Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
236 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What measure usually fall into the three categories of extra military instruction, administrative witholding of privileges, and nonpunitive censure?
|
Nonpunitive Administrative Measure
|
|
|
What is defined as a benefit, advantage, or favor provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual?
|
Privilege
|
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring that the offender is fully informed of his right to appeal punishment?
|
Officer imposing punishment
|
|
|
When non-judicial punishment is imposed, the accused must be a member of the command or of the unit of the officer imposing the punishment.
|
true
|
|
|
CO's and OIC's may, when adequate facilities are not avalible or when the exigencies of the service require, defer execution or correctional custody or confinement on bread and water or diminished rations, for a reasonalble period of time, not to exceed how many days after improsition?
|
15 days
|
|
|
What right to council does an accused have prior to non-judicial punishment?
|
None
|
|
|
An appeal of non-judical punishment shall be submitted within how many working days of the imposition of NJP, or the right to appeal shall be waived in the absence of good cause shown.
|
Five
|
|
|
the name, rate, offence, and disposition of the offender of an NJP may be punished in the plan of the day within how long of NJP?
|
1 month
|
|
|
Concurrent with NCIS notification and consistent with the NCIS investigative prerogative, the commander or CO shall initiate a preliminary inquiry in accordance with SECNAVINST 5510.36 (series) and direct the inquiry and required reports be completed within what time frame?
|
72 hours
|
|
|
A CO below the grade of Lieutenant Commander may not place someone on restriction past how many consecutive days?
|
15
|
|
|
What article of the UCMJ provides that an accused has the right to be represented before a general or special courts-martial or at an investigation under Article 32, UCMJ, by military counsel of his own selection if that counsel is reasonably available?
|
Article 38
|
|
|
A military judge, certified in accordance with Article 26(b), UCMJ, may take a one time oath to preform his duties faithfully and impartially in all cases to wich detailed. The oath may be taken at any time and may be administered by any officer autherized by what article of the UCMJ?
|
Article 136
|
|
|
EMI normally will not be conducted for more than how many hours per day?
|
two
|
|
|
If a service member is seperated for misconduct at NJP and has obligated service arising from receiving advanced education assistance what will they have to do in regaurds to the money they received?
|
Pay it back
|
|
|
Navy personnel in what pay-grade may not be reduced in pay-grade?
|
E-7 or above
|
|
|
A person in the Navy or Marine COrps who is attached to or embarked in a vessel has the right to demand trial by court-martial in lieu of non-judicial punishment.
|
false
|
|
|
Correctional custody shall not be imposed on persons in what pay-grade unless unsuspended reduction below that pay-grade is imposed?
|
E-4 and above
|
|
|
Pay subject to forfeiture refers only to what?
|
Basic pay, plus sea or hardship duty pay
|
|
|
Over what time period can EMI be assigned to correct a deficiency?
|
No longer than necessary to correct the deficiency
|
|
|
Within the DON, who is responsible for the investigation of actual, suspected, or alleged national security incidents?
|
NCIS
|
|
|
Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations shall only be imposed on persons in which pay grade?
|
E-3 or Below
|
|
|
If classified matter is to be used for judicial proceeding, appropriate personnel security clerances in accordance with which instruction must be granted to all members of the court when classified matter is introduced before the court?
|
SECNAVINST 5510.30
|
|
|
What is defined as instruction in a phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient and is intended for and directed towards the corredction of that deficiency?
|
Extra Military Instrction EMI
|
|
|
What Type of jurisdiction with military authorities do federal civil authorities have over offencees commited by military personnel that violoate both the federal criminal law and the ucmj?
|
concurrent
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)- terrorist groups are present bu there is no indication of anti-US activity. The operating enviorment favors the host nation.
|
Moderate
|
|
|
This terrorist activity is usually a covert seizure of one or more specific persons in order to exact specific demands
|
kidnapping
|
|
|
Under terrorist attact methodology- ( please enter what phase is disscussed in the statement)- One pase five is accomplished the terrorist wait for the right set of circumstances to make their attack
|
Phase six - The attack
|
|
|
Under terrorist attact methodology- ( please enter what phase is disscussed in the statement)- based on the phase two surveellance, the terrorist selects a target, or set of targets
|
Phase three- target Selection
|
|
|
This type of terrorist activity is an overt seizure of one or more indivduals with the intent of gaining publiccity or other concession in return for release of the hostages.
|
Hostage Taking
|
|
|
Under terrorist forcer protection conditions, please name the force protection condition- applies when a general threat of posible terrorist activity exist but warrants only a routine security posture
|
NORMAL
|
|
|
Under terrorist levels (please name the 4 dod threat levels)- an anti us terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preffered meathod of operation. there is substantial DOD presance and the operational enviorment favors the terrorist.
|
High
|
|
|
Under terroris tattact methodology- ( please enter what phase is disscussed in the statement)- During this phase each of the potential targets will receive some degree of light surveillance to determine it acceptability for further consideration.
|
Phase two- Selection Surveillance
|
|
|
Under terrorist force protection conditions, please name the force protection conditions declared when an incident occurs or intelligence is recieved indicating that some form of terrorist action against installations, vessels or personnel is imminent
|
Charlie
|
|
|
Under terrorist Levels (please name the dod threat level assesment methodology)- actions indicative of preparations for specific terrorist operations.
|
intentions
|
|
|
Under terrorist Force Protection Condidtions, please name the force protection condidtion declared when a increaed threat and more predictable threat of terroist activity exists.
|
Bravo
|
|
|
Under terrorist levels (please name the DOD threat level assesment methodology) the circumstances of the country under consideration
|
operating enviorment
|
|
|
Under terrorist force protection condidtions, please name the fore protection condition declared when a terrorist attack has occured in the immediate area or intelligance indicates a terroriat action against a specific loaction or person is likely. declared only a s a localized warning.
|
delta
|
|
|
Under terrorist attact methodology- ( please enter what phase is disscussed in the statement)- once a terrorist or terrorist group decides to conduct an attack the begin the process of target selection.
|
Phase one - Target Operations
|
|
|
A critical factor in understanding terrorism is the _________ impact of the terrorist act on an audience other than the victim.
|
emotional
|
|
|
Under terrorist levels( please name the DOD threat level assesment methodology)- the acquired, assessed or demonstrated level of capability to conduct terrorist attacks
|
Operational capability
|
|
|
This type of activities on facilities are usually undertaken for one of three purposes: to gain access to radion or television broadcast capabilities in order to make a statement; to demonstrate the government's inability to secure critical facilities or national symbols; or to aquire resources.
|
Raids or attacks on facilities
|
|
|
Under terrorist attact methodology- ( please enter what phase is disscussed in the statement)- Detailed and often long term, surveillance is then conducted against the chosen potential target(s)
|
Phase Four -Detailed Survallience
|
|
|
This terrorist activity is the destruction of property or obstruction of normal operations or treacherous action to defeat or hinder a cause or endeavor.
|
Sabotage
|
|
|
This type of terrorist activity is sometimes emplyed as a means of escape,________ is nomally carried out to produce a spectacular hostage situation.
|
hijaking
|
|
|
Terrorist threat levels do not address when a ______ attack will occur and do not specify a Force Protection condition status.
|
terrorist
|
|
|
"This" is the crime of a maliciously setting fire to a building or the property of another person.
|
Arson
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Level(Please name the 4 DOD threat levels) No terrorist group is detected or the group activity is non threatening
|
Low
|
|
|
__________. The bomb, or improvied explosive devise is the terrorist weapon of choice.
|
Bombing
|
|
|
A ________ group's selection of targets and tactics is often a function of the groups affiliation, level of training, organization, sophistication and opportunity
|
terrorists
|
|
|
Under terrosist levels ( please name the 4 dod threat levels) An anti US terrorist group is operationally active and attacks personnel as their preffered method of operation, or a group uses large casualty producing attacks as their preffered meathod and limited operational activity. the operating enviorment in neutral
|
Significant
|
|
|
In "type" of warfare , actions are taken to achive information superiority by affecting adversary information, information-based processes, information systems and computer based networks while leveraging and defending one's own information, information systems and computer based networks
|
Information warfare
|
|
|
This type of terrorist activity involves a building or object that has value in the eyes in the audience.
|
seizure
|
|
|
_________ have accounted for over one half or all recorded international terrorist attacks since 1938.
|
bombings
|
|
|
____________. A term generally applied to the killing of promiment persons and symbolic enemies as well as traitors who defect from the group.
|
assassination
|
|
|
Under Terrorist attact methodology- ( please enter what phase is disscussed in the statement)- the attack plan will be developed, the attack team assembled and trained and logistics preperations made
|
phase five
|
|
|
What are the intelligence's system for articulating and categorizing the terrorist worldwide?
|
Terrorist threat levels
|
|
|
Terrorist ________ may include attracting publicity for a group's cause, demonstrating the groups power or the existing governments lack of power, extracting revenge or causing government overreaction.
|
objectives
|
|
|
under terrorist force protection conditions please name the force protections conditions declared whe a general threat of possible terrorist activity is driected tworad an installation , vessels or personnel, the nature of which are unpredictable and where circumstances do not justify full implimenttation of fpcon bravo
|
ALPHA
|
|
|
Terroirst __________ vary in sophistication according to the level of training the individual or group has received.
|
tactics
|
|
|
Under terrorist levels( please name the dod threat level assesment methodology ) recently demonstrated anti-us activity or stated or assessed intent to conduct such activity
|
activity
|
|
|
Who's job is it to develop, establish, and maintain all non-clinical navy training and education requirements and objectives concerning drug and alcohol abuse?
|
Commander, Navy Personnel Command
|
|
|
The original speciman bottle, with residual urine, of samples testing positive will be stored (frozen at -5 to -20 degrees C) for how long following issuance of the positive report?
|
1 year
|
|
|
_______ are filed in the member's permanent service record. _______ are not files in the member's permanent service record.
|
Drug DAAR's and Alcohol DAAR's
|
|
|
What is the Navy's policy on drug abuse?
|
Zero Tolerance
|
|
|
The urine sample bottle holds a maximum of how many milliliters?
|
100
|
|
|
What should be the ratio of dapa's and assistant DAPA's to sailors be per command?
|
1 to 200
|
|
|
What is the Navy's policy on alcohol?
|
Responsible use
|
|
|
Commands shall assign a full-time DAPA if the command has how many members?
|
1000+
|
|
|
Alcohol abuse/dependancy screening is mandatory for members who are involved in an alcohol incident if they are what rank?
|
All members regardless of rank
|
|
|
In what year was the Code of Conduct first prescribed?
|
1955
|
|
|
The Department of the Navy sets the requirements for advancement for paygrades E-1 through E-9. Which of the following is the determining factor in advancement?
|
A vacancy
|
|
|
Navy personnel are prohibited from taking part in a civil rights demonstration under which of the following circumstances?
|
• When the demonstration occurs during duty hours
• While they are in uniform • When the demonstration occurs on a military reservation |
|
|
Your performance evaluation does not reflect your attitude toward and your conduct in support of the Navy’s equal opportunity program.
|
False
|
|
|
In what year was Executive Order 12633 issued amending the Code of Conduct to use neutral-gender language?
|
1988
|
|
|
All first-term Sailors in paygrades E-1 through E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved for reenlistment through what program?
|
ENCORE
|
|
|
Which of the following persons is responsible for making equal opportunity a reality with a command?
|
Commanding officer
|
|
|
Which of the following phrases describes sexual harassment?
|
Each of the above
|
|
|
How many articles make up the Code of Conduct?
|
Six
|
|
|
If you disclose information about a person to unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount?
|
$5,000
|
|
|
Which of the following is a criteria for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment?
• Unwelcome • Sexual in nature • Occur or impact your work |
All of the above
|
|
|
When, if ever, may you voluntarily surrender to the enemy?
|
Never
|
|
|
If a Sailor takes part in insensitive practices, he/she receives counseling on treating people equally. If counseling isn’t effective, what action, if any, may take place?
|
Administrative or disciplinary action
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is a purpose of the Reenlistment Quality Control Program?
|
• To provide a personnel management program to control rating manning
• To issue reenlistment criteria • To establish standardized professional growth points |
|
|
What person has the responsibility of appointing the command ombudsman?
|
Commanding officer
|
|
|
What person directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program?
|
Chief of Naval Personnel
|
|
|
Which of the following personnel can be victims of sexual harassment?
|
Both Men and Women
|
|
|
Someone in a command position makes sexual advances towards you, making it impossible to do your job. You are being sexually harassed.
|
True
|
|
|
If you cannot resolve a complaint among the personnel involved, you can attach a written complaint to a special request chit and forward it through the chain of command. You must do this within 5 days?
|
False
|
|
|
What person determines the content and priorities of the command ombudsman program?
|
Commanding officer
|
|
|
Which of the following characteristics are traits of a good Sailor?
|
• Puts the good of the ship and the Navy above personal likes and dislikes
• Obeys the rules of military courtesy and etiquette • Demonstrates loyalty, self-control, honesty, and truthfulness |
|
|
The Code of Conduct was adopted to provide guidance for service personnel in which of the following circumstances?
|
When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
|
|
|
Which of the following are sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy?
|
• U.S. Navy Regulations
• Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy • Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) |
|
|
On what basis should supervisors assign duties such as food service and compartment cleaning?
|
A fair, rotational basis
|
|
|
The guidance and policy for making sure that equal opportunity works rests with what office?
|
Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
|
What article of the Navy Regs gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?
|
1021
|
|
|
What watch are you standing between 2000 and 2400 hours?
|
Evening watch
|
|
|
A ship’s plan for action is contained in what type of bill?
|
Battle bill
|
|
|
What type of watch do most Sailors stand?
|
Security
|
|
|
Failure to obey any regulation subjects the offender to charges under what UCMJ article?
|
92
|
|
|
You may not be ordered to active duty without the permission of which of the following persons?
|
Chief of Naval Personnel
|
|
|
During a Saturday duty day, one of your shipmates asks you to change watches with him/her. You agree but fail to get permission from proper authority. Under what article of Navy Regs could you be charged?
|
1134
|
|
|
A ship maintains a watch for which of the following reasons?
|
• Communications
• Security • Safety |
|
|
What chapter of the United States Navy Regulations describes the rights and responsibilities of all Navy members?
|
10
|
|
|
What article of the Navy Regs lists the publications that must be made available upon request by any active-duty person?
|
0818
|
|
|
Who may be assigned shore patrol duties?
|
Officers and petty officers
|
|
|
If you are told to report to your duty station at 0745 (24-hour clock), you should arrive at what time?
|
7:45 am
|
|
|
Aboard ship, the master-at-arms (MAA) force is headed by the chief master-at-arms (CMAA). The CMAA works directly for which of the following officers?
|
Executive officer
|
|
|
Navy Regs and changes to it are issued by the Secretary of the Navy after what person approves them?
|
The President
|
|
|
Navy Regulations, article 1104, Treatment and Release of Prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or unusual treatment. According to this article, prisoners must be checked on at what minimum interval?
|
4 hours
|
|
|
Qualified personnel are assigned to stations by which of the following persons?
|
Division officer and division chief
|
|
|
Discipline training develops which of the following personal traits?
|
• Character
• Efficiency • Self-control |
|
|
In areas where different armed services are located, the military police from each service may be combined to form one unit. What term identifies this unit?
|
Armed Forces Police Detachment
|
|
|
Sexual harassment is offensive and illegal. Under what article of Navy Regs may a person be charged with sexual harassment?
|
1166
|
|
|
Discipline is important to the Navy for which of the following reasons?
|
To enable personnel to function as a unit with a high degree of efficiency
|
|
|
Watches are split into port and starboard for what reason?
|
For security
|
|
|
What person is responsible for making sure that the Navy Regs conforms to the current needs of the Department of the Navy?
|
The Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
|
Navy Regs, article 1033, Authority in a Boat, provides which of the following officers the authority and responsibility over all persons embarked?
|
The senior line officer eligible for command at sea
|
|
|
Which of the following Navy Regulations articles outlines the authority of a sentry?
|
1038
|
|
|
Punishment is administered in the Navy for which of the following reasons?
|
To serve as an object lesson to the wrongdoer and others
|
|
|
Which of the following statements describes a target angle?
|
The relative bearing of your ship from another ship
|
|
|
You are required to know the general orders of a sentry. How many general orders are there?
|
11
|
|
|
Which of the following is a duty of security watches and patrols?
|
• To be alert for fire hazards
• To check the security of weapons magazines • To inspect damage control closures |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shipboard fire watch?
|
To immediately extinguish fires caused by welding or burning operations
|
|
|
Which of the following is a duty of the QMOW?
|
To maintain the ship’s deck log
|
|
|
Which of the following is a precaution to follow when standing an armed watch with a pistol?
|
When relieved, unload the pistol in a safe area
• Don’t surrender the pistol to an unauthorized person • Keep the pistol (which is loaded with one round in the chamber) in its holster unless you have to use it |
|
|
When standing a barracks security watch, which of the following is the first action to take if there is a fire?
|
Report the fire
|
|
|
For what reason does the fog lookout watch normally consist of two Sailors?
|
To allow the lookout to work without having his/her hearing impaired by wearing sound-powered phones
|
|
|
You are a member of a security patrol, and you detect a fire hazard that affects the safety of the ship. What action should you take?
|
Report it to the OOD immediately
|
|
|
Which of the following is a key assignment for officers in the watch organization?
|
• CDO
• OOD • JOOD |
|
|
Why is a lookout posted?
|
To search for objects radar can’t detect
|
|
|
Which of the following is a type of a security watch?
|
• Sentry duty
• Barracks watch • Fire watch |
|
|
Which of the following is/are types of bearings?
|
Relative, true, and magnetic
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the security watch?
|
To increase the physical security of the ship
|
|
|
The peacetime lookout organization has how many Sailors in each watch station?
|
Three
|
|
|
Which of the following is Navy phraseology for reporting a bearing of 038º?
|
Zero, tree, ate
|
|
|
When aboard ship, you should refer to what publication for the procedures used to relieve an armed watch?
|
SOP
|
|
|
What person makes sure all deck watch stations are manned with qualified personnel and all watch standers from previous watches are relieved?
|
BMOW
|
|
|
Lookouts report what type of bearing?
|
Relative
|
|
|
Sentries are governed by what two types of orders?
|
General and special
|
|
|
What type of watch is set when positive steering control must be maintained?
|
After steering
|
|
|
Where is the fog lookout watch usually stood?
|
In the bow where approaching ships can be heard
|
|
|
When standing a barracks security watch, you have which of the following responsibilities?
|
• Knowing and carrying out provisions of the fire bill
• Knowing and carrying out provisions of the emergency bill • Knowing barracks regulations |
|
|
Under which of the following conditions can deadly force be used?
|
• To prevent the escape of a murderer
• To prevent sabotage • To protect your life |
|
|
A position angle can never be more than what number of degrees?
|
90º
|
|
|
When should you use “off-center vision”?
|
When it’s dark
|
|
|
Aboard ship, there are how many categories of shipboard sound-powered phone circuits?
|
Three
|
|
|
What information is contained in an initial report?
|
The object and its bearing from the ship
|
|
|
When using the mouthpiece of a sound-powered phone set to report contacts, how far from your mouth should you position the mouthpiece?
|
1/2 to 1 inch
|
|
|
When using binoculars, what adjustments should you make?
|
Two for focus and one for proper distance between the lenses
|
|
|
Ranges are reported in what unit of measurement?
|
Yards
|
|
|
It’s important for you to remember that the mouthpiece and earpiece of sound-powered telephones are interchangeable for which of the following reasons?
|
• They can be interchanged if a piece breaks
• Undesirable noises can be fed into the system |
|
|
Which of the following statements is a rule for circuit discipline?
|
• Transmit only official messages
• Keep the button in the OFF position when not transmitting • Use only standard words and phrases |
|
|
To report serial number 23NCI16 over the sound-powered telephone circuit, you would report the serial number in what way?
|
Too, tree, november, charlie, india, wun, six
|
|
|
The headset of sound-powered telephones is picked up as a unit for which of the following reasons?
|
To avoid breaking them
|
|
|
The IVCS has which of the following components?
|
• Terminals
• Accessories • ICSCs |
|
|
What is meant by the term dark adaptation?
|
The improvement of vision in dim light
|
|
|
To keep the meaning of a message intact when standing duty as a telephone talker, what action should you take?
|
Repeat the message word for word
|
|
|
Why should you unplug a phone’s headset when it’s not in use?
|
Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit it over the circuit
|
|
|
Which of the following shipboard announcing systems is used for intership communications?
|
6MC
|
|
|
How are position angles reported?
|
Two digits, spoken as a whole
|
|
|
How long does it take for you to reach your best night vision?
|
30 minutes
|
|
|
Which of the following shipboard announcing systems is called the general announcing system?
|
1MC
|
|
|
Which of the following elements is included when taking a message?
|
• Name of caller
• Message • Time and date |
|
|
When should you use binoculars?
|
• When identifying objects at night
• When scanning sectors in the daytime |
|
|
How should you report objects that are low in the water?
|
By the object’s approximate distance
|
|
|
Which of the following sound-powered phone circuits is used as the CO’s battle circuit?
|
JA
|
|
|
Within the IVCS, what is the purpose of the ICSCs?
|
To perform switching actions
|
|
|
What category of shipboard telephone circuits is designed to maintain vital communications and are preceded by the letter X?
|
Auxiliary system
|
|
|
Which of the following shipboard announcing systems is used for hangar deck damage control?
|
58MC
|
|
|
What country was the first to recognize the “Stars and Stripes”?
|
France
|
|
|
When under way, the national ensign is normally flown from what location?
|
the gaff
|
|
|
Which of the following ships ha the distinction of being the U.S. Navy's first flagship?
|
Alfred
|
|
|
Which of the following flags are half-masted at the death of the CO?
|
National Ensign
Union Jack Commission Pennant |
|
|
Aboard ship, a man overboard is indicated by what emergency/ warning flag?
|
Oscar
|
|
|
An officer in command entitled to a personal flag is embarked in a boat on an offical mission. Where should the pennant be flown?
|
In the Bow
|
|
|
What type of ships did privateers typically sail?
|
Schooners
|
|
|
On small ships, Personnal from what watch are responsible for hoisting and hauling down absentee pennants?
|
Quarterdect watch
|
|
|
The U.S. Navy flag is flown in which of the following situations?
|
• At official ceremonies or official public gatherings when the Navy is officially a participant
• In parades • In official Navy occasions |
|
|
At various times during the Revolutionary War, the U.S. Navy had 56 vessels. What was the peak number of vessels that were operating at any one time?
|
27
|
|
|
On large ships, what person is responsible for making sure that special flags or pennants are displayed to indicate changing events aboard ship?
|
Duty signalman
|
|
|
Where is a list of special flags and pennants normally posted as a ready reference for watch standers?
|
Quarterdeck area
|
|
|
Which of the following were naval vessels in the early 19th century?
|
• Frigates
• Sloops of war • Ships of the line |
|
|
Which of the following statements defines the term “colors”?
|
Colors consist of our national ensign along with the union jack
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the 20MC announcing system?
|
Combat information announcing system
|
|
|
John Paul Jones is often referred to as the “father of our highest naval traditions” because of the example he set as an officer during the Revolutionary War. He is also famous because of which of the following accomplishments?
|
His victory over the HMS Serapis
|
|
|
When a naval ship is in port or at anchor, the union jack is flown from what location?
|
The jackstaff
|
|
|
What category of ship carried the largest number of guns?
|
Ships of the line
|
|
|
Which of the following types of flags and pennants is/are used by the Navy?
|
• Substitute flags
• Numeral pennants • International alphabet flags |
|
|
What administrative flag is used to recall all personnel to the ship?
|
Papa
|
|
|
The Second Continental Congress approved the purchase of how many vessels?
|
Two
|
|
|
What administrative flag is flown in port to indicate the ship has ready duty?
|
Romeo
|
|
|
What date commemorates the birthday of the United States Navy?
|
13 Oct 1775
|
|
|
Which of the following persons is authorized to pass calls over the 1MC?
|
• OOD
• XO • CO |
|
|
What ship was the first warfare submarine?
|
Turtle
|
|
|
Commanders, CO’s, and OIC’s shall submit the initial Drug Alcohol and Abuse Report within how many days of the referral or incident?
|
30 days
|
|
|
Commands are strongly encouraged to assign a full time DAPA but are not required too if the command has how many members?
|
500+
|
|
|
DAPA’s and assistant DAPA’s are required to successfully complete the DAPA course within how many days of assuming duty unless they have completed the course within the previous 3 years.
|
90 days
|
|
|
Who shall not be appointed as the Urinalysis Program Coordinator (UPC)?
|
DAPAs and Independent Duty Corpsmen (IDC)
|
|
|
To insure 100 percent of Navy personnel are tested annually, commands shall perform what action?
|
Conduct an end of fiscal year unit sweep of all individuals not tested in the course of the year
|
|
|
The DAPA is the command’s primary advisor for alcohol and drug matters and reports directly to whom?
|
The CO or XO
|
|
|
Any enlisted person determined to be alcohol dependent within how many days of entry into active duty may be processed for administrative separation as a “Defective and Fraudulent Enlistment”
|
180 days
|
|
|
Who shall provide drug and alcohol abuse education for enlisted recruits, Senior Enlisted Academy, and officer candidates?
|
Chief of Naval Education and Training (CNET)
|
|
|
Who should be appointed as the Urinalysis Program Coordinator (UPC)?
|
E-7 or above
|
|
|
Other than the minimum one annual unit sweep, submissions in excess of what percentage of assigned personnel in any given month requires Echelon 3 prior approval?
|
40 percent
|
|
|
The DAPA and assistant DAPA’s shall not have had an alcohol incident within how many years prior to appointment?
|
2 years
|
|
|
What is the minimum volume sample that the Urinalysis Program Coordinator can accept from a service member participating in urinalysis?
|
30 milliliters
|
|
|
Testing is mandatory for all personnel upon confinement to the brig, and how often thereafter to detect the presence of any drugs in the controlled areas?
|
Bimonthly
|
|
|
The ADAMS facilitator training is a 5-day course followed by a certification process. Candidates must be of what paygrade?
|
E-6 and above or O-3 and above
|
|
|
Navy personnel who are members of Native American (Indian) Tribes shall be allowed to use the Peyote Cactus drug as a religious sacrament in connection with the bona fide practice of a traditional religion.
|
True
|
|
|
All students will undergo urinalysis within what time frame of reporting to apprentice training and “A” schools or the first module of other training subsequent to completion of recruit training?
|
2 Weeks
|
|
|
A member is ineligible to participate in the self-referral program until the results of his/her current urinalysis have been received by the command and any potential disciplinary or administrative actions have been initiated.
|
True
|
|
|
Entry level education to Drug and Alcohol awareness shall be completed before commissioning or within how many days after entry on active duty?
|
90 days
|
|
|
What provides the best results for a Urinalysis?
|
Random urinalysis sampling of small numbers of personnel on a frequent basis
|
|
|
The Primary DAPA should be what pay-grade?
|
E-7 or above
|
|
|
After a urinalysis every effort should be made to mail the specimens to the NAVDRUGLAB within what time frame?
|
Same day
|
|
|
Members diagnosed as drug dependent will be offered treatment prior to separation.
|
True
|
|
|
Members who have successfully completed treatment for alcohol abuse/dependence shall have achieved how many years of sobriety prior to appointment as DAPA?
|
2 years
|
|
|
CO’s may appoint how many DAPA’s and assistant DAPA’s at their command?
|
As many as they deem necessary
|
|
|
DAPA’s shall not be assigned duties as what?
|
Urinalysis Program Coordinators (UPC)
|
|
|
What are the preferred methods/procedures of addressing potential or suspected abuse?
|
Command-referral and self-referral
|
|
|
How long must the DAPA have remaining at the command in order to be appointed?
|
1 year
|
|
|
Who is responsible for the Navy Drug and Alcohol Abuse Program policy?
|
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
|
What percentage of assigned personnel should be tested monthly?
|
10 to 20 percent
|
|
|
The Urinalysis Program Coordinator should ship urine specimens in which shipping container?
|
12 bottle shipping container
|
|
|
Commands shall submit at a minimum how many unit sweeps per year that includes all assigned personnel?
|
One
|
|
|
The Assistant DAPA should be what pay-grade?
|
E-5 or above
|
|
|
What is entered in EVAL block 41 and FITREP block 40 (career recommendations) if none?
|
Either “NA” or “None” do not leave blank
|
|
|
What is the maximum combined percent of summary group for early promote and must promote for E-7 to E-9?
|
50 percent
|
|
|
What is entered in block 44 (qualifications/achievements)?
|
Only completed, not anticipated achievements
|
|
|
Normally, who is the counselor for E1-E4 personnel?
|
The rater E6 or above, who is usually the division, department, or work center LPO
|
|
|
What percentage of each summary group rounded up to the nearest whole number excluding non-Limited Duty Officers O1/O2 can be Early Promotes?
|
20 percent
|
|
|
The reporting senior must retain copies of FITREPs on all officers and CHIEFEVALs on all CPOs for at least ___ years. The command must retain copies of enlisted EVALs and CHIEFEVALS for ___ years.
|
5/2
|
|
|
What is indicated by a mark of 4.0 in block 39?
|
An above average contribution towards achieving goals
|
|
|
Regular reports, including letter-extensions, may not cover more than how many months without NAVPERSCOM approval?
|
15 months
|
|
|
Which performance trait grade represents performance to full Navy standards?
|
3.0
|
|
|
What copies of a report may block 27 (SSN) not contain a reporting seniors SSN?
|
Members copy, enlisted field service record copy and the command files.
|
