Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
122 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
CONSTITUTIONAL LAW: federal judicial review, case or controversy requirement: a real live controversy must |
exist at all stages of review, not merely when the complaint is filed |
|
if controversy no longer exists |
court will dismiss for mootness
|
|
a case becomes moot when |
a party can no longer be affected by the statute they are challenging |
|
case and controversy questions often have |
wrong choices going to the merits of the dispute |
|
standing: two prong test: |
1. a concrete injury in fact not suffered by all persons 2. injury must be capable of being remedied by a decision in petitioner's favor (redressibility) |
|
taxation power: Congress has the ________ power to tax |
plenary |
|
standing: SCOTUS said members of Congress lack standing (Rains v. Bird) |
to challenge a law authorizing the President to exercise a line item veto |
|
Separation of Powers: appointments clause: permits congress to vest appointments of inferior officers only in the
|
president, the courts, or the heads of departments |
|
Congress cannot appoint members of a commission that have______________ powers |
enforcement. this is an executive power |
|
Commerce clause: state taxation of commerce: states may impose |
doing business taxes, such as a gross receipts tax on companies engaged in interstate commerce so long as it does not discriminate against or unfairly burden interstate commerce |
|
a tax will impose an unfair burden UNLESS |
1. the activity taxed has a substantial nexus to the taxing state 2. the tax is fairly apportioned; AND 3. the tax fairly relates to services provided by the state |
|
preemption / supremacy clause: did Congress intend to |
occupy the entire field with its regulation thus precluding any state or local regulation |
|
preemption can be either |
express or implied: express = stated in statute implied = inferred through statutes structure and purpose |
|
federal regulation of advertising for health and safety has |
nothing to do with state's regulatory interest in preventing fraudulent advertising (Altria v. ) |
|
fundamental right to travel: an individual as this right to |
travel from state to state and a state law that is designed to deter person from moving into that state is likely to violate the Equal protection clause of 14th Amendment |
|
when a state uses a durational residency requirement for dispensing benefits |
that requirement normally should subject to strict scrutiny (and will likely not survive) |
|
P&I of Article IV: protects against |
discrimination by a state in favor of its own citizens when it involves a fundamental right e.g., the pursuit of livelihood any statute that discriminates in that manner, violates the clause unless it shows it has substantial justification for the discrimination - no less restrictive means to solve the problem |
|
government speech: the government is generally |
free to choose which messages it will and will not convey absent some other constitutional subscription a permanent display on a gov't building = gov't speech |
|
over breadth and first amendment: if a regulation of speech punishes a substantial amount of protected speech judged in relation to the regulation's plainly legitimate sweep... |
the regulation is facially invalid and cannot be enforced against anyone |
|
even if there is speech that incites violence |
speech is still protected if the regulation is overbroad |
|
first amendment and prior restraint: prior restraint is the government preventing |
dissemination of speech before it is made most cases hold that prior restraints will not be tolerated unless the restraint is narrowly tailored to serve a compelling government interest (strict scrutiny) |
|
First amendment and free exercise clause: free exercise clause restricts government |
interference with the exercise of religion. This clause strongly protects religious beliefs. Gov't may not punish religious beliefs unless it is necessary to achieve a compelling interest (strict scrutiny). |
|
first amendment and establishment clause: prohibits the government establishment of religion applicable to the states via |
the due process clause of 14th amendment
|
|
first amendment and establishment clause: government action involving religion it must pass the 3 part lemon test: |
1. fairly subjective test long history of prayer will not fail the test |
|
CIVIL PROCEDURE: subject matter jurisdiction: diversity: each plaintiff must be |
citizen of a different state than every D and amount in controversy must exceed $75,000 |
|
when dealing with limited partnerships, citizenship |
where every partner (general or limited) is a citizen |
|
federal courts do not hear... |
alimony or divorce cases, among others. |
|
1. usually every claim brought in federal courts must __________, but ____________ can be used. 2. A P may aggregate |
1. have a basis for SMJ.......aggregation where SMJ would not otherwise exist. 2. all of the claims he or she has against D and as long as diversity exists and the aggregate amount exceeds amount in controversy, the federal court will hear the case |
|
if a claim is dismissed for lack of personal jurisdiction, |
not on the merits, and can file in a different court that has PJ as long as SOL has not expired
|
|
Venue: is proper when |
1. any district where a D resides if all Ds reside in the same state OR 2. in the district where a substantial part of the events giving rise to the cause of action occurred. If there is no district under 1. or 2., then the action may be brought in any district in which ANY D is subject to personal jurisdiction |
|
impleader and supplemental jurisdiction: indemnity a fever court may hear (impleader) indemnity claim if |
seeking recovery for all or part of liability and under supplemental jurisdiction as long as that claim arises under a common nucleus of operative facts |
|
as long as impleader claim is valid, the federal will allow, under the rules of joinder, permit the joining further claims as long as |
the rules of SMJ are satisfied |
|
removal = a one way street = only the _____ can remove from state to federal court |
defendant |
|
pre trial motions: 12(b) motions: 12(b)(6) may be asserted |
not only in any pre answer motion, but also in any later motion, pleading for judgment on the pleadings, or at trial |
|
discovery: in support of a claim, a party must provide to the other party |
copies or descriptions of ESI that is in the disclosing parties possession or control OR that the disclosing party maybe using to support its claims or defenses |
|
discovery: witnesses: a party must disclose the |
identities of individuals likely to have discoverable information that the disclosing might be using in its claims or defenses even if defense decides not to use the witness, the disclosing party must still disclose if P properly requests, because discovery may be had of any non privileged matter that is relevant to any parties claim or defense including individuals with knowledge of any discoverable matter |
|
P is given ______ opportunity to make a voluntary dismissal of an action |
one. for any reason. if a second one is made then that is an adjudication on the merits. prior to a defendant answering a claim or filing motion for summary judgment, P may dismiss case by filing a notice of dismissal (ONCE). |
|
default judgments and when they can be set aside: a default judgment may be set aside for: |
1. if evidence of mistake, surprise, or excusable neglect 2. newly discovered evidence that by due diligence could not have been discovered in time to move for a new trial 3. evidence of fraud, or misrepresentation committed by an adverse party 4. judgment is void 5. if judgment has been released, satisfied, or discharged 6. any other reason justifying the relief from the operation of the judgment |
|
when is a judgment enforceable? |
during the pendency of post-trial motions unless the court otherwise orders for the sake of the (financial) security of the adverse party |
|
issue preclusion: arises when |
in a previous lawsuit between P and D, any judgments that occurred binds them in subsequent actions on different causes of action as to issues actually litigated and essential to the judgment of the first action mutuality rules have been relaxed here... can be new parties, don't have to be the same parties |
|
TORTS: battery: what will negate an element of battery? |
1. intends to cause harmful offensive contact and such contact occurs lack of intent |
|
Trespass to land: an interference with |
the right of possession of the land. an action for trespass can be brought by anyone in actual or constructive possession of the land even without title or legal right all about possession! |
|
D is not liable for otherwise tortious act if P has |
consented implied by law when action is necessary to save an important interest in person or property, e.g. emergency situation - where P is not a position to consent, but a reasonable person would conclude that P would have consented, the it will be implied by law. |
|
defamation and consent: consent is a complete |
defense to a defamation action. Apparent consent may be implied where a reasonable person would infer consent from P's actions. malice is irrelevant to a consent defense reasonable mistake as to whether there was consent is not a defense |
|
invasion of privacy: public disclosure of private facts: requires two prong test |
1. publication by D of private information about P; AND 2. matter made public is such that a reasonable person would object to having it made public publication may be privileged if a matter of legitimate public interest as long as it is made without malice |
|
what is the fall back to defamation? |
invasion of privacy: false light or public disclosure of private facts |
|
negligence: duty of care: a physician prescribing a course of treatment or surgical procedure has |
a duty to provide the patient with enough information about its risks to enable the patient to make an informed consent |
|
negligence and landowner duties of care: a general rule, landowner's owe no duty to those off the premises for natural causes, but |
may be liable for unreasonably dangerous artificial conditions or structures abutting adjacent land
e.g. ice collecting on roof while customer walking on sidewalk - potentially a duty there. |
|
traditionally, if contributory negligence rules apply (they have to tell you) and the P is at all negligent? |
no recovery |
|
negligence: rescuers: a rescuer is a |
foreseeable plaintiff under the theory that danger invites rescue |
|
at common law, an owner of an automobile is ____________ for the conduct (torts) of drivers. |
not liable |
|
Strict liability: 3 types |
wild animals abnormally dangerous activities strict products liablity |
|
owner of trespassing animals are strictly liable for the damage they cause as long as |
it was reasonably foreseeable |
|
strict products liability applies |
when a defective product unreasonably dangerous to the user or consumer is placed into the stream of commerce everyone in the supply chain is liable **design defects = P must usually show a reasonable alternative design, a less dangerous alternative was economically feasible. |
|
to prove breach of a duty in a products liability case based on negligence... |
P must show 2 things: 1. negligent conduct by D leading to 2. supplying of defective product by D defective food product = manufacturing defect |
|
To show negligence in a manufacturing defect case (products liability) |
P may invoke res ipsa loquitur in order to rely on this, P must show that the injury is the type that would not normally occur ABSENT negligence, and usually occurs because of negligence on the part of the manufacturer res ipsa is an inference of negligence - not conclusive |
|
private nuisance = |
a substantial unreasonable interference with a person's use and enjoyment of the property to be substantial it must be offensive, inconvenient, annoying to an average person in the community not substantial if merely the result of P's hyper sensitivity |
|
landowner owes a duty to those adjacent to the premises to |
take due precautions to protect them from dangerous conditions and owes invitees on the premises the two fold duty: 1. duty to inspect and 2. duty to make safe. duties cannot be delegated to an independent contractor |
|
contributory negligence: in a wrongful death action, recovery is allowed |
only to the extent the deceased could have |
|
P's conduct in negligence case is never characterized as |
an intervening force, but instead as contributory negligence that will bar recovery following traditional rules |
|
CRIMINAL LAW & PROCEDURE: felony murder: majority rule for death of felon - the killing of a felon by a police officer to prevent the felon's crime or escape ___________ be the basis for felony murder **red line view = majority view |
cannot |
|
if a police or victim shoots a bystander, and the jurisdiction follows the agency theory of liability for felony murder.... |
the felon will not be liable because the killing was not done by his agent or accomplice |
|
self defense: generally one who begins a fight has |
no right to use force in self-defense. Unless a victim of an initial aggression escalates the fight with deadly force and doesn't give the initial aggressor the opportunity to withdraw, then the initial aggressor can use force |
|
larceny: elements |
1. trespassers taking (no consent) 2. carrying away of 3. personal property 4. of another with 5. intent to permanently deprive ** the intent to permanently deprive can be found when the D intends to use the property as to create a substantial risk of loss **mistake of law is no defense, even if reasonable |
|
continuing trespass (exception to concurrence requirement) = |
where one wrongly takes property without intent to permanently deprive but later decides to keep it and the intent is at the moment they decide to keep it |
|
burglary and larceny: larceny is a crime against possession? |
yes, even if unlawful |
|
for someone to act purposely they must have |
conscious intent |
|
for someone to act knowingly it means |
D has knowledge to a substantial certainty as to the harmful result |
|
attempted (specific intent) murder: the mens rea needed is |
intent to kill |
|
search incident to lawful arrest (exception to lawful arrest) = after arresting the occupant of a vehicle the police may search
|
the interior of the vehicle if:
1. the arrestee is unsecured and may still gain access to the vehicle 2. OR the police reasonable believe that evidence of the offense for which the person was arrested may be found in the vehicle |
|
valid arrest = |
1. probable cause and 2. warrant |
|
in order to challenge or object to search on 4th amendment you need |
standing = a person must have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the place to be searched or item seized. A person's own expectation must be violated **one may not challenge a search and seizure on 4th amendment grounds by claiming another person's rights have been violated |
|
Miranda Rights = once a defendant is custody, the arrestee is entitled |
to remain silent and request an attorney once a D requests a lawyer all questioning must cease, and one doing so (exercising 5th rights) cannot be used against them at trial. |
|
Miranda v. messiah (5th and 6th amendments): 1. Miranda (5th) is applied when there is 2. Messiah (6th) applies when |
1. custodial interrogation - prior to being charged right to counsel is not offense specific and can be asked about other crimes 2. when D has been formerly charged and the right to counsel is offense specific = any interrogation about that crime must take place in presence of counsel unless D has made a knowing and intelligent waiver of that right |
|
Miranda = custodial interrogation: when is D in custody? |
when one's freedom is restrained in a significant way, reasonably believe not free to leave **privilege against self incrimination bars government from procuring compelled testimony |
|
4th amendment = a D's guilty plea |
neither admits the legality of the incriminating search NOR waives 4th amendment claims in a subsequent civil damages action challenging the constitutionality of the incriminating search |
|
double jeopardy: prohibits |
retrying a D whose conviction has been reversed on appeal for any offense more serious of that which she was convicted at the first trial violated by retrial for a more serious offense even if at the second trial the D is only convicted of an offense no more serious than that which she was convicted at the first trial |
|
double jeopardy means that |
one may not be twice tried for the same offense blockburger test is that a crime will not be the same offense: if each crime requires proof of an additional element that the other crime does not require even if some of the same facts are necessary to prove both of the crimes Crime 1 = A, B, C Crime 2 = A, B, X C and X make it NOT a violate of double jeopardy under blockburger test. Crime 1 = A, B, C Crime 2 = A, B, C, D This is a violation because only one of the crimes has an element that the other crime does not require |
|
CONTRACTS: in UCC (gap filler) if the contract fails to state a delivery date then, |
it must be delivered within a reasonable time |
|
Generally, shipment of non-conforming goods is an accepting creating |
bilateral contract and a breach of contract, however, the result is different if the seller seasonably notifies the buyer that the non-conforming goods are offered as an accommodation to the buyer. Then, the shipment is a counteroffer which the buyer is free to accept or reject.
|
|
a purchase order can be accepted by either |
promise or shipment, thus a bilateral contract. but note the accommodation exception. |
|
option K is a distinct contract in which the offeree gives consideration to |
not revoke an outstanding offer (underlying offer) not even revocable even by an attempted rejection unless the offeror relied on the rejection. |
|
ordinarily, an offer is terminated if either of the parties dies prior to acceptance.... |
an offer that was irrevocable for a period of time because of an option contract, the offer survives the offeror's death and may be accepted anytime within the option period |
|
in a requirements K a buyer promises to buy from a certain seller... |
all of the goods it requires and the seller agrees to sell that amount to a buyer |
|
generally, a promise to pay a legal obligation barred by law is |
enforceable. But if a past obligation (debt) would be enforceable except for the fact that a technical defense stands in the way of enforcement (SOL), courts will enforce a new promise if it is writing or where there has been part performance. |
|
latent ambiguity = |
where the expression of the parties agreement appears to be clear at the time of formation, but is later interpreted differently where one party is aware of ambiguity and the other is not, the contract will be enforced as to the party that did not know of the ambiguity ambiguity alone does not void a contract |
|
parol evidence: if there is uncertainty or ambiguity in a written agreement's terms or a dispute as to the meaning of those terms |
parol evidence can be used to aid the fact finder in reaching a correct determination or interpretation of the ambiguous terms |
|
accord and satisfaction 1. accord = 2. Satisfaction = |
1. executory agreement (duties have not yet been performed) to discharge an existing contractual duty. In order to make an accord valid you need consideration. may be of lesser value of the original contract as long as different. The accord merely suspends the performance of the original agreement. 2. performance of the accord agreement. discharges the original contract and the accord agreement. |
|
UCC Remedies: 1. when a buyer breaches the contract by refusing to accept the goods, the seller's basic damages are either |
1. (i) the difference between the market price and contract price OR (ii) the difference between contract price and the resale price plus any incidental damages |
|
UCC Remedies / Lost volume seller: Use the lost profits measure of damages = |
lost profits + incidental damages facts will tell you if dealing with volume seller = ex. manufacturer could make as many as needed and/or has ample inventory |
|
Specific Performance Remedy: if the subject matter of the contract has already been sold to another who purchased for value and in good faith (BFP) the right to |
specific performance is cut off **otherwise, SP is generally available at equity when legal damages (money) will not be an adequate remedy and subject matter is unique |
|
Under the UCC, a seller must deliver goods to an insolvent buyer if |
the buyer tenders cash for the payment |
|
3rd Party Beneficiaries: only intended 3rd party Bs have rights, not incidentals. But they cannot enforce rights under the contract until |
the rights VEST (1 of 3 ways): 1. detrimental reliance 2. 3. |
|
assignments and privity: all contracts are assignable except |
long term requirements Ks and personal service Ks. Except, when waived. |
|
EVIDENCE: 5 ways to impeach a witness: |
1. prior inconsistent statement: (i) not under oath, only impeachment; (ii) under oath, both substantive evidence and impeachment 2. bias or motive to misrepresent: always admissible, extrinsic evidence allowed if witness denies 3. prior convictions: (i) if to prove dishonesty or false statement, always admissible; (ii) if for serious crime punishable by more than one year, use probative value vs. unfair prejudice test. The conviction cannot be too remote: if greater than 10 years from release from confinement 4. Prior bad acts: specific bad acts, truthfulness or untruthfulness, no convictions, it witness denies - no extrinsic evidence 5. Bad reputation in community for truth or veracity: may be proven with extrinsic evidence |
|
A witness can always be questioned about |
misconduct probative of truthfulness |
|
Former testimony exception: If a now unavailable witness, former testimony is admissible if there is |
sufficient similarities of parties and there was an opportunity at prior hearing to meaningfully cross examine |
|
Statements by hearsay declarant can be _________ at any time. |
impeached |
|
Jurors are incompetent as witnesses, but only for |
the case in which they are currently sitting or to impeach a prior verdict they participated in |
|
Character evidence in a criminal case: where D opens this door this means |
D offers evidence of good character by reputation or opinion (NO SPECIFIC ACTS) offered to prove innocence, but the evidence needs to be relevant. Only then, prosecution may introduce evidence of reputation or opinion to rebut D's evidence. |
|
marital communication privilege does not apply in |
actions between spouses |
|
Party admission = |
a statement or act done that amounts to prior acknowledgment by one of the parties of one of the relevant facts |
|
attorney client privilege does not apply when you have |
2 parties being represented by the same attorney in the same action |
|
True/False: Party admissions are non-hearsay. |
True |
|
best evidence rule = |
when contents of a writing are in issue, the original writing is needed EXCEPT if unavailable or lost or destroyed through no fault of the parties. Secondary evidence will then be allowed. |
|
For unavailability of the witness, it is not enough that the |
witness is out of state. Still need to make an attempt to serve on the witness. |
|
Public record exception to hearsay is in an effort to avoid |
public agents to leave jobs to testify. The report produced will be sufficient. |
|
Confrontation Clause: criminal D has the right to |
confront and cross-examine witnesses against him. affidavits summarizing forensic analysis are testimonial in nature and cannot be offered against D unless the preparer was unavailable and D had opportunity to cross examine the clause can bar a statement even if it falls within a hearsay exception |
|
REAL PROPERTY: if a future interest can be transferred voluntarily, it can also be |
involuntarily transferred and it can be reached by owner's creditors |
|
fee simple subject to condition subsequent = |
when a grantor retains power to terminate the estate of a grantee upon the happening of a stated event = conditional language upon the happening of the event the grantee's estate continues until the power to terminate is exercised |
|
For joint tenancies you need |
"with right of survivorship" does not descend to heirs severed by inter vivid conveyances and the 3rd person becomes an "in common" holder |
|
Periodic tenancy is not terminated until |
proper notice is given less than a year = full period notice in advance: (i) year-to-year - 6 months, (ii) month-to-month - 30 days. |
|
Generally, options to purchase land are subject to |
Rule Against Perpetuities, however RAP does not apply to OPTIONS connected to LEASEHOLDS |
|
the covenant of quiet enjoyment is implied in |
every lease that neither landlord nor someone with paramount title will interfere with tenants quiet enjoyment and possession may be breached by actual eviction foreclosure will terminate junior interest to the mortgage that is foreclosing |
|
Abandonment of servitudes: if a benefited party acquiesces in violation of the servitude by one burdened party, he may |
have abandoned the servitude as to other burdened parties |
|
partial restraint on alienation is |
one that purports to restrict the power to transfer to specific persons via specific method or until a specific time. such restraints if for a reasonable purpose are likely to be upheld |
|
marketable title: in every contract for the sale of land, there is |
an implied warranty that at closing the seller will provide the buyer with marketable title an inability to establish a record chain of title will generally render the title unmarketable |
|
If a servient parcel (the parcel burdened by the easement) is transferred, its new owner |
takes it subject to the burden of the easement unless a BFP without notice of easement Notice can be: actual, constructive (record), inquiry |
|
a deed is voidable fi |
its executed by a minor or incapacitated person OR obtained through (i) fraud in the inducement, (ii) duress, (iii) undue influence, (iv) mistake, (v) breach of fiduciary duty a voidable deed will be set aside ONLY IF the property has not passed to a BFP |
|
anti-lapse statute: at common law if a will beneficiary dies before the testator, |
the gift to the beneficiary was void. |
|
when a grantor purports to convey property that he does not own, his subsequent acquisition of title to that property... |
vests in the grantee under the doctrine of estoppel by deed |
|
priority of a mortgage is generally determined |
at the time it is placed on the property. This may change based on: the recording acts, rules with purchase money mortgages, or execution of a subordination agreement subordination agreements are generally enforced if they are specific subordination agreement is where you have a first mortgagee that may enter into an agreement with a junior to subordinate its priority to the junior mortgagee |