reasonably contain item which they had PC to search. They can also tow auto to station and search later.
Plain View doctrine – police may make a warrantless seizure when they:
[1] are legitimately on premises; [2] discover E, fruits or instrumentalities of crime, or contraband; [3] see such E in plain view; and [4] have PC to believe that item is E, contraband, or fruit or instrumentality of crime. Ex: If police is looking for handgun in drawer, if he finds coke, that’s considered plain view.
What’s the standard for stop & frisk?
Articulable and reasonable suspicion.
Describe hot pursuit, Evanescent E and other emergencies and the need for warrants
Police in hot pursuit of a fleeing felon may make warrantless search and seizure and may even pursues the suspect into private dwelling; police may seize w/o a warrant E likely to disappear before warrant can be obtained; and contaminate food or drugs, persons injured or threatened w/ injury, and burning fires justify warrantless searches & seizures.
How can you get a warrant for administrative inspections and searches?
More lenient than for other searches. You need a showing of general and neutral enforcement plan
What are the exceptions permitting warrantless searches?
The following warrantless searches have been upheld: [1] seize spoiled or contaminated food; [2] admin search of biz w/in highly regulated industry; [3] inventory searches of arrestees; [4] airline passengers; [5] searches of parolees and their homes; [6] government employees’ desks and file cabinets; [7] Drug tests of railroad employees involved in accident; [8] drug tests of persons seeking customs employment in positions connected to drug interdiction; [9] drug tests of public school students who participate in extracurricular activities
A valid warrant authorizing a wiretap may be issued if:
[1] there is showing of PC; [2] suspected persons involved in the conversations to be overheard are name; [3] warrant describes w/ particularity the conversations that can be overheard; [4] wiretap is limited to a short period of time; [5] wiretap is terminated when desired info has been obtained; [6] return is made to court, showing what conversations have been intercepted.
6th Am guarantees …
The right to the assistance of counsel in criminal proceedings
The 6th guarantees the right to the assistance of counsel in all criminal proceedings, which include ….
All critical stages of a prosecution after judicial proceedings have begun (formal charges have begun)
What does the 6th prevent police from doing?
Deliberately eliciting an incriminating statement from a Δ outside the presence of counsel after the Δ has been charged unless he has waived his right to counsel.
A Δ who is arrested but not yet charged has what kind of right and doesn’t have what kind of right?
has a 5th right to counsel under Miranda but does not have 6th right to counsel
Even if a Δ’s 6th rights have attached regarding the charge for which he is being held, he may be questioned regarding ______ without violating the 6th right to counsel.
Unrelated, uncharged offenses
Under the 6th, two offenses will be considered different if ….
Each requires proof of an additional element that the other crimes does not require.
A person in custody must, prior to interrogation, be informed, in substance, that:
[1] he has the right to remain silent; [2] anything he says can be used against him in court; [3] he has the right to the presence of an attorney; [4] if he cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed for him if he so desires; [4.5] you can terminate interrogation at any time
Does a failure to give Miranda warnings violate the 6th?
No, it doesn’t violate the 6th’s right to counsel
Does a failure to give Miranda warnings violate the 5th?
Yes - violates the 5th’s right to be free from compelled self-incrimination
What does interrogation include?
Any words or conduct by police that they should know would likely elicit a response from the Δ.
What are the differences between 5th and 6th right to counsels?
One circumstance under 5th, which is when somebody after hearing Miranda requests a lawyer. He needs an attorney for custodial interrogation. All other times you request a lawyer, it invokes your 6th right to counsel. This is offense specific and the attorney would only have to be present if police is asking questions about that case.
Describe the hearing for a admissibility of Id E
Admissibility should be determined at a suppression hearing in absence of jury, but exclusion of jury is not C’ly required. The gov bears burden of proving that: [1] counsel was present; [2] accused waived counsel; or [3] there is an independent source of in-court id. Δ must prove an alleged DP violation.
Three major differences between GJ proceedings and criminal trials:
[1] Δ (GJ W) has no right to have counsel present during his GJ testimony; [2] GJ may consider E that would be excluded at criminal trial (e.g., illegally obtained E or hearsay); and [3] the Δ (GJ W) must appear if called, although he can refuse to answer specific questions on the grounds that they may incriminate him.
A Δ is incompetent to stand trial if he either:
[1] Lacks a rational as well as factual understanding of the charges & proceedings, or [2] lacks sufficient present ability to consult w/ his lawyer w/ a reasonable degree of understanding. Δ must show by preponderance of E.
When do you have a right to trial by jury?
If imprisonment of more than 6 months is authorized. But if it’s ≤ 6 months, there is no C’l jury trial right.
How do you use an EP-based attack on peremptory challenges?
[1] Δ must show facts or circumstances that raise an inference that exclusion was based on race or gender; [2] upon such showing, Ø must come forward w/ race-neutral explanation for strike. [3] Judge then determines whether Ø’s reason was the genuine reason or merely a pretext.
Indigent Δs get counsel at:
[1] custodial police interrogation; [2] post-indictment interrogation, whether or not custodial; [3] preliminary hearings to determine PC to prosecute; [4] arraignment; [5] post-charge lineups; [6] guilty plea and sentencing; [7] felony trials; [8] misdemeanor trials when imprisonment is actually imposed or when suspended sentence is imposed; [9] overnight recesses during trial; [10] appeals as a matter of right; [11] appeals of guilty pleas
At what circumstances is there no right to counsel?
[1] blood sampling; [2] taking of handwriting or voice exemplars; [3] precharge or investigative lineups; [4] photo id’s; [5] preliminary hearings to determine PC to detain; [6] brief recesses during Δ’s testimony at trial; [7] discretionary appeals; [8] parole & probation revocation proceedings; [9] post-conviction proceedings
Which amendment includes the right to effective counsel?
6th
What circumstances constitute ineffective assistance?
[1] Deficient performance by counsel; and [2] but for the deficiency, the result of the proceeding would have been different (e.g., Δ would not have been convicted or his sentence would have been shorter)
What Am provides the ability to confront adverse witnesses?
6th
When can a Δ’s statement of confession be used against a co-Δ?
[1] All portions referring to the other Δ are eliminated; [2] the confessing Δ takes the stand and subjects himself to cross-X wrt truth or falsity of what the statement asserts; or [3] the confession of the nontestifying co-Δ is being used to rebut the Δ’s claim that his confession was obtained coercively.
What is a testimonial statement?
At a minimum, statements from a preliminary hearing, a GJ hearing, a former trial, or police interrogation conducted to establish or prove past acts.
What’s the burden of proof in all criminal cases?
DPC requires in all criminal cases that the state prove guilt beyond a reasonable doubt. But state may generally impose the burden of proof upon the Δ in regard to an affirmative defense like insanity or self-defense
What effect is a mandatory presumption or a presumption that shifts the burden of proof to Δ?
It violates the 14th’s requirement that the state prove every element of the crime beyond a reasonable doubt.
What does the judge have to do when a Δ wants to take a guilty plea?
Determine that it’s voluntary and intelligent. Must be done by addressing the Δ personally in open court and on the record.
What does the judge need to determine that the Δ understands in order to take a guilty plea?
[1] nature of the charge & crucial elements of crime charged; [2] maximum possible penalty and mandatory minimum; and [3] that he has a right not to plead guilty and that if he does plead guilty, he waives the right to trial
A plea can be set aside for:
[1] involuntariness (failure to meet standards for taking plea); [2] lack of jdxn; [3] ineffective assistance of counsel; or [4] failure to keep the plea bargain
What is it we have to know about death penalty?
[1] Any death penalty statute that doesn’t give Δ a chance to present mitigating facts and circumstances is unconstitutional. [2] There can be no automatic category for imposition of the death penalty. (Ex: if you kill PO, you’ll get death penalty – this is unC’l); [3] The state may not by statute limit the mitigating factors; all relevant mitigating evidence must be admissible or the statute is unconstitutional. [4] Only a jury and not a judge may determine the aggravating factors justifying imposition of the death penalty.
Death Penalty 1st sentence
[1] Any death penalty statute that doesn’t give Δ a chance to present mitigating facts and circumstances is unconstitutional.
Death Penalty 2nd sentence
[2] There can be no automatic category for imposition of the death penalty. (Ex: if you kill PO, you’ll get death penalty – this is unC’l)
Death Penalty 3rd sentence
[3] The state may not by statute limit the mitigating factors; all relevant mitigating evidence must be admissible or the statute is unconstitutional.
Death Penalty 4th sentence
[4] Only a jury and not a judge may determine the aggravating factors justifying imposition of the death penalty.
When does DJ attach?
In a jury trial at the empanelling and swearing of the jury. In bench trials, it attaches when 1st W is sworn. Does not attaché in civil proceeding other than juvenile proceedings. Commencement of a juvenile proceeding bars a subsequent criminal trial for same offense.
What are exceptions to DJ that permit a retrial of Δ even if jeopardy has attached?
[1] If first trial ended in hung jury; [2] if there was manifest necessity to abort original trial or when termination occurs at behest of Δ on any ground not constituting acquittal on merits; [3] state may retry Δ who has successfully appealed a conviction unless ground for reversal was insufficient E to support a guilty verdict. Retrial is permitted when reversal is based on the weight (rather than sufficiency) of the E. On retrial, a Δ may not be tried for a greater offense than that for which he was convicted. A harsher sentence may be imposed for reasons other than vindictiveness for taking an appeal, but if the jury found that death penalty was not appropriate in the first trial, a death sentence may not be imposed at the 2nd trial.
DJ – what amendment and what does it say?
5th – person may not be retried for same offense once jeopardy has attached
Two crimes are the same offense unless …
Each crime requires proof of an additional element that the other does not require, even though some of the same facts may be necessary to prove both crimes. 2 crimes do not constitute the same offense if each crime requires proof of additional element that the other does not.
An exception to the DJ bar exists if …
If unlawful conduct that is subsequently used to prove the greater offense [1] has not occurred at the time of prosecution for the lesser offense or [2] has not been discovered despite due diligence.
The DJ prohibits only …
Repetitive criminal prosecutions. So a state could bring a civil action even after a criminal trial. OR, the gov can bring a criminal trial after a civil trial has been brought unless the statutory scheme is to impose a criminal penalty.
What is collateral estoppel?
A Δ may not be tried or convicted of a crime if a prior prosecution by that sovereignty resulted in a factual determination inconsistent with one required for conviction.
Who can assert the privilege against compelled self-incrimination?
Only natural persons, not corps or partnerships. The privilege is personal and so may be asserted by a Δ, W, or party only if the answer to the question might tend to incriminate him.
What’s the simplified rule for self-incrim priv for civil/criminal?
Use it (in civil) or lose it (in crim). You have to assert your right if you get asked, otherwise you waive it for all subsequent criminal prosecutions.
What is the scope of protection of self-incrim privilege?
Only testimonial or communicative E and not real or physical E. To be considered testimonial, it must relate a factual assertion or disclose info. Producing documents does NOT involve testimonial self-incrimination.
What are the two most important things to remember about 5th self-incrim priv?
[1] Only testimonial E is protected. Thus, a Δ has no self-incrim basis to object to a lineup or other ID procedure – even if he is asked to say certain words (e.g., “your money or your life”). This procedure does not involve testimonial E; the words are used for ID purposes and not as testimony. [2] Likewise, only compelled testimonial E is privileged. Thus, if Δ produced a writing of his own free will (e.g., took incriminating notes in a meeting), the police may seize this writing or the Δ may be compelled to produce it by subpoena, b/c he was not compelled to make the statement originally.
What test is used to analyze Ø’s statement about Δ’s silence at trial?
Harmless error
How do you eliminate the priv against self-incrim?
[1] Grant of immunity; [2] No possibility of incrim; [3] Waiver of priv
What is use and derivative use immunity and is it sufficient?
Yes, it’s sufficient. It guarantees that the W’s testimony and E located by means of the testimony will not be used against the W. However, the W may still be prosecuted if the Ø shows that the E to be used against the W was derived from a source independent of the immunized testimony.
Is immunized testimony voluntary or involuntary? Can you use immunized testimony to impeach? What about perjury?
Testimony obtained by a promise of immunity is coerced and therefore involuntary. Thus, immunized testimony may not be used for impeachment of a Δ’s testimony at trial. However, any immunized statements, whether true or untrue, can be used in a trial for perjury.
What rights must be given to a child during delinquency proceeding?
[1] written notice of charges; [2] assistance of counsel; [3] opportunity to confront and cross-X Ws; [4] the right not to testify; [5] the right to have guilt established by proof beyond reasonable doubt.
Is the owner of personal property constitutionally entitled to notice & hearing before the property is seized for a forfeiture proceeding?
No. But it is required before final forfeiture of the property.
Is the owner of real property constitutionally entitled to notice & hearing before the property is seized for a forfeiture proceeding?
Yes. Unless the gov can prove that exigent circumstances justify immediate seizure.
PROPERTY
PROPERTY
What are the two strategies for property questions?
[1] Identify & describe the three interests in land – (a) Estate, (b) Easement, (c) Restrictive Covenant; [2] How can these interests be acquired, retained, and transferred?
General rule of the law of waste:
Life tenant maintains the estate. Key word is maintain which expresses BOTH the maximum and the minimum that the life tenant can do to the land.
What is permissive waste?
Failure to maintain – Tenant must do three things to avoid liability for permissive waste – Repairs, Taxes, and mortgage debt
The types of defeasible fees are:
[1] Fee Simple Determinable; [2] Fee Simple subject to condition subsequent; [3] fee simple subject to executory interest
What’s the traditional statement of RAP?
No interest is good unless it must vest, if at all, not later than 21 years after the death of some life in being at the creation of the interest.
What’s the modified version of RAP?
No interest will be valid unless it must vest – if it is going to vest all– w/in 21 years after the death of some life in being who was alive at the moment the conveyance was made.
What key question should you always ask under RAP?
Could this future interest possibly vest in the grantee outside the time period of the Rule (i.e., is it possible that everyone alive at the time of the grant dies – plus more than 21 years go by – before that interest might vest?) If the answer is yes, then the interest is void.
What are the four unities and what are they test for?
Joint tenancy – Unity of TIME; Unity of TITLE; Unity of INTEREST; Unity of POSSESSION
Describe the Four Unities test
TTIP – [T] Unity of TIME – all joint tenancy interests must have vested at the same time; [T] Unity of TITLE – The grant to all joint tenants must be by the same instrument; [I] Unity of Interest – All joint tenants must take the same kind and same amount of interest; [P] Unity of Possession – all joint tenants must have same/identical rights of possession.
What are the magic words that must be used to create a joint tenancy?
“as joint tenants, with right of survivorship”; or “in joint tenancy with right of survivorship”
What are the four ways in which a j/t can be severed?
[1] Sale; [2] Mortgage; [3] Contract of Sale; [4] Creditor’s Sale of the interest in j/t -- [1] Ringo conveys ¼ of his interest in the j/t by deed to Bob. [2] In 1971 Ringo mortgages his ¼ interest in the j/t. [3] On Jan. 1, Ringo enters into a K of sale of his interest in the j/t, w/ closing to be on 4/1. (Severance happens on Jan.1 b/c of Doctrine of Equitable Conversion) [4] Suppose Ringo had business reversals and a creditor sought to reach his interest in the j/t. (if Ringo dies before Creditor’s sale, there is no severance.)
What is the majority rule for mortgaging an interest in a j/t? The minority rule?
[Majority Rule] In a lien theory state, there is NO severance of the j/t. When the mortgage is executed, a lien attaches to the title, but title is not transferred. So the unities are NOT disturbed. [Minority Rule] In a title theory state there is a severance of the j/t. When the mortgage is executed, title passes from mortgagor to mortgagee, even though title goes back to the mortgagor when the mortgage is satisfied. Unities are disturbed.
What are the unities in a Tenancy by the Entirety?
The Four Unities + Unity of Marriage
Tenancy by the Entirety – How can you terminate?
[1] Death; [2] Mutual agreement in writing; [3] divorce; [4] Execution by a joint creditor (an individual creditor can’t reach)
In a concurrent estate of land, what are the incidents of co-ownership?
[1] Possession; [2] Accountability; [3] Contribution. “Co-Tenant” refers to any of the multiple owners of any of the three concurrent estates)
What are the three concurrent estates of land?
[1] Joint Tenancy; [2] Tenancy in Common; [3] Tenancy by the Entirety
Concurrent Estates of Land – Incidents of Co-ownership – Accountability – general rule
One co-tenant does not have to account to another co-tenant for his share of the profits, subject to four exceptions. (hint) [1] Ouster – accounting is required if one co-tenant is either keeping a co-tenant off the property; or claiming a right of exclusive possession; [2] Agreement to share; [3] Lease of the property by a co-tenant to third party; [4] Depletion of natural resources
Concurrent Estates of Land – Incidents of Co-ownership – Accountability – 4 exceptions to general rule
[1] Ouster – accounting is required if one co-tenant is either keeping a co-tenant off the property; or claiming a right of exclusive possession; [2] Agreement to share; [3] Lease of the property by a co-tenant to third party; [4] Depletion of natural resources
Periodic Tenancy – Creation – Three ways
[1] By express agreement; [2] by implication (no agreement as to duration); [3] By operation of law – two ways – (a) Oral lease that violates SOF, (b) Holdover Tenant
What is the general rule for creating a periodic tenancy by implication?
If the lease does not specify how long the tenancy is to last, then it is presumed to be a periodic tenancy measured by the rent payment (e.g., a month-to-month periodic tenancy arises if the rent is to be paid monthly)
What two ways can a periodic tenancy be created by operation of law?
[1] Oral lease that violates the SOF*; [2] Holdover Tenant --- *If an oral 5-year lease was accepted and the first month’s rent was sent and accepted. The landlord’s acceptance of rent checks results in a periodic tenancy that arises by operation of law, even though the lease itself violates SOF. The period covered by the rent check that the landlord accepted determines the period of the tenancy.
What are the criteria for notice of termination of a periodic tenancy?
*To be valid, notice must satisfy two independent criteria: [1] Enough Time – an amount of time equal to the length of the period of the tenancy except in the case of year-to-year tenancy, which generally requires only 6 months notice; [2] Effective Date – to be valid the effective date specified in the notice must be at the end of the period of the tenancy --- By private agreement in the lease, the parties may lengthen or shorten or otherwise modify these common law notice requirements.
Termination of a Tenancy at Will by Operation of Law – 5 ways
[1] Death of either party; [2] Waste by Tenant; [3] Assignment by Tenant; [4] Transfer of Title by Landlord; [5] Lease by Landlord to third party
What are the landlord’s options in a Tenancy at Sufferance (The Holdover Tenant)?
[1] Sue to Evict; [2] Impose a New Periodic Tenancy
How can a landlord impose new periodic tenancy in a Tenancy at Sufferance (The Holdover Tenant)?
[1] The landlord may elect to treat the tenant as a new periodic tenant; [2] if the old expired tenancy was for less than a year, the new tenancy will be measured by the period covered by the rent payment. In the case of residential property, the new period will usually be month-to-month. [3] In the case of leases for commercial property, if the old, expired tenancy was for a year or more, the new periodic tenancy that the landlord may elect to impose will be for year-to-year. [4] The landlord may not impose a new periodic tenancy is it is not reasonable under the circumstances, e.g., tenant’s moving van is late by a few hours, etc.
What are the duties of a tenant?
[1] Duty to Pay rent; [2] Duty to maintain premises;
What are the duties of a landlord?
[1] Duty to deliver possession of the leased premises; [2] Duty regarding Condition of the leased premises; [3] Implied covenant of Quiet enjoyment
What is a landlord’s duty to deliver possession of the leased premises?
The landlord must deliver possession of the leased premises to the tenant when the lease begins. If the landlord cannot deliver actual possession, the landlord is in breach of the lease.
What is a landlord’s duty regarding the condition of leased premises at CL?
The landlord has not duty to deliver the leased premises in a habitable condition – lease involves transfer of an estate
What is a landlord’s duty regarding the condition of leased premises under the modern majority?
There is an implied warranty of fitness or habitability only for residential property. It provides that the leased premises are reasonably suited for residential use. There is no duty for non-residential use.
What are the tenant’s remedies for the landlord’s breach of the implied warranty of habitability?
[1] tenant can move out and end the lease; [2] tenant can stay on the property and sue for damages; [3] a growing # of states allow the tenant to make reasonable repairs and deduct this cost from future rent payments (“repair & deduct”) tenant must give notice.
As a duty of a landlord, what is the general rule for implied covenant of quiet enjoyment?
Every lease includes the landlord’s implied promise not to interfere w/ the tenant’s quiet enjoyment of the leased premises. This implied promise is included in every lease – residential, commercial or otherwise.
How does a landlord breach the implied covenant of quiet enjoyment?
[1] Total eviction; [2] Partial eviction; [3] Constructive Eviction
How does a landlord’s partial eviction occur?
[1] Where the landlord physically excludes the tenant from only some portion of the leased property.* [2] Can also occur where some third party, who holds paramount title, retakes the property and physically excludes the tenant from that portion of the leased premises. **[1] Landlord takes over a basement and tells tenant he can’t use. Tenant can stay on what’s left and stay for free. Few times where tenant gets the benefit in property law.
What’s the general rule for a partial eviction?
If there is a partial eviction by someone other than the landlord, the rent is proportionately reduced to reflect the amount taken. Otherwise, it’s free.
What is a constructive eviction? When does it occur?
This type of breach does not involve an actual physical exclusion of the tenant from all or some part of the leased premises. It occurs where the landlord fails to provide some service that the landlord is obligated to provide and that failure makes the property uninhabitable.
What are the three requirements for a constructive eviction?
[1] It must be the landlord’s failure to provide some service, not some third party’s failure; [2] There must be a substantial interference with the tenant’s quiet enjoyment of property. [3] Tenant must abandon within a reasonable time.
What is the key to knowing how to answer questions regarding assignments?
A lease involves both of the following: [1] A lease is a contract, creating privity of contract between the parties to the lease agreement. [2] A lease is also a conveyance of an estate, of an interest in land, thereby creating privity of estate between the parties. These are separate and independent grounds for liability on lease obligations.
Assignment – general rule of liability
A tenant is liable to the landlord for rent if there is either privity of estate or privity of contract
Assignment – who has privity of estate?
Only between present landlord and present tenant
Assignment – who has privity of contract?
Exists only where there is an agreement between the landlord and the particular tenant from whom the landlord seeks to recover the rent.
What is the Assignee’s liability on other lease covenants?
Covenant (promise) to pay rent always runs w/ the land and therefore is enforceable based on either privity of estate or privity of contract. As to other covenants (promises) contained in the lease, the general rule is that a covenant will run w/ the land if it touches and concerns the land
What is a good way to recognize if something touches and concerns the land?
If performance of the covenant (promise) makes the land more valuable or more useful, then the covenant touches and concerns the land. * A promise to repair a fence touches and concerns where a promise to pick up the mail in town does not (b/c it’s personal to grantee).
What is the general rule for liability of successive landlords on the lease when a tenant sues the landlord?
The Original landlord continues to be liable to original tenant b/c of privity of K. But successor landlords may be liable to original tenant if there is either privity o contract – or - privity of estate and the lease covenant runs w/ the land. * But a successor landlord can expressly assume an obligation
What are the five defects to the CL rule that no duty is imposed on the landlord in tort situations?
[1] Latent defects; [2] Short term lease of a furnished dwelling (summer cottage in Maine rule); [3] Common passageways under Landlord’s control; [4] Negligent repairs undertaken by landlord; [5] Public use exceptions
What are the four main steps for dealing with easement questions?
[1] Classify the easement; [2] Look at Method of creation; [3] Transfer of Easements; [4] scope of use of easement
What are the types of easements?
[1] Easements appurtenant; [2] Easements in gross
What is an easement appurtenant? What is the burdened property called? The benefited property?
Any time the easement directly benefits the use and enjoyment of a specific parcel of land. Burdened property = Servient. Benefitted Property = Dominant
What is an easement in gross? What is a classic example?
It occurs where there is no dominant estate b/c there is only one parcel of land involved, which is the property burdened by the easement – or the servient estate. Ex: Utility putting pipes underground or a railroad laying tracks.
What are the different ways an easement can be created?
[1] Express Easement; [2] Implied Easement; [3] Easement by Prescription
What are the two ways and express easement may arise?
[1] Express grant of an easement to someone else; [2] Express reservation of an easement when land is sold to another person
What is the general rule for an express easement?
[1] Must be in writing; [2] must be signed by the holder of the servient estate; [3] it must satisfy all the deed formalities. * Cross-reference RP III lecture on the conveyance an interest in land, including deed formalities and recording statutes.
How can implied easements arise?
[1] previous use by a common grantor (owner)(this can arise when an owner of a large piece of land sells off a smaller chunk); [2] Absolute right of access rule
How can you obtain an implied easement by previous use by a common grantor/owner?
There must be a previous use by a common owner and this previous use must satisfy three requirements: [1] Continuous; [2] Apparent (open & obvious); [3] Reasonably necessary
What are the requirements to establish a prescriptive easement?
[1] Use must be adverse to the true owner (i.e., a trespass on title); [2] Use must be continuous and uninterrupted and must last for the specified statutory period (20 years at common law) (seasonal use may satisfy this req’t if appropriate under the circumstances (fishing cabin used in summer); [3] Use is visible and notorious or made w/ owner’s knowledge; [4] Use is without the owner’s permission (note – oral permission is enough to destroy hostility needed to establish a prescriptive easement)
What are the ways that a successor-in-interest to the servient estate may be put on notice of the easement?
[1] Actual Knowledge or Notice; [2] Constructive Notice – arises from the fact that the document creating the easement is duly recorded in the buyer’s direct chain of title; [3] Inquiry Notice – arises from the buyer’s physical inspection of the land and the visible appearance of the easement on the land – OR – the notice that arises from the buyer’s inspection of the public records contained in the buyer’s direct chain of title
What are the two presumptions where the easement is silent on use?
[1] unless otherwise specified, an easement is presumed to be perpetual (lasts forever); [2] the use presumed is that of reasonable development of dominant estate
There are four rules for repair of the easement.
[1] The holder of the benefit of the easement (dominant estate) is responsible for making any necessary repairs to the easement. [2] The holder of the easement (dominant estate) can always go on the servient estate to repair the easement, even if the terms of the easement do not specifically provide for that right; [3] the holder of the easement must make a reasonable restoration of the servient estate after making repairs to the easement; [4] unless the easement says otherwise, the holder of the servient estate has no repair obligation.
What are the six ways an easement can be terminated?
[1] Unity of Ownership – Doctrine of merger; [2] Deed of Release; [3] Abandonment by Action; [4] Termination by estoppel; [5] Termination by Prescription; [6] Termination of Easements Created by Necessity
What are two requirements for terminating an easement by estoppel?
[1] A representation of relinquishment of the easement by the holder of the dominant estate; AND [2] the holder of the servient estate must make a change in his position in reliance on that representation.
What’s a license?
[1] A limited privilege to USE land in the possession of the licensor; [2] NOT a property interest; [3] is a contract right; [4] can always be revoked at the will of the licensor; [5] if the revocation is wrongful, the licensor may have to pay contract damages
What are the four requirements to enforce a restrictive covenant at law?
[1] Intent; [2] Notice; [3] Touch & Concern; [4] Privity
Requirement #2 to enforce a restrictive covenant at law – Notice – generally & different types of notice
Notice to the person against whom enforcement is sought. Three kinds: [1] Actual Notice; [2] Constructive Notice* [3] Inquiry Notice -- ** Constructive Notice – the notice that is imparted b/c the restriction is contained in a deed that has been duly recorded in the buyer’s direct chain of title.
What are the defenses to an enforcement of Covenant as an Equitable Servitude?
[1] Unclean hands – Π has made same use of her property; [2] Acquiescence – Π let other neighboring land owners do the same thing on their lots; [3] Laches – Π sat by while Δ built the office building and only complained after the building project was completed; [4] Estoppel – Π represented that she had no problems w/ Δ’s plans to construct an office building
What are the ways to terminate covenants or servitudes?
[1] Deed of Release; [2] Merger – Unity of Ownership; [3] Changed Conditions
Mnemonic for Adverse Possession
H-E-L-U-V-A – [1] Hostile; [2] Exclusive; [3] Lasting; [4] Uninterrupted; [5] Visible; [6] Actual. If even one is missing, there is no AP.
AP – H______?
Hostile – X is on the land w/ no right to be there.
AP – E ______?
Exclusive – X must be excluding others from possessing the property
AP - L______?
Lasting – the possession must last for the statutory period. Apply the relevant time period as specified in the facts of the question. If no such time period is specified, use the common law period of 20 years.
AP - U______?
Uninterrupted – the kind of continuous waste that an ordinary owner of the property would make.
AP - V______?
Visible – X’s use and possession of the property is out in the OPEN (“Open & Notorious”)
AP - A______?
Actual – X, the adverse possessor, must actually possess the land to obtain title. There are two exceptions – The following things are not required: [1] O, the true owner, does not have to know what’s going on. [2] X, the adverse possessor, does not have to think he owns it.
Conveyancing – Covenants of Title – What are the different Covenants?
3 Present Covenants – [1] Cov. of Seisin; [2] Cov. of Right to Convey; [3] Cov. against Encumbrances. 3 Future Covenants – [1] Cov. of Quiet Enjoyment; [2] Covenant of Warranty; [3] Covenant of Further Assurances (the mop-up covenant)
Conveyancing – Covenants of Title – How are Future Covenants breached?
A future covenant is not breached immediately, i.e., at the time the conveyance is made. A future covenant is breached, if at all, at some later date when the Grantee is disturbed in possession. Future covenants do run with the land and therefore can be enforced by all subsequent purchasers.
What is the strategy for identifying the type of recording statute?
[1] Look for words Without Notice – or the words – In Good Faith – which means the statute is either a Notice OR a Race-Notice statute. [2] Look for the words Recorded First or First Recorded – which indicate a Race-Notice statute. If these words are NOT present, then the statute is a Notice statute. [3] If the quoted language does NOT include the word Notice or the words – In Good Faith – then it is a pure Race act.
EVIDENCE
EVIDENCE
Question
Answer
Three Major Areas of Evidence
[1] Relevance; [2] Witnesses: Testimonial Evidence; [3] Hearsay
Types of Relevance
[1] Logical Relevance; [2] Discretionary, Pragmatic or Policy-based Relevance
What is logical relevance?
Evidence that has any tendency to make a material proposition or fact more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence.
Discretionary or Policy-Based Relevance – Even relevant E may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of:
[1] Unfair Prejudice; [2] Confusion of Issues; [3] Misleading Jury; [4] Undue Delay; [5] Waste of Time; [6] Cumulative Evidence. No Mention Of UNFAIR SURPRISE
What are the 8 types of similar occurrences where E is admissible even though it does involve some other time, some other event or some other person not directly involved in litigation?
[1] Causation; [2] Prior Accidents or Claims (limited); [3] Intent or State of Mind in Issue; [4] Rebuttal E; [5] Comparable Sales to Establish Value; [6] Habit E; [7] Business Routine; [8] Industrial or Trade Custom
Under Logical Relevance, what is Similar Occurrences?
Where E is admissible even though it does involve some other time, some other event or some other person not directly involved in litigation
Admissible – causation?
Yes – to prove cause and effect ---- ** People getting sick at same time at restaurant
Exceptions to general rule that Prior Accidents or Claims are not admissible
[1] to show common plan or scheme or fraud; [2] if prior accidents are relevant to issue of damage to Π ------**[1] Rossi schemed and brought fraudulent claims; [2] if Rossi had hurt his back prior to an accident where he claims to have hurt his back and is the subject of a claim.
What is the general rule of when Prior Accidents or Claims are admissible?
Other accidents involving the same instrumentality which occurred under the same or similar circumstances are admissible to show [1] Notice to the party and [2] to infer that the instrumentality is defective & dangerous.
What’s the general rule of admissibility for liability insurance?
Not admissible to show person acted negligently or wrongfully or to show ability to pay or to show fault.
Liability insurance admissibility exceptions
It’s admissible when it’s relevant to [1] show ownership or control (when it’s disputed). [2] Impeach the credibility of witness by showing interest or bias
Are subsequent remedial measures admissible?
Not admissible to who negligence, culpable conduct, a defect in a product, a defect in a product’s design or a need for a warning or instruction.
Subsequent Remedial Measures exceptions
Admissible to show [1] Ownership & control when it’s disputed; and to [2] Rebut or impeach in order to show the feasibility of precautionary measures (usually for Δ who has contested the feasibility of precautionary measures)
Are settlements admissible?
Not admissible to prove fault, liability, or amount of damage.
The non-admissibility of settlements is a broad rule of exclusion that covers:
[1] Actual compromises; [2] Offers to compromise or settle; [3]Offers to plead guilty in a criminal case; [4] Withdrawn pleas of guilty; [5] Pleas of nolo contendere
Three limitations on the rule of exclusion for settlements:
[1] There must be a claim; [2] The claim must be disputed as to either liability or amount; and [3] An offer to pay medical expenses is not admissible even though it is not a settlement offer. But if an admission of fact accompanies a naked offer to pay hospital or medical expenses, the admission may be admitted.
Key factors affecting character E rules and their application – 4 Preliminary Questions
[1] Purpose of offer of character E (relevance); [2] Method of proving character; [3] type of case – civil or criminal; and [4] what traits of character is involved.
What are the three types of purposes for offering Character E?
[1] Character directly in issue (Person’s character is a material element in case); [2] Character as circumstantial E of person’s conduct at time of litigated event (Ch E to prove conduct in conformity w/ character on occasion in issue.); [3] Character to impeach the credibility of a witness (i.e., bad character for truthfulness to impeach the credibility of a W who testifies at trial).
What civil cases would have character directly in issue as a need for character E?
[1] Negligent entrustment; [2] Defamation; [3] Wrongful Death Case. VERY RARE. No Fraud
What methods or techniques are used to prove character?
Specific acts of conduct; Opinion; Reputation
What’s the method of proof for proving Character in civil cases?
If character is directly in issue and therefore admissible, it may be proved by any one of the specific techniques (specific acts, opinion, reputation)
What is the first basic rule for proving character in criminal cases?
Basic Rule 1 - Bad character, whether in the form of specific acts of prior misconduct, prior crimes or convictions, bad opinion or bad reputation, is not admissible at the initiative of the Ø if the sole purpose is to show criminal disposition in order to infer guilt from disposition.
Basic Rule 1 of Ch in Crim Cases - Bad character, whether in the form of specific acts of prior misconduct, prior crimes or convictions, bad opinion or bad reputation, is not admissible at the initiative of the Ø if the sole purpose is to show criminal disposition in order to infer guilt from disposition UNLESS AND UNTIL:
Basic Rule 2 - The accused is permitted to offer E of good character for the pertinent trait in the form of reputation and opinion to show disposition in order to infer innocence. Only then may the Ø respond by showing the bad character of the accused.
How could a criminal Δ show his good character – what methods?
Can use opinion or reputation, but NOT specific acts of good conduct.
Basic Rule 3 of Character in Criminal Cases
After the accused offers E of good character, the prosecution may respond by inquiry on cross-X of the accused’s good character witness about any specific acts which would tarnish the accused’s reputation or which would affect the opinion of the witness.
Basic Rule 4 of Character in Criminal Cases
After the accused offers E of good character the Ø may also respond by calling prosecution witnesses to testify to bad opinions or bad reputation in regard to the character of the accused.
What can the accused do to question the character of the victim in self-defense situations?
The accused may also take the initiative in homicide or assault cases, as part of self-defense plea, to show the character of the victim as circumstantial E to infer that on the occasion in question, the alleged victim was the first aggressor.
What methods would the accused use to challenge the character of the victim in self-defense situations? How would Ø respond?
Reputation or opinion. Ø could respond by showing good reputation or opinion concerning the victim or by showing the bad reputation or a bad opinion regarding the accused himself.
When an accused claims self-defense and attacks the character of the victim, how may the victim respond?
Show his good character or attack the character of the accused. But NO specific acts!
What are examples of issues on which prior misconduct of the accused may be relevant independent of character or disposition?
MIMIC [1] Motive; [2] Intent; [3] Identity; [4] Modus Operandi (another way to prove identity); [5] Common Plan or Scheme (this list is not exhaustive)
What’s MIMIC? (mnemonic)
Motive; Intent; Mistake, absence of; Identity; Common Plan or Scheme  Examples of issues on which prior misconduct of the accused may be relevant independent of character or disposition. – Apply to Civil & Criminal.
What is MIMIC subject to?
403 – E relevant to show motive, intent, identity, and common scheme may be excluded if the trial judge believes that PV is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice.
Ways to authenticate
[1] Admission (Bob, is this your sig?); [2] Eyewitness Testimony (I saw Bob sign this doc in my office); [3] Handwriting Proof
Types of people who can authenticate handwriting
[1] Lay witness (anyone familiar w/ handwriting); [2] Expert witness (compare disputed w/ genuine specimen (which also needs to be in evidence); [3] Jury Comparison. Note: a lay witness cannot become familiar strictly for purpose of testifying.
How can you authenticate writings by circumstantial evidence?
[1] Ancient Document Rule; [2] Solicited Reply Doctrine
What is the Ancient Document Rule?
[1] 20 or more years, [2] regular on its face, [3] found in a place of natural custody. It’s a way to authenticate writings
What is the Solicited Reply Doctrine?
Proof that disputed document came in response to prior communication. (e.g., it’s highly unlikely that someone would intercept an offer and send a fake acceptance.) It’s a way to authenticate writings.
How much proof do you need to authenticate a writing?
Sufficient E to justify a jury finding of genuineness. Must be that a reasonable jury could find that the document is genuine.
What does it mean for a document to be self-authenticating?
The writing may be admitted without a foundation or testimonial sponsorship.
What are examples of self-authenticating documents?
[1] Certified Copies of Public or Business Records; [2] Official Publications; [3] Newspapers and Periodicals; [4] Trade Inscriptions or Labels; [5] Acknowledged Documents; [6] Signatures on Certain Commercial Documents as provided by UCC
What is the Best Evidence Rule?
It requires that a party seeking to prove the content of a writing (includes films, photos, X-Rays and recordings) must either: [1] produce the original document or [2] account for the absence of the original
What does the BER apply to?
[1] Legally operative documents; [2] Witness’ sole knowledge comes from a document (W wants to recite orally what he read)
What kind of legally operative documents does the BER apply to?
Documents that by their existence create or destroy a legal relationship that is in dispute. E.g., deed, divorce decree, will, written contract
What three objections should spring to mind when there is a writing?
[1] Improper authentication; [2] Hearsay; [3] BER
What exceptions can you use to get a writing in?
[1] Admission of a party; [2] Recorded Recollection; [3] Biz Record
BER does not apply to …
[1] Facts independent of the writing; [2] Collateral Documents
What are three modifications to BER where you can sub something out for the original?
[1] Public Records; [2] Voluminous Documents; [3] Duplicates
What are the two qualifications for voluminous documents?
Admissible as long as [1] originals would be admissible if offered and [2] originals are made accessible to opposing party
How are duplicates a modification to BER?
Duplicates can be used in place of the originals. They can’t be handwritten. A “duplicate” is a copy produced by any technique which avoids casual errors and “accurately reproduces the original.” Carbons, photographic copies, Xeroxes, faxes are all duplicates. A duplicate is admissible to the same extent as the original (i.e., no need to explain absence of the original) unless: [1] a genuine question is raised about authenticity of the original or [2] It would be unfair to admit the duplicate in lieu of the original.
What are the four testimonial attributes?
Personal Knowledge and Oath  [1] Perception; [2] Memory; [3] Communication; [4] Sincerity (Oath or Affirmation)
What CL disqualifications for testimonial E have been abandoned?
[1] Lack of Religious Belief; [2] Infancy; [3] Mental Incompetency; [4] Prior Convictions; [5] Interest
What are the elements of a Dead Man Statute?
[1] W on stand must be interested; [2] W must testify for his interest; [3] W must testify against decedent or his interests; [4] subject matter of testimony is important. W can testify, but just not about something like communication and transaction (anything else is ok); [5] strictly civil – NO criminal; [6] Even if you have all 5, you can have a waiver (ex: if decedent’s deposition makes it before the jury)
When examining a W, what are examples of objectionable questions?
[1] Narrative “Tell us everything…”; [2] Leading (Isn’t it true that the sound you heard was like a pistol shot or was it otherwise?); [3] Leading is permitted in certain situations (Cross-X, preliminary matters; aid W w/ memory, hostile W); [4] Misleading or Compound or Argumentative
When are leading questions permitted?
[1] Cross-X (not for friendly cross-X); [2] Preliminary/non-crucial questions; [3] Difficulty eliciting testimony (young, old, dumb); [4] adverse or hostile witness
Leading questions are generally improper on __________ examination
Direct
What is the basic rule for W use of writings in aid of testimony?
W usually cannot read testimony from previously prepared document but ma use a writing in aid of oral testimony in two situations when the W can’t remember. Two situations are: [1] refreshing recollection; [2] Recorded Recollection
When can you use writings in aid of testimony?
[1] Refreshing Recollection; [2] Recorded Recollection
What is refreshing recollection?
When W memory fails, anything can be used to jog the memory of the W.
Can a refreshing article ever be admitted?
Not by prosecution, but it can be by defense counsel. It can also be used in Cross-X.
What is a recorded recollection?
If W is unable to remember all or part of the details of a transaction about which she once had personal knowledge, her own writing shown to be reliable may be admitted in place of her testimony.
What is the foundation for a recorded recollection?
It requires a showing that: [1] at one time W had personal knowledge; [2] show that writing was made or supervised by W (or adopted by W if someone else wrote it); [3] Show that writing was timely made by W
Exam Tip for Refreshing Recollection
[1] Any writing may be used to refresh a W’s memory (can be other stuff like photo); [2] The W cannot read from the writing while testifying; [3] there is no hearsay problem, b/c the writing is not offered into evidence.
Exam tip for Recollection Recorded
[1] Only a writing that meets several foundational requirements (e.g., timely made by W; W cannot remember the events after reading the writing) may be used; [2] the writing itself is read into evidence; [3] this is hearsay, but it falls w/in a specific exception to the hearsay rule.
Lay opinion is admissible if:
[1] Rationally based on perception of the W (I saw auto going about 25 mph); [2] Helpful to trier of fact (in my opinion, driver was grossly negligent  not admissible b/c legal conclusion); [3] not based on scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge
What are the four basic requirements for expert testimony?
[1] Subject matter must be appropriate for expert testimony; [2] must be qualified as expert; [3] should possess reasonable certainty or probability regarding the opinion; [4] the opinion must be supported by proper factual basis
Eight situations where Lay W opinion is admissible:
[1] general appearance or condition of a person; [2] state of emotion of a person; [3] matters involving sense recognition; [4] voice or handwriting ID; [5] speed of moving object; [6] value of his own services; [7] rational or irrational nature of another’s conduct; and [8] intoxication of another.
What are possible sources for an expert’s proper factual basis?
[1] personal observation; [2] facts made known to the expert at trial (hypos); [3] facts not known personally but supplied to him outside the courtroom and of a type reasonably relied upon by experts in the particular field (ex: Dr. relies on x-ray tech’s opinion of x-ray)
What’s the basic rule for a treatise?
A learned text, treatise, or article concerning a relevant discipline is admissible as an exception to the rule against hearsay if established as reliable by [1] reliance by your expert on direct X, [2] admission on Cross-X of your opposing expert, [3] testimony of any expert, or [4] judicial notice
What are the limitations of a treatise?
[1] Expert must testify (at trial or deposition) unless judge takes judicial notice; [2] Treatise is admitted by being read to the jury. Text itself is not received as E.
Exam Tip – When a question involves a party impeaching his own W, be sure to avoid the following wrong answer choices reflecting the traditional rule, which prohibits impeaching your own W unless the W:
[1] is an adverse party or identified w/ an adverse party; [2] is hostile and affirmatively uncooperative; [3] is one whom the party is required by law to call; or [4] gives surprise testimony that is affirmatively harmful to the party calling him. (These are wrong answer choices). The FRE rule is that a W can be impeached by any party, including the party calling him.
What is the collateral matters doctrine?
Impeachment by contradiction of the W is limited. Cross examiner is bound by the answers given by the W as to collateral matters. No Extrinsic E is allowed to contradict a W as to a collateral matter.
What are the key points about Cross-X?
[1] Party has absolute right to cross-X a W who testifies live; [2] Cross-X should not exceed the scope of direct; [3] Collateral Matters Doctrine (bound by answers given)
What are the rules of accrediting your own W?
[1] No bolstering own W unless there has first been an appropriate impeachment (bad must come before good)(this includes prior consistent statements); [2] Prior consistent statement would be admissible if the St was one of ID
When can you admit a prior consistent statement to bolster?
Admissible if the statement is one of identification. A prior out-of-court statement of ID that was made by a W who testifies at trial is excluded form the definition of hearsay and may be admitted.
What are the five techniques for impeaching an adversary W?
[1] Attacks on Testimony – (a) Prior inconsistent St; (b) Showing intent/bias/motive to of W to misrepresent or exaggerate; [2] Character Attacks – (c) Prior conviction of crime; (d) Specific acts of deceit or lying which may be inquired into in Cross-X; (e) Bad reputation or opinion for truth & veracity
What are the key points of a prior inconsistent statement?
[1] Generally admissible only to impeach – not for its truth – not affirmative or substantive E (destroy, not bolster); [2] But if the prior inconsistent ST was given under oath AND at a trial, hearing or other proceeding or in a deposition, such a St is admissible for its truth.
What kinds of crimes are usable to impeach?
[1] Any crime (felony or misdemeanor) if it involves dishonesty (meaning “deceit”) or false statement. Ex: fraud, larceny by trick, embezzlement, perjury but NOT robbery or ordinary larceny b/c there is no deceit or false statement involved. OR [2] a felony (i.e., a crime punishable by more than one year) not involving dishonesty (i.e., deceit) or false statement is admissible to impeach in the discretion of the Court. Ex: Robbery, ordinary larceny, felony assault. Misdemeanors are NOT admissible to impeach if they do not involve deceit or false statement.
Is the extrinsic evidence of conviction admissible?
Yes. The certificate of conviction or through Cross-X. No foundation is necessary
Can you use specific instances of misconduct or bad acts to impeach?
Yes, on Cross-X if the act is probative of truthfulness (i.e., is an act of deceit or lying). NO extrinsic E
What are the guidelines for specific bad acts impeachment?
[1] Good faith is required and reasonable basis for believing it; [2] the act inquired about must involve deceit or lying; [3] No extrinsic E is permitted. It’s limited to Cross-X.
What are the guidelines for rehabilitating after impeachment?
[1] Good reputation (opinion) for truth may be shown if impeachment involved a character attack (prior conviction; act of deceit or lying; bad reputation/opinion for truth); [2] Prior Consistent Statement to rebut an express or implied charge of recent fabrication or improper influence or motive – (a)Not usually to rebut charge of prior inconsistent St; (b) to rebut charge of recent fabrication or improper influence or motive; (c) must be pre-motive statement; (d) admissible for its truth (this is explicitly excluded from definition of hearsay)
What are the Means of Proof and necessary foundation for the Impeachment Method of Prior Inconsistent Statements?
[1] Means of Proof – (a) Cross-X, (b) Extrinsic E (if not a collateral matter); [2] Foundation – W must be given opportunity to explain or deny the inconsistent St (exception for hearsay declarants)
What are the Means of Proof and necessary foundation for the Impeachment Method of Bias or Interest?
[1] Means of Proof – (a) Cross-X, (b) Extrinsic E; [2] Foundation – W must be asked on Cross-X about facts showing bias or interest before extrinsic E is allowed. If these facts are admitted on Cross-X, admissibility of extrinsic E is w/in court’s discretion.
What are the Means of Proof and necessary foundation for the Impeachment Method of Conviction of Crime (must be felony or crime involving dishonesty)?
[1] Means of Proof – (a) Cross-X, (b) Record of Judgment; [2] Foundation – None required
What are the Means of Proof and necessary foundation for the Impeachment Method of Specific Instances of Misconduct (Bad Acts)?
[1] Means of Proof – Cross-X only; [2] Foundation – Not applicable
What are the Means of Proof and necessary foundation for the Impeachment Method of Opinion or Reputation for Truthfulness?
[1] Means of Proof – Calling other Witnesses [2] Foundation – None required
What are the Means of Proof and necessary foundation for the Impeachment Method of Sensory Deficiencies?
[1] Means of Proof – (a) Cross-X; (b) Extrinsic E; [2] Foundation – None Required
What’s the definition of Attorney-Client privilege?
Confidential communications between attorney and client made during professional legal consultation are privileged from disclosure unless waived by the client or the representative of the deceased client. (privilege survives death of client)
What are the three elements of attorney-client privilege?
[1] The right parties (att’y, client); [2] Confidential Communication (not physical E or pre-existing documents); [3] Professional Legal relationship – (a) Intent by client to establish a professional legal relationship (retainer negotiations are covered), (b) predominantly legal advice must be sought
Under the A/C privilege, what does Professional Legal Relationship mean?
[1] Intent by client to establish a professional legal relationship. Retainer negotiations are covered. It doesn’t matter whether the establishment of the relationship is successful. [2] Predominantly legal advice must be sought.
What are exceptions to the A/C privilege (situations where the privilege does not apply)?
[1] Future crime or fraud; [2] At issue exception (when client or patient affirmatively puts communication in issue); [3] Disputes between the parties to the professional relationship (Actions for fee or malpractice) [4] Joint Client Exception (where 2 or more parties communicate w/ att’y about a matter of common interest. No privilege between them - but there would be privilege as to 3rd parties). The first three apply to all professional relationships
What is the definition of the Physician/Psychiatrist patient privilege?
The patient has a privilege against disclosure of confidential information acquired by the physician/psychiatrist in a professional relationship entered into for the purpose of obtaining treatment.
What are the key elements of the Physician/Psychotherapist privilege?
[1] Patient must be seeking treatment; [2] information acquired must be confidential and necessary to facilitate professional treatment. (So a patient bleeding from the head will not be privileged. Also, if the patient babbles off topic, then no privilege)
Do federal courts recognize physician or psychotherapist exceptions?
Psychotherapist.
What are the husband-wife spousal privileges?
[1] Spousal Immunity Privilege – protects one spouse form being forced to testify against the other about anything in a criminal case; [2] Confidential Marital Communications Privilege – Narrower b/c it only protects against confidential communications made during marriage. This applies to civil & criminal.
What is the definition of spousal immunity privilege?
One spouse can’t be forced to give adversary testimony against the other in a criminal case. There is nothing here about a communication or confidence.
What are the requirements of a spousal immunity privilege?
[1] Valid marriage at the time of trial (makes no difference if testimony sought concerns pre-marriage activities); [2] Protects against any and all testimony; [3] holder of privilege is W spouse and not party spouse; [4] Applies only in a criminal case.
What is the definition of Confidential Marital Communications privilege?
A husband or a wife shall not be required or, without the consent of the other, shall not be allowed to disclose a confidential communication made by one to the other during the marriage.
What are the requirements of Confidential Marital Communications Privilege (and differences from spousal immunity)?
[1] Married not necessarily at time of trial but at time of protected communication (this privilege outlasts the marriage); [2] Protects only confidences not all testimony; [3] Holder of privilege is either spouse not just W spouse; [4] Privilege applies to all cases, civil as well as criminal.
Three situations in which state evidence law will apply in federal court if state substantive law applies (as in the typical diversity jdxn case)
“In civil actions or proceedings wrt an element of a claim or defense as to which state law applies the rule of the decision (i.e., state substantive law applies). State law will apply regarding: [1] Presumptions and burdens of proof; [2] Competency of W (ex: State Dead Man Statute); [3] Privileges
What is the definition of hearsay?
Hearsay is an out-of-court statement offered for the purpose of establishing the truth of the content of the statement (or “truth of the matter asserted in the statement”)
What three questions should you ask in a hearsay question?
[1] Is it an out-of-court statement? [2] What precisely is the out-of-court statement? (put quotes around the statement and then ask the next question) [3] Is it being offered for the purpose of establishing its truth?
What’s the 1st main type of a specific non-hearsay situation?
Verbal Acts or Legally Operative Facts – where the words spoken or written have relevant legal significance in the case by virtue of being spoken or written. (words of offer, acceptance, defamation, conspiracy, bribery, cancellation, misrepresentation, waiver, permission)
What are examples of Verbal Acts or Legally Operative Facts?
Words of offer, words of acceptance, defamation, conspiracy, bribery, cancellation, misrepresentation, waiver, permission.
What’s the 2nd main type of a specific non-hearsay situation?
Out-of-Court St offered not for its truth but to show its effect on the person who heard or read the St. (E.g., to show notice to, or the good faith of, or reason for action or inaction by the person who heard or read the o-o-c St)
What’s the 3rd main type of a specific non-hearsay situation?
Out-of-Court St offered not for its truth but as circumstantial E of declarant’s relevant state of mind.
Can a W’s own prior statement be hearsay?
Yes, if it’s being offered for the purpose of establishing the truth of the content of the statement.
Prior statements of a W which are not hearsay  generally
These statements are in fact being offered for their truth and would be hearsay under the CL. But FRE excludes them form the definition of hearsay by express rule provisions. Therefore they are admissible non-hearsay. These are EXCLUSIONS!
What are examples of prior statements of a W which are not hearsay?
[1] Prior inconsistent Statements given under oath at a trial, hearing, other proceeding or deposition; [2] Prior consistent Statements to rebut charge of recent fabrication or improper influence or motive; [3] prior statement of identification made by a W.
What are the major exceptions/exclusions?
[1] Admission of party; [2] former testimony; [3] statement against interest; [4] dying declaration; [5] spontaneous statements – (a) present state of mind in issue; (b) statement of existing intent to prove intended act; (c) Excited Utterance; (d) present sense impression; (e) Declaration of present physical condition; (f) Declaration of past physical condition; [6] Business Records
Is a party admission an exception?
No. it’s non-hearsay under FRE
What’s the definition of former testimony?
Testimony given in earlier proceeding by person now unavailable is admissible if [1] party against whom testimony is offered had, during earlier proceeding, an opportunity to examine that person and motive to conduct exam was similar to the motive it has now, or [2] in civil case, party against whom testimony is offered was in privity (a predecessor in interest) w/ a party to earlier proceeding who had opportunity and similar motive to examine.
What are the requirements for admitting former testimony?
[1] Meaningful opportunity to cross; [2] unavailability of the declarant.
How does grand jury testimony fit under Former Testimony?
The grand jury testimony of an unavailable declarant that is offered against the accused in a criminal case would not qualify b/c the accused does not have an opportunity to cross-X grand jury witnesses.
What elements are included in a meaningful opportunity for cross-X under Former Testimony?
[1] Same issue and motive; [2] Some identity of party. Party against who offered must have been a party in first proceeding, or in civil case, at least in privity w/ party in first proceeding.
What’s the definition of a Statement against interest?
Declaration of a person, now unavailable as a W, against that person’s pecuniary, proprietary, or penal interest (or St which would expose declarant to civil liability or which would tend to defeat a civil claim by declarant) at the time the St was made.
What is the limitation of a Statement against interest?
A St tending to expose the declarant to criminal liability and offered to exculpate the accused is not admissible unless “corroborating circumstances clearly indicate the trustworthiness of the statement.”
Four ways to distinguish Statement against Interest from Admission of Party
[1] St against interest must be made against interest at time St was made; [2] St against interest may be made by any person, not necessarily a party; [3] St against interest requires personal knowledge; [4] St against interest requires unavailability
What is the definition of a Dying Declaration?
In a prosecution for homicide or in a civil action or proceeding, a St made by a declarant while believing that the declarant’s death was imminent, concerning the cause or circumstances of the impending death.
What are the requirements for a dying declaration?
[1] State of Mind – made under sense of impending death; [2] Declarant need not die but must be unavailable at time of trial; [3] Kind of case in which admissible – homicide or civil case. NO criminal cases! [4] Content limitation – must concern cause or circumstances of impending death (can’t talk about undue influence in a will)
Exam hint about Dying Declaration
Just saying “Spano did it” is not enough. There was nothing showing knowledge of impending death. You need state of mind requirement.
Spontaneous Statements generally
A group of six exceptions for which unavailability is not required b/c the law regards prior statement as being at least as reliable as present in-court testimony.
What are the six types of spontaneous statements?
[1] Declaration of existing state of mind in issue; [2] Declaration of (present) existing intent to do something in the future offered to infer that the intended future act was done; [3] Excited utterance; [4] present sense impression; [5] Declaration of Present pain, suffering or physical condition; [6] Declaration of Past Physical Condition
What is the definition of an excited utterance?
St relating to a startling event or condition is admissible when made while declarant was still under stress of excitement cause by event or condition
What are the requirements for an excited utterance?
[1] Startling event; [2] Made under stress of excitement; [3] Describes the facts of the startling event
Considerations/things to look for when looking for an excited utterance
[1] nature of event; [2] time lapse and what is going on during that time (has the excitement worn off?); [3] Language of excitement (exclaimed, shouted, screamed) (not “discussed” or “volunteered”). Look for “!”
What is the definition of a Present sense impression?
A statement describing or explaining an event or condition made while declarant was perceiving the event or condition or immediately thereafter.
Distinguish PSI from EU
PSI – unnecessary to have startling event or excitement but must have almost precise contemporaneousness – no appreciable time lapse.
What is the definition of a Present Pain, suffering or physical condition?
A declaration of then existing physical or mental condition is admissible to show the condition. This is almost like a type of PSI. “It hurts.”
What is the definition of a Past Physical Condition?
Statement made for purposes of diagnosis or treatment and describing medical history or past symptoms or the general character of the cause or external source of the symptoms insofar as reasonably pertinent to diagnosis or treatment.
What are the requirements for a Declaration of a Past Physical Condition?
[1] Made to medical personnel; [2] pertinent to either diagnosis or treatment (even if diagnosis is only for the purpose of giving testimony)
What is a preliminary question of fact?
For expert opinion – “is he qualified as an expert?”
What’s the rule for preliminary questions of fact upon which admissibility depends?
Preliminary questions concerning the qualification of a person to be a W, the existence of a privilege, or the admissibility of E shall be determined by the court (judge). But in making its determination it is not bound by the rules of evidence. (ex: judge can consider hearsay)
What is the rule for impeaching the hearsay declarant?
When a hearsay statement has been admitted in E, the credibility of the declarant may be attacked by any evidence which would be admissible for that purpose if declarant had testified as a live witness.
Definition of business records
Records made at or near the time by, or from information transmitted by, a person w/ knowledge are admissible if kept in the regular course of business and if it was the regular course of that business to make the record unless the source of info or circumstances of preparation indicate a lack of trustworthiness.
What are the problem areas for business records?
[1] Does the exception apply? Usually turns on whether entry is germane to the business. If it’s germane, it applies. [2] Multiple Hearsay Problem – assume the entry is germane to the business so that the biz records exception ordinarily applies. But suppose the record contains w/in it a statement made by someone outside the business. Reconsider the rationale and purpose of the exception.
What is the rule for the 6th Am Right of Confrontation?
Even though an o-o-c statement qualifies as an exception to the rule against hearsay, the accused’s 6th Am right of confrontation may render the St inadmissible when it is offered against the accused in a criminal case. The S.C. in Crawford v. Washington recently held that o-o-c statements, even if they fit a hearsay exception, will not be admitted if: [1] the o-o-c St is offered against the accused in a criminal case and [2] The declarant is unavailable at the trial and [3] the o-o-c St was “testimonial” and [4] the accused had no opportunity to cross-X the declarant’s “testimonial” St when it was made unless the Ø demonstrates that the Δ has forfeited his Confrontation Clause objection by wrongdoing that prevented the declarant from testifying at trial.
What did Crawford v. Washington hold?
o-o-c statements, even if they fit a hearsay exception, will not be admitted if: [1] the o-o-c St is offered against the accused in a criminal case and [2] The declarant is unavailable at the trial and [3] the o-o-c St was “testimonial” and [4] the accused had no opportunity to cross-X the declarant’s “testimonial” St when it was made unless the Ø demonstrates that the Δ has forfeited his Confrontation Clause objection by wrongdoing that prevented the declarant from testifying at trial.
A hearsay statement is testimonial if:
Declarant makes a St that he anticipates will be used in the prosecution or investigation of the crime.
What are some examples of statements made in the prosecution or investigation of a crime?
Witness statements made to police or other law enforcement officials in response to police questioning; any testimony given at a formal proceeding – preliminary hearing, grand jury, or motion to suppress; guilty plea allocutions of co-conspirators to prove that a conspiracy existed; forensic lab reports revealing drugs, fingerprints, firearms evidence, blood, DNA, etc.)
Considerations in determining whether statements are testimonial
[1] Likely motivation and intent of the declarant making the statement (to get help or provide E?); [2] Likely motivation and intent of interrogator (to safeguard the victim or secure the scene or to get E?); [3] The temporal element (ongoing emergency or description of past events?); [4] Identity of person eliciting the statement (law enforcement connected or acquaintance/relative of the declarant?); [5] Degree, amount, circumstances and location of police interrogation (preliminary on-scene questions or sustained structured questioning?)
CON LAW
CON LAW
What is the cases & controversies requirement?
There must be a live dispute to be justiciable
What does the SC have original jdxn over?
Ambassadors, public ministers, consuls, states as parties.
What state court cases can come to SC by writ of certiorari?
Where the constitutionality of a federal statute, federal treaty, or state statute is in issue, or where a state statute allegedly violates federal law.
What are the limitations on federal judicial power?
[1] no advisory opinions; [2] ripeness; [3] mootness; [4] standing; [5] Political Questions
What are the two exceptions to mootness?
[1] A wrong capable of repetition but evading review; [2] class actions
What are the components of standing?
[1] Injury; [2] Causation; [3] Redressability; [4] No standing to assert others’ rights, unless Π himself is injured and (a) 3rd parties find it difficult to assert their own rights, or (b) Π’s injury adversely affects his relationship w/ 3rd parties; [5] Associational Standing; [6] No citizenship/taxpayer standing, except taxpayers have standing to challenge government expenditures as violating the Establishment Clause
What is the injury component of standing?
Must show actual injury. It must be specific. It need not be economic, but that helps.
In associational standing, an organization may sue for its members if:
[1] The members would have standing to sue; [2] the injury is related to the organization’s purpose; and [3] Neither the claim nor the relief requires the participation of individual members.
What is generalized grievance standing?
No citizenship/taxpayer standing except that taxpayers have standing to challenge government expenditures as violating the Establishment Clause.
What are Political Questions and what are some examples?
Issues that are constitutionally committed to another branch of government or are inherently incapable of judicial resolution. Ex: The Guaranty Clause; Foreign Relations; Impeachment and Removal process
When will the SC refuse to review a state court decision?
When there is an independent and adequate state law ground of decision.
What are the exceptions to the general rule that Federal Courts may not hear suits against state governments? (11th Am)
[1] Suits against state officers are allowed, either for injunctive relief or for damages to be paid out of their own pockets; [2] state waiver of immunity from suit is permitted; [3] Congress may waive states’ immunity from suit to allow suits under federal statutes passed pursuant to constitutional amendments adopted after the 11th, including § 5 of 14th, and; [4] the federal government may sue state governments
What is the concept of abstention?
Federal courts may not enjoin pending state court proceedings.
What are the only times where there is federal police power?
Military bases, Indian reservations, Federal lands, DC
What is the N&P Clause?
Congress has the power to make all laws necessary and proper (appropriate) for executing any power granted to any branch of federal government. It must work in conjunction w/ another law. So look for answer choices w/ another federal power linked to it.
What are the enumerated and implied powers of Federal Legislation?
[1] N & P Clause; [2] Taxing/Spending power and commerce power; [3] 10th Am; [4] § 5 of 14th Am
Describe the taxing/spending power of Congress
Congress may tax and spend only for the general welfare. There is no specific clause for this. It will usually be a wrong answer. General Welfare = Police power (which Congress doesn’t really have)
What does the Commerce Clause control?
[1] Channels of Interstate Commerce – Places where commerce occurs like highways, airspace, internet; [2] Instrumentalities (facilitate I.C. ex: trucks, planes, internet) of I.C. and person or things (electricity, pollution, lotto, hoes) in interstate commerce; [3] Activities that have a substantial effect on I.C. – aggregate effect will not work if the activity is non-economic
Justiciability Mnemonic
RAMPS – [1] Ripeness; [2] Advisory Opinions; [3] Mootness; [4] Political Questions; [5] Standing
What is commandeering?
When the federal gov passes a statute that requires a state to pass a statute. Fed gov can’t do this.
Hierarchy of Laws
[1] Constitution; [2] Act of Congress (if you have an act of Congress that conflicts w/ a Treaty, go with last in time); [3] Executive Agreement / Executive Order; [4] State Law
What’s the rule for property power?
Congress has power to dispose of territory or other property belonging to US. As long as you don’t create an EP issue, you can give property to one tribe over another.
What’s example of property that US gov can control?
[1] wild animals; [2] military ships and planes; [3] federal buildings; [4] Indian reservations
What’s the affectation doctrine?
Congress may regulate any activity which has a substantial economic effect on I.C.
What are the suspect classes under EP Standard of Review for Strict Scrutiny?
NRA – National Origin; Race; Alienage. You have a “suspect” and you have the NRA
What are the fundamental rights under EP Standard of Review for Strict Scrutiny?
CAMPER (Camper – if you like to backpack, you like to be alone. Your campsite is secluded and you are alone. It’s very private.) [C] – Contraception; [A] – Abortion; [M] – Marriage; [P] – Procreation; [E] – Education (right to private Edu.); [R] – Relations of Family
What are the standards of review for EP?
Strict Scrutiny; Intermediate Scrutiny; Rational Basis Scrutiny
What is SDP?
A term used to classify the source from which the fundamental rights (right to vote, right to travel, right to privacy) derive
Differences between SDP and EP
SDP – when the law impacts everyone; EP – law impacts similarly situational people differently
What is the Art. IV P & I Clause?
Prevents economic discrimination by one state against citizens or residents of another state, unless a substantial reason exists
Are Total Spending limits by a candidate UnC’l or C’l? Are individual campaign contribution limits?
Total Spending – UnC’l; Individual – C’l if reasonable.
What are the buzz words to look for in Takings Issues questions?
“Deprive owner of any beneficial use”
Obscenity Test (Miller). To be obscene, the material must: (mnemonic)
[1] Appeal to the prurient interest in sex; [2] Depict sexual conduct in a patently offensive way; and [3] lack SLAPS Serious Literary, Artistic, Political, or Scientific value
Three Areas of Commerce Clause (mnemonic)
CIA – [C] – Channels of Commerce (hotels, restaurants, etc.); [I] Instrumentalities of Commerce (airlines, railroads, drugs, kidnapping – very broad); [A] Activities that substantially affect Commerce (intrastate that has substantial effect on commerce)
Intermediate Scrutiny (mnemonic)
SIC – [S] Sex or gender; [I] Illegitimacy; [C] Children of Aliens
PDP – Matthews Test (mnemonic) – Balancing Test of whether you get a hearing
IRA – [I] Importance of interest affected; [R] Risk of error by gov if no additional procedures are required; [A] Administrative burden on Gov if hearing is required
In Con Law, what is the Rebuttable Presumption Doctrine?
A WRONG answer
Con Law wrong answers:
[1] ‘privilege and not a right’; [2] Rebuttable presumption doctrine; [3] ‘utterly without redeeming social value’
What is the process required for: Commitment to a Mental Institution?
Adults – prior notice and prior evidentiary hearing (except in emergency). Children – prior screening by neutral factfinder. (parental consent alone is insufficient)
What is the process required for: Welfare Benefits?
Prior notice and prior evidentiary hearing
What is the process required for: Disability Benefits?
Prior notice and opportunity to respond, and subsequent evidentiary hearing
What is the process required for: Public Employment (tenured or termination only “for cause”)?
Generally, prior notice and opportunity to respond, and subsequent evidentiary hearing
What is the process required for: Public Education (disciplinary suspension or academic dismissal)?
Prior notice and opportunity to respond; no formal evidentiary hearing required
What is the process required for: Driver’s License Suspension?
Prior evidentiary hearing. Exception: Breathalyzer test suspension statutes
What is the process required for: Termination of Parent’s Custody Rights?
Prior notice and prior evidentiary hearing
What is the process required for: Civil Forfeitures?
Prior notice and evidentiary hearing for real property; subsequent notice and hearing for personal property.
Are the following a Taking or a Regulation? [1] Condemnation of land to build highway; [2] Ordering destruction of diseased trees; [3] Landmark Ordinances; [4] Creating Public access easement on private property; [5] Abolishing inheritance rights; [6] Zoning Ordinances that merely prohibit the most beneficial use of property
[1] Taking; [2] Regulation; [3] Regulation; [4] Taking; [5] Taking; [6] Regulation
What gets the Rational Basis test for [1] DP; [2] EP
[1] When no fundamental rights are involved; [2] When no Suspect or Quasi-Suspect Class and No Fundamental Right are involved
What gets Strict Scrutiny Test for [1] DP; [2] EP
[1] when Fundamental Rights Involved (Privacy, Interstate Travel, Voting, 1st Am); [2] Suspect Class Involved (NRA – National Origin, Race, Alienage)
What gets the Intermediate Scrutiny Test for EP?
Quasi-Suspect Class involved (gender, legitimacy)
What is the Rational Basis Test and who has the burden?
Test – is the law rationally related to a legitimate government purpose? Burden – on challenger
What is the Strict Scrutiny Test and who has the burden?
Test – is the law necessary to achieve a compelling government purpose? Burden – on Government
What is the Intermediate Scrutiny Test and who has the burden?
Test – is the law substantially related to an important government purpose? Burden – on government
Under EP, what is covered by rational basis?
[1] Social or economic welfare measures (welfare benefits); [2] Education – public; [3] Housing; [4] Unrelated people living together; [5] Bankruptcy; [6] Age; [7] Poverty; [8] Wealth; [9] Mental Retardation; [10] Necessities of life (e.g., food, shelter, clothing, and medical care)
On the right to be a candidate, what is the standard of review for the following: [1] Wealth Restriction; [2] Residency Restriction; [3] Property Ownership Requirements; [4] Party Affiliation; [5] Racial Classification; [6] Age Classification; [7] Prohibition on Officeholders from Being Candidates for another office
[1] Strict Scrutiny; [2] Strict Scrutiny; [3] No Articulated Standard; [4] Strict Scrutiny; [5] Strict Scrutiny; [6] Rational Basis; [7] Rational Basis
What is the approach for the following types of questions: [1] Least Accurate; [2] Weakest Argument; [3] Not Accurate or Not Helpful
[1] Eliminate all correct statements; [2] Look for False Statement; [3] Choose wrong statement of law
What is the Negative Implications Doctrine of the Dormant Commerce Clause?
Where Congress has not otherwise regulated, the states are free to regulate interstate commerce; regulation must be: [1] non-discriminatory – may not favor or protect local interests, and [2] not unduly burdensome – state interest is balanced against the burden on I.C. such that no less restrictive alternative means is available
What amendments are incorporated through the 14th?
2nd – right to bear arms; 5th – right to a grand jury in criminal cases; 7th – right to jury trial for civil cases
What are protected liberty interests?
Commitment to a mental institution, right to contract, right to engage in gainful employment; right to refuse unwanted medical care, right of natural parents in the care and custody of their children; NOT injury to reputation
What are property interests (entitlements)?
Right to public education; welfare benefits; liability benefits; continued public employment where termination can only be “for cause”; revocation of a driver’s license
What is the Lemon test?
To be constitutional, a sect-neutral government aid/program must satisfy three requirements: the law must [1] have a secular purpose; [2] have a primary effect that neither advances nor inhibits religion, and [3] not foster excessive government entanglement w/ religion.
What is the main principle of the Establishment Clause? What’s the major test for it?
The government may not aid or prefer one religion or sect over another, subject to strict scrutiny review. Lemon Test
What are the general principles under the Establishment Clause?
[1] Government sponsored religious activities in public schools are UnC’l; [2] government aid to parochial schools may not be used for religious purposes, but such aid is constitutional if made available to all students at public and private schools
What is the relationship of tax deductions and the Establishment Clause?
Reimbursing parents for tuition paid only to religious schools is invalid; similarly tax exemptions available for religious organizations is an invalid endorsement of religion. But property tax exemptions for religious property have been upheld; religious displays are permissible in public places provided no one religion is being favored over another
What are the four types of facial attacks on free speech?
[1] Overbreadth – statute punishes both protected as well as unprotected speech; [2] Vagueness – statute is so unclearly defined that persons of ordinary intelligence must guess at its meaning; [3] Prior Restraint – government action restricting free speech in advance of publication is generally invalid (licensing permits, injunctions, gag order barring the media from pretrial publicity), valid where national security interests are compelling, or the regulation of obscene books and films where procedural safeguards are afforded. [4] Unfettered Discretion – where a licensing official has unfettered discretion as to whether to confer or deny a permit
In a Free Speech Essay question, what is the first question to ask?
Is the Speech the Statute is regulating Content Specific (regulates the message) or Content Neutral (Time, Place, Manner Regulation – statute exists regardless of the message)?
In a Free Speech Essay question, what do you do if the speech the statute is regulating is Content Specific (regulates the message)?
Ask if the Speech being regulated is Protected or Unprotected. If [1] Protected – Apply strict scrutiny – i.e., the statute is unconstitutional unless the government can show the law is necessary to a compelling interest; [2] Unprotected – Unprotected includes Clear and Present Danger; Defamation; Obscenity; Child Porn; Fighting Words; Fraudulent Commercial Speech
In a Free Speech Essay question, what do you do if the speech the statute is regulating is Content Neutral (Time, Place, Manner Regulation – statute exists regardless of the message)?
If content neutral regulation of time, place, manner –then apply a 3-party test. The regulation must: [1] further a significant government interest (noise, crowd, or litter control; traffic safety); [2] Be narrowly tailored (no more restrictive than necessary), and [3] leave open alternative channels of communication (commercial door-to-door solicitation w/o invitation of the homeowner may be restricted b/c other avenues of communication exist such as the mail, newspaper advertisements, radio, and television)
What must the government show in order to deny public employment and bar membership based on someone’s group affiliation?
Must show that the person [1] is a knowing (scienter) and active (dues-paying) member of subversive group, and [2] has the specific intent to further the group’s unlawful objectives.
What are the types of unregulated speech?
Clear and present danger; defamation; obscenity; child porn; fighting words; fraudulent commercial speech; other areas
What is clear and present danger speech?
Speech [1] directed at producing imminent unlawful action and [2] likely to produce such action
Describe defamation as an unprotected speech
[1] Public officials, public figures, and limited public figures must prove malice (knowing falsity or reckless disregard for the truth) [2] private person Πs – constitutional limitations apply on where the defamatory statement involves a matter of public concern, in which case negligence must be proven (no liability w/o fault); punitive damages are not awarded absent proof of malice.
Describe child porn as an unprotected speech
Outside the protection of the 1st Am – visual depictions of sexual conduct including children may be punished even if not obscene under Miller
Describe fighting words as an unprotected speech
Restricted speech includes personally abrasive language likely to invite the average person to commit acts of physical violence; however, statutes designed to punish only particular viewpoints are invalid – e.g., fighting words that provoke violence on the basis of race, religion, or gender
Describe fraudulent commercial speech as an unprotected speech
Generally commercial speech is protected by may be restricted as to false or deceptive advertising or illegal products; a lawful, narrowly tailored regulation will be valid if it directly advances a substantial government interest and there is a reasonable “fit” between the means used and the legislation’s end; attorney may advertise, provided it is not misleading; in-person solicitation is not protected.
Describe “other areas” as an unprotected speech
[1] Symbolic speech (where medium is the message) may be restricted where the regulation furthers an important government interest unrelated to the suppression of speech and the incidental burden on speech is no greater than necessary; e.g., UnC’l to ban flag burning. [2] Freedom not to speak – allows children not to be compelled to salute or say pledge of allegiance. Allows motorist to cover “Live Free or Die”
Time, place, manner restrictions for nonpublic forums must be:
[1] viewpoint neutral (content may be regulated, but limiting the presentation to only one view is impermissible) and [2] reasonably related to a legitimate government interest
Time, place, manner restrictions for public forums must be:
The regulation must: [1] further a significant government interest (noise, crowd, or litter control; traffic safety); [2] Be narrowly tailored (no more restrictive than necessary), and [3] leave open alternative channels of communication (commercial door-to-door solicitation w/o invitation of the homeowner may be restricted b/c other avenues of communication exist such as the mail, newspaper advertisements, radio, and television)
What are the licensing statutes requirements?
To be valid, a licensing scheme must relate to an important government objective, be clearly written, narrowly drawn, and reasonably regulate time, place and manner of speech
What do you do if a licensing statute is valid on its face?
The speaker may not ignore the statute and must seek a permit. If the request is denied, even wrongfully, the speaker must nonetheless seek prompt judicial relief before speaking; otherwise a subsequent claim of violation of 1st Am rights will fail.
What do you do if a licensing statute is Void on its face?
(Due to overbreadth, vagueness, prior restraint, or unfettered discretion) – the speaker may ignore the statute and speak, as well as successfully defend against any subsequent prosecution
What do you do if an injunction is issued in situations where a licensing statute exists?
Where the speaker is enjoined from speaking, she must obey the injunction (even if facially invalid) or appeal from it. Invalidity of the injunction must be established on appeal and is no defense to a subsequent charge of contempt.