Male Reproductive Disorders

Front 1

With aging, the glandular tissue units in the prostate go through ________ (increase in # of cells)

Back 1

Hyperplasia

Front 2

Since tissue undergo hyperplasia, it results in prostatic _________ (enlargement)

Back 2

hYPERTROPHY

Front 3

The correct term for increasing # of cells that enlarge

Back 3

Benign Prostate Hyperplasia/Hypertrophy

Front 4

Hyperplasia describes the ______ process

Back 4

patholgic

Front 5

When the prostate gland enlarges it extends _____ into the bladder and ____ narrowing the prostatic urethreal channel

Back 5

Upward and Inward

Front 6

When the prostate enlarges, it ______ urine outflow by encroaching on the bladder opening

Back 6

Obstruct/blocks

Front 7

The bladder may become hyperirritable which causes _____ and ______

Back 7

Urgency and frequency

Front 8

Since the ______ in the bladder wall hypertrophy , they may develop cellules and diverticula

Back 8

Muscles

Front 9

Hydroureter and hydronephorsis

Complications of prostate enlargement

Back 9

Dilation of the ureters and kidneys

Front 10

S&S of obstruction of bladder neck caused by BPH

Back 10

Retention
Incomplete bladder emptying
Overflow Urinary Incontinece

Front 11

Urinary stasis can result in a __________

Back 11

UTI

Front 12

Cause of BPH is ________

Back 12

Unknown

Front 13

BPH affects men over ____ years of age

Back 13

40

Front 14

LUTS stands for

Back 14

Lower urinary tract symptoms

Front 15

S&S of _____ include:
Nocturia
Frequency
Hesistancy
Intermittency
Reduced force and size of stream
Incomplete bladder feeling
Postvoid dribbling

Back 15

LUTS

Front 16

If frequency and nocturia are not accompained symptoms, an _____ is considered the cause

Back 16

Infection

Front 17

Hematuria

Back 17

Blood in urine

Front 18

Before doing an assessment, always have the male _____ before

Back 18

Void

Front 19

If the client has a sense of urgency when pressure is applied to the bladder are the bladder may be _______

Back 19

Distended

Front 20

The patient may have the urge to ____ as the prostate is palpated

Back 20

Urinate

Front 21

When performing a prostate exam, you should also do a ______ becuase the prostate is close to the rectal wall

Back 21

DRE

Front 22

Position for exam is the

Back 22

Side lying Fetal position

Front 23

____ presents as a uniform, elastic, nontender enlargement

Back 23

BPH

Front 24

______ uually presents as a stony-hard nodule

Back 24

Cancer of the prostate

Front 25

You milk the prostate after exam to r/o __________

Back 25

prostitis

Front 26

Blood work consists of these 3 tests for BPH

Back 26

CBC
BUN
PSA

Front 27

A CBC evaluates any evidence of _______ (elevated WBC) or _____(decreased) RBC

Back 27

Infection
Anemia

Front 28

BUN is done to evaluate _____ function

Back 28

Renal

Front 29

PSA is a measurement if prostate ____ is suspected

Back 29

Cancer

Front 30

KUB xrays are of the

Back 30

Kidneys, ureters and bladder

Front 31

IV Urography is useful in studying both the structure and the function of the _____ tract

Back 31

Urinary

Front 32

Flowmetry

Back 32

Flow rate analysis

Front 33

Flow rate analysis is the way of assessing the activity of the bladdder and the outlet during the ______ phase of micturibition

Back 33

Emptying

Front 34

A cystourethroscope exam is used to study the presence and effect of bladder neck _____

Back 34

Obstruction

Front 35

Residual urine may be determined by a bladder scan immediately after the client ______

Back 35

Voids

Front 36

Because the pt always voids before cystourethroscopy, _____ urine can be measured at that time.

Back 36

Residual

Front 37

In cases where clients are not yet bothered by the symptoms of BPH, "______ _____" may be apprioriate

Back 37

Watchful waiting

Front 38

A man will be examined every ____ to determine whether the BPH is causing urinary difficulties

Back 38

year

Front 39

Finasteride (Proscar) is prescribed for someone with BPH becuase it shrinks the prostate gland and ____ urine flow

Back 39

Improves

Front 40

Finasteride _____ the level of Dishydrotestosterone, which is a major cause of prostate growth

Back 40

Lowers

Front 41

Finasteride may need to be taken for up to ____ months before improvement may be noted

Back 41

6

Front 42

Side effects of Finasteride include:

Back 42

Erectal Dysfunction
Decreased Libido

Front 43

These drugs are examples of _______-_______ agents:
Terazosin (Hytrin)
Doxazosin (Cardura)
Tamsulosin (Flomax)

Back 43

Alpha Blocking

Front 44

When these meds are given. the prostate gland constricts, thereby reducing urethrual pressure and improving urine flow.

Back 44

Alpha Blocking

Front 45

Saw Palmetto extrct and lycopene have been used to manage _____

Back 45

BPH

Front 46

Non-surgical measure that reduce _____ symptoms include:
Prostatic Massage
Frequent Sexual Intercourse
Masturbation

Back 46

Obstructive

Front 47

These measures are aimed at preventing _________ of the bladder, which results in loss of muscle tone:
Avoid drinking large amounts of fluid in short time
Avoid drinking alcohol, diuretics and caffeine
Void as soon as urge felt

Back 47

Overdistension

Front 48

These drugs cause _____ ______:
AntiCholinergics
Antihistamines
Decongestants

Back 48

Urinary Retention

Front 49

Acuter urinary retention
Chronic UTI
Hematuria
Hydronephrosis
Bladder neck obstruction symptoms that bother client

These are when ______ intervention is needed

Back 49

SX

Front 50

Goal of surgical intervention are to relieve the sypmtoms of bladder neck obstruction and to _____ quality of life

Back 50

Improve

Front 51

After prostate sx, all pts will have an indwelling cath for at least ____ day

Back 51

1

Front 52

The client may have a CBI and traction on the cath, but this is unknown till after cl returns from _____

Back 52

PACU

Front 53

____ blood clots and _____ debris may pass while the catheter is in place and immediately after removed

Back 53

Small
Tissue

Front 54

A transurethral thermotherapy uses ______ thermotheraphy

Back 54

Microwave

Front 55

Tansurethral needle ablation B uses low level _____ frequency energy
TUNA procedure

Back 55

Radio

Front 56

Visual lasrer ablation uses _____ energy

Back 56

Lasar

Front 57

Electrovaporization use electro_____ of the prostate

Back 57

Electrocautery

Front 58

These past 4 procedures are minimially invasive and are used because there is less _____ after sx and the client can be discharged within 24 hours w/retention cath

Back 58

Bleeding

Front 59

The patient needs to know that delayed _____ and urinary rentention may occur days to weeks after the electrovaporization procedure

Back 59

Hemoturia

Front 60

The TURP procedure is a closed procedure while an open proceudre will be required for Prostate _____

Back 60

removal

Front 61

Surgeon inserts a resectoscope through the urethra and the enlarges portion of the prostate gland is resected in small pieces

Back 61

TURP prcedure

Front 62

A TURP is done when the area of major enlargement is in the ____ lobe of the prostate that directly surrounds the urethra and when the amount of tissue to be removed is small

Back 62

Medial

Front 63

TURP is safer for pt who is at high risk for ____SX becuase a surgical incision is not used

Back 63

Open

Front 64

Disadvantage of TURP is only a small pieces of the gland is removed leaving remaining leaving prostate tissue to grow and cause urinary _________ cause need for additional TURPS

Back 64

Obstruction

Front 65

There is a risk for _____ trauma from the resectoscope which could result in strictures

Back 65

Urethral

Front 66

A __________ is used when the prostate is larger than can be removed transurethrally and if the client has any other bladder problems that can be treated at the same time.

Back 66

Suprapubic Prostatectomy

Front 67

For a suprapubic prostatectomy, the surgeon approaches the prostate gland through an incision in the urinary _____ and uses the finger to remove the BPH tissue

Back 67

Bladder

Front 68

The ability to treat bladder ______ is the major advantage of suprapubic prostatectomy

Back 68

problems

Front 69

These are _______ of SPP:
Abdominal incision and bladder incision necessary
Has suprapubic tube in place after sx
Increased risk for UTI, incontinece, bladder spasms and hemorrhage
More Painful
Longer recovery than TURP

Back 69

Disadvantages

Front 70

A ________ prostatectomy is when the prostate is too large to resected via transurethrual aprroach but no co-existing bladder problems have been identified.

Back 70

Retropubic

Front 71

In the retro pubic prstatectomy the surgeon removes the BPH tissue directly through an ______ incision

Back 71

Abdominal

Front 72

A _________ prostatectomy is performed to:
remove enlarged prostate w/ stones
treatment of prostatic abscess that have not responded to conservative treatment
Repair complication that occur during other sx
Treatment of pts who are poor surgical risks

Back 72

Perineal

Front 73

In a perineal prostatectomy the surgeon makes an incision between the scrotum and _____ and removes the BPH tissue

Back 73

Rectum

Front 74

A perineal prostatectomy provides _____ acess to the prostate gland

Back 74

Direct

Front 75

Major disadvantage of this procedure is the loss of _____ potency resulting from damage to the pudendal nerve

Back 75

Sexual

Front 76

Pts who have PVD or pulmonary problems cannot tolerate the _______ position and are not candiates for a perineal prostatectomy

Back 76

Lithtomy

Front 77

Major disadvantages to a _______ prostatectomy approach is:
greater risk for infection
damage to rectum and anall schpinter
Urinary incontinece

Back 77

Perineal

Front 78

After a _____ the surgeon inserts a 3-way cath w/30-45ml retention ballon through the urethra into the bladder.

Back 78

TURP

Front 79

_____ is often applied to the cath by pulling it taut and taping it to the clients abdomen or thigh

Back 79

Traction

Front 80

The patient needs to keep there ____ straight when they have 3 way cath

Back 80

Leg

Front 81

After CBI and cath is removed, instruct client to increase fluid intake to at least _____-____ml daily

Back 81

2000-2500

Front 82

A CBI is usually discontinued after ____ hours

Back 82

24

Front 83

Burning on urination, frequency, dribbling and leakage is ______ after a TURP

Back 83

Normal

Front 84

Urinary drainage that is bright red or ketchup like with numerous clots

Back 84

Arterial Bleeding

Front 85

f the patient has ______ bleeding, increase the CBI and notify surgeon immediately

Back 85

Arterial

Front 86

Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is adminstered to _____ bleeding

Back 86

Control

Front 87

Urine output is burgundy with or without any change in vital signs.

Back 87

Venous

Front 88

Traction may need to be applied for a few hours if _____ bleeding is noted

Back 88

Venous

Front 89

Traction on the catheter is quite uncomfortable and it increases the risk for bladder _____

Back 89

spasms

Front 90

Analgesics or antispasmatics such as:
Dicyclomine Hydrochloride (Bentyl, Antispas, Formulex, Lomine)
Oxybutin (Ditropan)
Bellasonna and Opium Supp.
are usually prescribed to decrease painful _______ _____

Back 90

Bladder Spasms

Front 91

In the retro pubic prstatectomy the surgeon removes the BPH tissue directly through an ______ incision

Back 91

Abdominal

Front 92

A _________ prostatectomy is performed to:
remove enlarged prostate w/ stones
treatment of prostatic abscess that have not responded to conservative treatment
Repair complication that occur during other sx
Treatment of pts who are poor surgical risks

Back 92

Perineal

Front 93

In a perineal prostatectomy the surgeon makes an incision between the scrotum and _____ and removes the BPH tissue

Back 93

Rectum

Front 94

A perineal prostatectomy provides _____ acess to the prostate gland

Back 94

Direct

Front 95

Major disadvantage of this procedure is the loss of _____ potency resulting from damage to the pudendal nerve

Back 95

Sexual

Front 96

Always monitor the patients _____ for anemia as a result of blood loss

Back 96

H&H

Front 97

Pt may be discharged after a suprapubic prostatectomy with a suprapubic ______ in place

Back 97

Suprapubic

Front 98

When the pt consistenly empties the bladder and the residual urine in the bladder is ___ml or less, the suprapubic cath is removed

Back 98

75

Front 99

Pt after suprapubic prostatectomy is at risk for bladder _______

Back 99

spasms

Front 100

Check incision dressing ___ per shift and change it frequently due to dressing becoming saturated with urine until incision heals

Back 100

twice

Front 101

There should be no _____ damage after a retropubic prostatectomy because enterance is not through there

Back 101

Bladder

Front 102

Lymph Nodes
Bone Marrow
Bones of pelvis, sacrum, and l-spine
***SLOW_GROWING***

Back 102

The most common sites for metastis of prostate cancer

Front 103

Advancing ____ of the pt increases risk for prostate cancer

Back 103

Age

Front 104

1 in 6 men after the ages of ____ and ____

Back 104

60-79

Front 105

Cancer is usually arises in the perihphery of the ____, while BPH occurs in the center

Back 105

Gland

Front 106

Blacks need to get screenings for Pros. Cx starting at age ____

Back 106

45

Front 107

First symptoms to prostate cancer are the same as the symptoms of ____

Back 107

BPH

Front 108

More advanced stages of prostate cancer include ____ pain, urinary hesitency and back pain

Back 108

Bone

Front 109

Beginning at age ___ men should have a DRE and PSA

Back 109

50

Front 110

Normal PSA level is less than ___ng/ml

Back 110

4ng/mL

Front 111

Increased ____ are signs of increased prostatic tissues, prostatic infacrtion, prostatitis...while levels associated with prostate cancer are much higher

Back 111

PSA

Front 112

The ____ and ____ are always used in conjunction with one another

Back 112

PSA and DRE

Front 113

The PSA is ___ elevated in healthy men with cancer in other organs

Back 113

not

Front 114

An increase in the PSA level several weeks after sx indicates the disease has _____

Back 114

reoccured

Front 115

Urologist inserts a small probe into rectum and obtains an ultrasonogram of the prostate

Back 115

Transrectal Ultrasound

Front 116

Possible complications of a _____ include:
Hematuria w/ clots
S&S of infection
Perineal Pain

Back 116

Biopsy

Front 117

_____ are usually prescribed after a biopsy

Back 117

Antibotics

Front 118

The pt should avoid strenous activity and drink plenty of fluids especially in the first ____ hours after the procedure

Back 118

24

Front 119

After Dx of prostate cancer, the pt undergoes radiographic and blood studies to ascertin the ____ of the disease including:
Ct or MRI
Bone Scan
Serum Acid Phosphatase elevation
Serum alkaline phosphatase elevation

Back 119

Extent

Front 120

Urodynamic Studies are important for BPH because it checks for _____ urine

Back 120

Residual

Front 121

During the watchful waiting period, pts are monitored at regular intervals through ___ and ___ testing

Back 121

DRE and PSA

Front 122

_____ treatment options for pts w/ prostate cx include sx, radiation therapy and drug therapy

Back 122

Active

Front 123

When sx management is needed for someone with prostate cx, a ____ prostatectomy is performed

Back 123

Radical

Front 124

Undergoing a radical perineal prostatectomy may cause _________ after sx. Urinary ________ is another possible consequence

Back 124

Erectile Dysfunction

Incontience

Front 125

_____ exercises are very important, and should be done before and after sx

Back 125

Kegel

Front 126

_____ cleansing is standard before procedure

Back 126

Bowel

Front 127

The patient can have a clear liquid diet the day _____ sx, and NPO after midnight.

Back 127

before

Front 128

Removal of prostate gland, prostatic capsule, cuff at the bladder neck, seminal vesciles and regional lymph nodes

Back 128

Radical Prostatectomy

Front 129

The patient is ____ after this procedure and it causes retrograde ejaculations (goes up into bladder)

Back 129

Sterile

Front 130

Pt may expierence temporary ED, but normal function usually returns in ___ to ___ months

Back 130

3-12

Front 131

After a radical prostatectomy, the patient is to remain on bedrest on the ___ of sx, but help the pt get out of bed and ambulate for short distances by ____ post-op day

Back 131

Day
First

Front 132

A ____ is used for pain control throught the 2nd post-op day

Back 132

PCA

Front 133

CLient may have a NGT, and is usually discontinued on 2nd day after sc. Then the client is permitted ____ liquids. Solid foods are introduced as tolerated when bowel sounds return

Back 133

Clear

Front 134

If scrotal or penile swelling occurs, ______ scrotum and penis and apply ice to area 20 mins on 20 mins off for 1st 24-48 hours

Back 134

Elevate

Front 135

A surgical intervention for urinary incontinece is surgical placement of an artificial urinary ________

Back 135

sphincter

Front 136

An artifical urinary sphincter is a fluid filled system with a silicone cuff that surrounds the ____ and functions as a urinary sphincter. A pump is placed in the scrotum, and when squeezed, fluid leaves the cuff and flows into the reservoir allowing client to empty bladder

Back 136

Urethra

Front 137

Minimally invasive procedure that can be an alternate to radical prostatectomy

Back 137

Cryoablation

Front 138

Cryoablation can only be done to someone whose cancer is _____ to the prostate gland

Back 138

Confined

Front 139

When doing Cryoablation, liquid nitrogen ____ the prostate gland and results in cell death, and the dead cells are then absorbed by the body

Back 139

Freezes

Front 140

Removal of both testes

Back 140

Bilateral Orchiectomy

Front 141

Intent of doing a bilateral orchiectomy is to arrest the cancer spread by removing ________

Back 141

testosterone

Front 142

External beam radiation therapy used for treamtnet of prostate cx as:
An alternative curative treatment to sx for locally contained tumors
As adjunct to radial prostatectomy when sx margins or regional lymph nodes show cx cells after sx
For palliation of pts symptoms

Back 142

Radiation Therapy

Front 143

Prostate cancer is ____ dependent, so those with extensive tumors or metatasis are usually managed by androgen deprivation

Back 143

Hormonal

Front 144

______ such as DES inhibit the release of luteinizing hormone from the pituaritary gland

Back 144

Estrogens

Front 145

Leuprolide Acetate (_____) is a GnRH agonist which reduces serum testerone levels w/out any estrogenic side effects

Back 145

Lupron

Front 146

Flutamide (Eulexin, Euflex) are an ____androgen-blocking agent which inhibits tumor progression by blocking the uptake of testicular and adrenal androgens at the prostate tumor site.

Back 146

Oral

Front 147

Goserelin Acetate (Aoladex) is a potent GnRh agonist analgue which may be prescribed for palliation of ______ prostatic carcinoma

Back 147

advanced

Front 148

Zoladex is an alternative treatment when _________ or estrogen adminstration is not acceptable or not indictated for the client

Back 148

Orchiectomy

Front 149

________ is used for clients who fail to respond to hormonal manipulation

Back 149

Chemotherapy

Front 150

Agents used in _____ therapy are either antibodies that "target" cellular element of the cancer cell or "antisense" drugs that work at the gene level

Back 150

Targeted

Front 151

Bortezomib (Velcade) is a targeted therapy which is a protesome _______

Back 151

inhibitor

Front 152

No lifting more than 15pds for up to ___ weeks post-radial prostectomy. Running or jumping should be avoid for at least ___ weeks, then gradually introduced

Back 152

6
12

Front 153

After RP sx instruct pt not to strain when _____, and make sure a stool softener is prescribed. Encourage increased fluids

Back 153

Defecate

Front 154

Pt can shower rather than soak in a bath for ___ to ___ weeks post RP

Back 154

2-3 weeks

Front 155

After RP, PSA and blood tests are taken ___ weeks after sx, then every 4-6 months

Back 155

6 weeks

Front 156

The pt needs to gently wash the first ___ inches of the cath starting at the penis and washing outward with mild soap and water and dry it well

Back 156

6 inches

Front 157

The drainage bag needs to be cleaned every _____

Back 157

week

Front 158

clean the drainage back with one part vinager 2 parts waters through the ____ and bag. Rinse well and allow to dry

Back 158

Tubing

Front 159

The cath must be in for at least ___ weeks post sx

Back 159

3 weeks

Front 160

Chemotherapy does not ____ the cancer, it prolongs the life

Back 160

Cure

Front 161

2 classes of ____:
Organic
Functional

Back 161

ED

Front 162

_____ ED is the gradual deterioriation of function

Back 162

Organic

Front 163

_______ of organic deteroation include:
Pelvic FX
Prostatisis
Sx procedures
Lspine injuries
Vascular Dx
Smoking, drug and alcohol

Back 163

Causes

Front 164

Organic ED causes dimishing ______ and a decrease in frequency of erections

Back 164

Firmness

Front 165

If pt has episodes of ED it is usually _______ cause

Back 165

Functional (psychological)

Front 166

Men with functional ED have normal nighttime and morning _______

Back 166

Erections

Front 167

Onset of functional ED is sudden and preceded by a period of high ______

Back 167

Stress

Front 168

If a pt has functional ED, they should be sent to a sex _______

Back 168

Therapist

Front 169

Methods of treatment for ED include:
Oral Drugs
Vacuum Devices
Intracorporal ________
Intraurethral applications
Prosthese`

Back 169

Injections

Front 170

Druges for ED work by causing ______ of smooth muscles in the corpora cavernosa so blood flow to the penis is increased.

Back 170

Relaxed

Front 171

Penile Tumescence

Back 171

Swelling

Front 172

For Viagra or Levitra to work, sexual ___________is needed w/in a half hour to 1 hour to promote erection

Back 172

Stimulation

Front 173

W/ Cialis (Tadalafil), erection can be stimulated over a ______ period

Back 173

longer

Front 174

If more than ___ pill is taken, leg and back cramps, nausea and vomiting may occur.

Back 174

1

Front 175

Men who take nitrates should not take drug therapy for ED because the vasodilation effects cause a profound __________ and reduce blood flow to vital organs

Back 175

Hypotension

Front 176

If using a vaccum device, the ____ should be removed after 1 hour or tissue damage will occur

Back 176

Ring

Front 177

Intracorporal injections are injected into the side of the penis using a ___ ot ___ gauge needle.

Back 177

27-30

Front 178

Priapism

Back 178

prolonged erection

Front 179

Side effects of _______ injections are:
Priapism
Penile Scarring
Fibrosis
Bleeding
Brusing, Pain
Infection

Back 179

Intracorpal

Front 180

An example of an Intraurethral application is Prostadil (Musel) which is a self-adminstred _________ that is placed into the urethra with an applicater

Back 180

Suppository

Front 181

Intraurethral applications work in about 10 minutes and the erection last for ___ to ___ minutes

Back 181

30-60

Front 182

If a pt has discomfort after giving an intraurethral application, the man should ____ the penis between the hands

Back 182

Rub

Front 183

Most common prostheses for a man is the 3-piece _______ device which a reservoir is placed into the scrotum and tubes carry the fluid to the inflatable pieces of the penis

Back 183

Inflatable

Front 184

Testicular cancer is most common maligancy in men ___ to ____ years of age

Back 184

15-35

Front 185

If a man has testicular cx, there is a risk for ______ dysfunction:
Oliospermia, azoospermia

Back 185

Sexual

Front 186

The man needs to do sperm _____ asap before treatment of testicular cancer

Back 186

Storage

Front 187

Sx management for testicular cancer includes:
Unilateral __________
Radical retropertioneal lymph node dissection

Back 187

Orchiectomy

Front 188

Non-sx management of testicular cancer include:
_______
_______
Stem Cell Transplantation

Back 188

Chemo
Radiation

Front 189

Gynecomastia

Back 189

Breast enlargement in men

Front 190

Cryptorchidism

Back 190

Undescended testes

Front 191

Common tumor markers for testicular cx are _____ and ____

Back 191

AFP and hCG

Front 192

Elevated levels of hCG and AFP should ____ after sx. If the remain the same this is evidence for metastatic dx even if x-rays or scans do not show tumor prescence

Back 192

Resolve

Front 193

Oligospermia

Back 193

Low sperm count

Front 194

Azoospermia

Back 194

abscene of living sperm

Front 195

Oligospermia and azoospermia is a problem thought to be related to higher testicular ______ created by cancer cell metabolism

Back 195

Tempuratures

Front 196

Radical retroperitoneal lymph node dissections are long operations lasting from ___ to ____ hours

Back 196

6-12

Front 197

Sperm count after radiation therapy returns to pretreatment levels within ___-____ months after radiation treatment is completed.

Back 197

24-30

Front 198

Sutures are removed ____ to ____ days after sx at drs office
****NO DISCHARGE DRESSING REQUIRED!***

Back 198

7-10

Front 199

Pt can resume most of his usual activities w/in ____ week after discharge, EXCEPT FOR lifting heavy objects or stair climbing.

Back 199

1 week

Front 200

Routine follow up for for pts after testicular sx is Urinary and serum levels, CT scan and MRI for ____ years

Back 200

3

Front 201

Fluid around the testicle. A cystic mass filled with straw colored fluid around the testes

Back 201

Hydrocele

Front 202

Self-contained cystic mass on epididymis, which contains sperm. The cause of this is trauma, infection, congenital abnormalities...or nothing at all

Back 202

Spermatocele

Front 203

Dilated Veins behind and above the testes. It may be unilateral or bilateral and can cause infertility

Back 203

Varicocele

Front 204

Twisted spermatic cord and blood vessels. Often occurs during puberty and ***PAIN IS NOT RELEVED W/ ELEVATION!!***

Back 204

Torsion

Front 205

For a hyrdocele, No _________ is necessary unles swelling becomes large and uncomfortable or begins to impair blood flow to the testes

Back 205

Treatment

Front 206

Ahydrocele can be drained via a _____ or it can be removed surgically

Back 206

Needle

Front 207

Scrotal Support keeps the scrotal dressing in place and keeps the scrotum _____, which helps prevent edema

Back 207

Elevated

Front 208

The scrotum can stay around for several _______

Back 208

weeks

Front 209

After hydrocele sx, pt is to stay off his feet for ___ to ____ days and to limit physical activity for a week

Back 209

3-5

Front 210

If a spermatocele becomes large enough to cause discomfort, a ________________ is performed

Back 210

Spermatocelectomy

Front 211

Varicocele are usually found when a man does the ______ manever

Back 211

Valsalva

Front 212

The varicocele feels "wormlike" when ________

Back 212

palpated

Front 213

Varicoceles can cause infertility beause they increase scrotal _______ from the venous stasis near the testis, altering spermatogenesis

Back 213

Tempurature

Front 214

Varicocelectomy

Back 214

Sx removal of a varicocele

Front 215

After a varicocelectomy, a pt needs to promote drainage by placing a rolled _____ under the scrotum while client is in bed, and apply ice as needed.

Back 215

Towel

Front 216

After having a varicocelectomy, you can have sex within a _____

Back 216

week

Front 217

Scrotal Torsion is a medical ________ and needs to be taken care of within 24 hours

Back 217

EMERGENCY

Front 218

S&S of scrotal _______ include:
nausea and vomiting
red, swollen testicular burning
abdominal pain

Back 218

Torsion

Front 219

Scrotal torsion usually happens to _____ men due to increasing age causing adhesions to the walls of the scrotum

Back 219

Younger

Front 220

After sx fixation of S. Torsion, the patient will need to wear scrotal support for ___ weeks

Back 220

3

Front 221

A _______ needs to be done to make sure that there is an abscene of blood flow through the twisted testicle. If not, epidymitis may be the cause

Back 221

Doppler

Front 222

Orchidopexy

Back 222

Sx placement of testicle into scrotum

Front 223

Penile Cancer occurs on the ____ or glans and when the cancer is confined to the skin of the penis, it is called carcinoma in situ.

Back 223

Foreskin

Front 224

Penile Cancer presents a a painless, _____ or reddened _______ on the glans under the foreskin.

Back 224

Wart
Lesion

Front 225

Penectomy

Back 225

partial or total removal of the penis

Front 226

HPV, HIV, Phimosis, non-circumsized men all have an ____ risk for penile cancer

Back 226

Increased

Front 227

Education for penile cancer is how to ____ the penis correctly

Back 227

clean

Front 228

1st symptoms of _____ cancer are:
Changes in color of skin
Thickening of skin

Back 228

Penile

Front 229

If a pt gets a total penectomy, they will have a urinary diversion, and they can no longer _____ standing up...no sex either

Back 229

Void

Front 230

Inflammation of the testes from trauma or infection such as TB, syphillis or mumps.

Back 230

Orchitis

Front 231

Scrotal Pain
Dysuria
Edema
Pain with ejulation
Heavy feeling in testes
Discharge
These are all symptoms of

Back 231

Orchitis

Front 232

Management for Orchitis includes:
Bed Rest
Elevation
Ice
Medications (_______ and ________)

Back 232

Analgesics and Antibotics

Front 233

Inflammation of the epididymis resulting for infection (bacterial or sexual transmitted) or trauma.

Back 233

Epididymitis

Front 234

Pts with epididymitis have pain along the inguinal canal and vas deferens and also pain and _____ in scrotum and groin

Back 234

Swelling

Front 235

Most common cause of epididymitis is a _________ infection!!!

Back 235

bacterial

Front 236

Management of epididymitis is _____ elevated onn towels which prevents traction of cord

Back 236

Scrotum

Front 237

What medications help with epididymitis?

Back 237

Antibotics and NSAIDS

Front 238

In men younger than 35 years of age, #1 reason for epididymitis is ________

Back 238

Chlyamdia

Front 239

the pt needs to be educated on the importance of taking barbiturate ______ medications for several nights post-op penile sx, to suppress the REM phase of sleep so that normal nocturnal erections do not occur

Back 239

Sleeping

Front 240

a pronlonged erection which is uncontrolled, painful and without sexual desire

Back 240

Priapism

Front 241

Thrombosis of veins
Leukemia
Sickle Cell
Drugs
Diabetes
Maligancies
All can cause ________

Back 241

Priapism

Front 242

Priapism is an urologic ___________ because the circulation to the penis may be comprimsied and the goal may not be able to void with an erect penis

Back 242

Emergency

Front 243

________ measures for priapism include:
Prostatic massage
Sedation
Bed Rest
****Demerol and Warm enemas may also be given to increase the outflow of the trapped blood***

Back 243

Conservative

Front 244

If treatment is not received within ____ hours for priapism, ischemia, gangrene, permanent erectal dysfunction may occur

Back 244

24

Front 245

Breast Cancer in men are found as hard, non-_______ masses

Back 245

painful

Front 246

75% of people dx w/ breast cancer have _____ discharge

Back 246

Nipple

Front 247

Gynecomastia is a condition where a man grows female like breasts, and it is commonly caused from ______ Cancer

Back 247

Lung

Front 248

Prepuce is constricted and cannot be retracted over the glans and the prepuce remains down, around the tip of the penis

Back 248

Phimosis

Front 249

Prepuce has not returned to normal position after being retracted and it forms a constricting band around the glans

Back 249

Paraphimosis

Front 250

Men that get these disorders usually have one of these things:
Only _________ males!!!!!!!
Infection
Vigouris Sexual Intercourse
Piercing
Foreskin not commoning back

Back 250

Uncircumsized

Front 251

Paraphimosis is a _________ requiring immediate treatment due to the blood flow being impeeded possibly causing tissue death.

Back 251

Emergency

Front 252

Phimosis is corrected by ________

Back 252

circumsism

Front 253

If a client has a dressing, instruct him to ____ in a warm bath that evening to allow dressing to loosen.

Back 253

Soak

Front 254

After circumsicision, you can resume normal activity after ____ week, and sexual intercourse may be resumed after ___ to ___ weeks

Back 254

1 week
1-2 weeks