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66 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What represents the machinery by which an organization plans and accomplishes its assigned responsibilities? |
Administration
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Administration provides for uniformity of operations in light of the continuing turnover of personnel within the naval service.
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True
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Which element of administration involves developing a selected course of future action?
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Planning
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Which element of administration is the authority which a commander in the military service lawfully exercises over his or her subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?
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Command
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Which element of administration entails the orderly arrangement of materials and personnel by functions in order to obtain the objective of the unit?
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Organization
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Which element links together each of the elements of
administration and applies equally to all of them? |
Communications
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Who is responsible for the overall management of a
Security Detachment or Department? |
Security Officer
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From which functional area does the Security Officer
maintain records and correspondence? |
Administration
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From which functional area does the Security Officer
develop AT plans? |
Planning
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From which functional area does the Security Officer
disseminate information? |
Operations
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From which functional area does the Security Officer
discipline security force members? |
Personnel Management
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How often should the Security Officer conduct a detailed review of all Security Force post orders?
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At least Annually
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What document authorizes the Commander’s Authority for the protection or security of DoD property or places?
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Section 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950
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For security departments having a total combined
strength (military and civilian including contract security personnel) of __________ or more persons, an assistant security officer should be considered for assignment to run the department’s day to day operation. |
100
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Who develops and manages the AT/FP program?
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Antiterrorism Officer
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After completing the required minimum ATO training, who is authorized to be an ATO?
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Commissioned Officer, Chief Petty Officer, Civilian GS-11 or higher
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The ATO manages resources that may include
watchstander gear, security boats, nonlethal weapons, and inspection equipment. |
True
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Which of the following is an example of Random
Antiterrorism Measure (RAM)? |
Closing a base access gate without warning
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Who conducts interviews/interrogations and collects,
seizes, preserves, documents and stores evidence? |
Investigator
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Who is responsible for facilitating and establishing
policy for the Navy’s law enforcement/investigative programs? |
NCIS
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What log will be kept of an interview/interrogation?
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OPNAV 5580/7
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Which security operation job primary duties involve
manning a stationary/static guard position, a walking post, or a security patrol? |
Sentry
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Which security operation job primary duties involve
law enforcement? |
Patrol Officer
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Running a commercial vehicle inspection station is a
primary duty of the Vehicle/Boat inspector. |
True
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Who is in charge of the security boat and its mission?
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Harbor Security Boat Coxswain
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Who mans a crew served weapon to provide protective
fire during security boat operations? |
Harbor Security Boat Gunner
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Who provides the link between the community and
emergency services? |
Emergency Dispatcher
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Who is responsible for security, safety,
accountability, classification, maintenance, requisitions, issuance, demilitarization, and proper disposal of arms and ammunition? |
Armory/AA&E Supervisor
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Who maintains the security unit armory or ready for
issue room; conducts inspection of unit assigned weapons, ammunition, and storage spaces? |
AA&E Custodian/Armorer
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Who handles, maintains, and trains a MWD to operate in both detector and patrol functions?
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MWD Handler
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What is the NEC for the Military Working Dog Handler?
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2005
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What is the NEC for the Military Working Dog Kennel
Master? |
2006
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A Master-at-Arms can receive the Military Working Dog
Handler NEC thru on-the-job-training (OJT). |
False
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MWD handlers originally trained solely for patrol dog
handling may receive comprehensive OJT for detector dog handling. |
True
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Who determines the duty cycles, duty hours, and
methods of using MWD teams? |
Kennel Master and Security Officer
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Personnel who have been relieved of police duties for
misconduct pending investigation/disciplinary action, etc., can be assigned to kennel support duties. |
True
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What are the minimum hours per week for a handler to
use a drug/explosive detector dog for drug/explosive interdiction sweeps? |
5
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Which form is used for MWD Training and Utilization
Record? |
5585/1
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Which form is used for Canine Validity Test Data?
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5585/6
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Which form is used for Detector Dog Training and
Utilization Record? |
5585/3
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Which form is used for MWD Utilization Record
(Supplemental)? |
5585/2
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Which form is used for MWD Status Report?
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5585/4
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What proficiency level is a detector dog that can
detect a training aid 6-7 feet high? |
Level Five
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What proficiency level is a detector dog that can
detect a training aid 0-6 feet high? |
Level Three
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What proficiency level is a detector dog that can
detect a training aid 3-4 feet deep? |
Level Nine
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Who tactically leads Reaction Force to its objectives?
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Reaction Force Team Leader
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Who may augment fixed posts?
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Reaction Force Member
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Who is responsible for supervising all watch section
functions to include: Patrol, sentries, emergency dispatcher and electronic security systems monitor, harbor security, and the armory? |
Watch Commander
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The senior security operations member at the scene of
an incident, unless otherwise designated by the Security Officer, who possesses the required tactical skills shall assume the duties as On-Scene Commander. |
True
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Who manages command security and AT training, the
Field Training Officer (FTO), and Personnel Qualification System (PQS) programs? |
Patrol Supervisor
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Who manages command Antiterrorism/Force Protection
program? |
Antiterrorism Officer and Security Officer
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Who maintains, stores, processes, inventories, and
transfers custody of evidence? |
Evidence Custodian
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What is the OPNAV number of the bound evidence log?
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5580/24
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What is the OPNAV number of the Evidence/Property
Custody Document (ECD)? |
5580/22
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Status of Forces Agreements (SOFAs) establish the
rights and obligations of the U.S. and Host Nations where our forces are stationed. |
True
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Who develops the Post Order for each fixed and mobile
post? |
Security Officer
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Visible security measures to create a “hard target”
that is difficult to attack and to disrupt terrorist cycle of operations through the use of Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAMs) |
Deter
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Alert, well-trained, and well-equipped watchstanders
armed with current intelligence to recognize and report incidents of preoperational surveillance and track potential threats |
Detect
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Measures and procedures commensurate with the threat
level; and based on a recent vulnerability assessment; protect critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure and personnel, and identify, classify, and neutralize threats through well-rehearsed preplanned responses |
Defend
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Measures and procedures that minimize consequences of
a terrorist attack |
Mitigate
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Measures that restore mission effectiveness
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Recover
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What is the definition of Force Protection Condition
Alpha? |
Applies when there is an increased general threat of
possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable |
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What is the definition of Force Protection Condition
Bravo? |
Applies when an increased or more predictable threat
of terrorist activity exists |
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What is the definition of Force Protection Condition
Charlie? |
Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is
received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely |
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What is the definition of Force Protection Condition
Delta? |
Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack
has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent |
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Commanders will transform general measures and
procedures contained in each FPCON into specific measures and procedures to protect their critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure, and personnel. |
True
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