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184 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Glycolysis: occurs in __________, immediate source of energy ( __ ATP in limited amounts), source of reducing equivalents in the form of _____ , ______ (raises/lowers) pH of cell; leads to two possibly pathways for the metabolized pyruvate, ___ and ____.
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occurs in cytosol; source of 2 immediate ATPs; source of reducing equivs in the form of 2NADH; lowers pH of cell; leads to two possible fates for pyruvate, either CAC under aerobic conditions or lactate under anaerobic conditions
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the CAC is also known as the _____ or the _____
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Krebbs cycle, Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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the CAC occurs only in the _____
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mitochondria
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the Krebbs cycle completely converts ______ to _______
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the carbon skeleton of pyruvate ----> CO2
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the CAC directly forms one ___________
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GTP
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the TCA cycle creates reducing equivs in the form of _____ and _______ ; these in turn can be converted to ATP via oxidative phosphorylation
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4 NADH and 1 FADH2
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____ is the central pathway for degradation and interconversion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
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the Krebbs cycle
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oxidative phosphorylation only occurs in ____________ in the presence of _______
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the mitochondria, in the presence of O2
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oxidative phosphorylation produces ATP from the ____________ produced in the TCA cycle
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reducing equivs (NADH, FADH2)
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___________ can be used for energy even in the absence of either mitochondria or O2
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carbohydrates (glucose)
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______ require mitochondria and O2 for energy production.
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protein and fat
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the Pentose Phosphate Pathway, aka the _____________, occurs in the __________
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Hexose Monophosphate Shunt, cytoplasm
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the PPP produces reducing equivs in the form of __________ , which is used for biosynthetic rxns and the production of _________, which protects cell membranes from oxidative damage
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NADPH, reduced glutathione
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the PPP can also produce ______, which is needed for nucleotide synthesis
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ribose 5-Pi
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in the __________, some carbons can be converted to pyruvate; thus, it is often referred to as as "shunt" of glycolysis
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PPP/hexose monophosphate shunt
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_______ raises blood sugar during fasting and exercise
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gluconeogenesis
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gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the _______ and, to a lesser extent, in the _______
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liver, kidney
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gluconeogenesis can result in the conversion of both ________ and (some) _________s to glucose
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lactate, amino acids
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gluconeogenesis requires energy in the form of ________ and ________ in the form of NADH; thus it is an _________ pathway
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ATP, reducing equivs; anabolic
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_________ is the storage form of glucose
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glycogen
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glycogen metabolism occurs primarily in the ___, ___, and _____
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muscle, liver, kidney
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in contrast to the liver and kidney, which catabolize glycogen during fasting and exercise to ___________, muscles simply utilize glycogen as energy during these times
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raise blood sugar levels
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gluconeogenesis cannot operate to any significant without _____, where the pyruvate to oxaloacetate conversion takes place
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mitochondria
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RBCs have no ___________, so they cannot utilize ________ or ________ for energy, nor can they carry out the __________ and ________ pathways; they can only use the ________ and __________ pathways
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have no mitochondria; cannot use fat or protein for energy; cannot carry out the TCA cycle or oxidative phos; can only use glycolysis and the PPP
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RBCs do not store _________ and therefore need a continual supply of _______
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glycogen, glucose
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the ______ is important to RBCs because they need reduced ________ to protect their membranes; in RBCs, the primary products of this pathway are NADPH and pyruvate
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PPP, reduced glutathione
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most of the pyruvate produced in RBCs is converted to _________ and transported out of the cell for ________
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lactate, hydroxyl ion exchange
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______ catalyzes the rxn:
pyruvate+NADH <==> lactate+ NAD+ |
LDH
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tissues with few mitochondria are: 1) ______ 2) _________, 3) _______ 4) _______ ; these tissues require 40g/day of _______ and release _______ and _____ into the blood as end products of glucose metabolism
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kidney medulla, testis, leukocytes, white muscle fibers
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the brain metabolizes glucose via both _________ and __________; it has mitochondria and lots of O2, so it combusts ______ to _____ and H2O for maximal energy yield
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glycolysis, the PPP; combusts pyruvate ---> CO2 + H2O
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the brain does not normally use ____ as an energy source and does not store _____, so it depends on a constant supply of glucose (___ g/day); however, it can partially adapt to other energy sources (eg _________) during prolonged starvation
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does not use fat or store glycogen; needs 120g/day glucose; can use ketone bodies in a pinch
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adipose tissue metabolizes glucose by both ____________ and ______ pathways. Pentose phosphate is an important source of _____ for fat biosynthesis.
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glycolytic, pentose phosphate; NADPH
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adipose tissue has a ____________ to store and metabolize glycogen for its own use
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limited capacity
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in adipose tissue, most of the pyruvate from glycolysis is either ______ or _______
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used for energy production or converted to fat.
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_________ is not dependent on glucose; as blood insulin/glucose levels fall, it simply metabolizes fat
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adipose tissue
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the skeletal and heart muscle - metabolize glucose by both _____ and ________ pathways, but the ______ pathway normally predominates
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glycolytic and PPP; glycolytic
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the heart and skeletal muscle has a __________ capacity to store and metabolize glycogen for its own use
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significant
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________ can utilize the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation to derive energy from pyruvate and to oxidize fats for energy. Thus, _________ can easily switch to fat as an energy source as blood glucose levels and glycogen stores decrease.
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resting muscle, resting or lightly exercising muscle
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____________ are a major source of protein in extreme cases of need
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muscle
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in _________ the demand for energy exceeds the rate at which O2 can be transported to the muscle and/or substrates transported into the mitochondria. Thus, a readily available source of glucose is partially limiting for endurance or high output exercise. Under these conditions a significant fraction of the pyruvate will be converted to ______ or, if high levels of NH4+ are present, to ______ and exported into the blood.
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rapidly contracting muscle; lactate, alanine
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the liver and kidney metabolize glucose via both _______ and _________ pathways
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glycolytic and pentose phosphate
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in the liver and kidney, pentose phosphate is important for the production of NADPH for _________, _________, and ______. Also, the liver and kidney metabolize glucose by the ________ (detoxification).
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biosynthesis, production of reduced glutathione and microsomal enzyme systems; the glucuronic acid pathway
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the liver and kidney (do, do not) depend on glucose
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do NOT
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the liver and kidney (can, cannot) use fat as an energy source
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can
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the ______ and ________ can readily provide stored glycogen to raise blood glucose when needed
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liver and kidney
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glucose is stored as either _______ or ________
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glyocen, fat
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metabolically important glycogen stores are in _______, __________ and ________
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muscle, kidney, liver
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Most of the fat is produced & and stored in _________; some of the fat is also produced in the liver and is exported as _____ for eventual storage in the adipose tissue.
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the adipose tissue; lipoproteins
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As glycogen reserves start to become depleted, _________ becomes the major source of blood glucose.
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gluconeogenesis
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The major source of carbons for gluconeogenesis in the fasting state are _____ from the breakdown of protein stores in muscle. _____ can also be a source of carbons for gluconeogenesis
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amino acids, lactate
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For the human body, lactate production is _________.
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~115 g/day
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____ in the liver plays a major role in ridding the body of lactate, thus preventing a metabolic acidosis from the accumulation of lactate (remember glycolysis produces one proton for every molecule of lactate).
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GNG
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The continuous conversion of glucose to lactate by some tissues (via glycolysis) and the counterbalancing conversion of lactate to glucose by the liver (via gluconeogenesis) is referred to as the ________
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Cori Cycle
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The accumulation of lactate can drive _____ in the liver by mass action.
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gluconeogenesis
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Not all lactate needs to be converted back to glucose via gluconeogenesis. Lactate is a perfectly good energy source for any tissue that has ___, _______ and _____ .
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lactate dehydrogenase, mitochondria and a sufficient source of oxygen.
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Anaerobic exercise is characterized by extremely vigorous exercise of short duration (examples = sprinting and weight lifting). This type of exercise is primarily performed by _______ (also referred to as type II, glycolytic or white muscle).
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fast-twitch muscle fibers
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Fast-twitch muscle fibers have relatively few _______ and rely on ______ for most of their energy
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mitochondria, anaerobic glycolysis
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During anaerobic exercise, blood glucose can’t get into the muscle fast enough to make a major contribution to vigorous exercise, so the main sources of energy are _____, _______ and _______.
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ATP, phosphocreatine and muscle glycogen.
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aerobic/lower intensity exercise is primarily performed by ________ (also called type I, oxidative or red muscle).
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slow-twitch muscle fibers
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slow-twitch muscle fibers have abundant _____, so they can oxidize glucose all the way to CO2 and H2O and they can use fat as an energy source
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mitochondria
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during aerobic exercise, ___ and _____ make a significant contribution to energy needs (by maintaining blood glucose) with fat making an increasing contribution as glycogen stores are exhausted
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liver glycogen and the Cori cycle
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Fats can only supply ______ of VO2 max.
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50%
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carbs are consumed in the diet mainly as ________ and ______; these are hydrolyzed to _______ in the digestive tract
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polysaccharides and disaccharides; monosaccharides
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The monosaccharides released in the digestive process are absorbed into the mucosal cells and passed into circulation through the ________
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hepatic portal vein
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Since the major dietary polysaccharide,______, is composed entirely of glucose, glucose is the most abundant monosaccharide available to the cell
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starch
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________ and ________ are both converted to glucose in the ______
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fructose and galactose, liver
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Galactose 1-Phosphate Uridyl Transferase Deficiency (“Classic” Galactosemia) is a ______ hereditary disease
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recessive
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__________ across the plasma membranes of cells is the initial event in cellular glucose metabolism and is often the rate limiting step in metabolism
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facilitative glucose transport
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Glucose Transporters __ and ____ have low Kms for glucose and therefore responsible for basal levels of transport
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1 & 3
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_____ is the insulin-sensitive glucose transporter, found mostly in muscle and adipose tissue
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GLUT-4
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Insulin affects glucose transporter by causing _____ of a pool of transporters localized in intracellular vessicles to the plasma membrane; this occurs via IRS activation of the regulatory subunit (p85) of ________
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translocation; PI3 kinase
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In muscle ______ is also translocated to the plasma membrane in response to electrical stimulation of the muscle.
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GLUT-4
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________ is only found in cells that regulate glucose homeostasis, such as liver and pancreatic B-islet cells.
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GLUT-2
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the high Km of ______ causes glucose uptake to be proportional to the highest physiological glucose concentration and thus allows extracellular glucose concentration to govern the usage of glucose in in liver and B-islet cells of the pancreas; _____ extracellular glucose levels drive utilization of glucose (primarily conversion to glycogen and fat) in liver and the magnitude of the insulin response in B-islet cells.
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GLUT-2; high extracellular glucose levels
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Decreased expression and/or mutations of _____ are seen in some diabetics.
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GLUT-2
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Amino acids also stimulate insulin release by _________
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B-cells
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The enzyme ______ catalyzes phosphorylation of glucose. It has a Km for glucose of 0.1 mM which means that at the glucose concentrations prevailing in most cells it is saturated and is reacting at its maximal velocity
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hexokinase
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_________ is the rate limiting enzyme for glycolysis and is the principal control point in glycolysis.
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phosphofructokinase (PFK)
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PFK is an ______ enzyme that is inhibited by ATP and activated by AMP. This enzyme is, therefore, inhibited when the cell has high levels of ATP. The enzyme is also inhibited by ____, ________, _________ and ________.
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allosteric; low pH, NADH, citrate, and long chain fatty acids
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F-2,6-P2 binds to an allosteric site on PFK and ______ its affinity for fructose-6-phosphate and _______ its inhibition by ATP
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increases, decreases
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the enzyme ________ catalyzes the irreversible reaction (phosphoenol pyruvate + ADP ---> pyruvate + ATP) during glycolysis
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pyruvate kinase
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For glycolysis: In the first few steps, 2 ATP are used to produce fru-1,6-P2; however, there are 2 later steps where _________ of ADP to ATP occurs. Since this occurs for each of the 2 trioses derived from glucose, 4 ATP are synthesized. Therefore, the net ATP synthesized = ___. This is all the ATP that can be produced by anaerobic or amplified glycolysis.
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substrate level phosphorylation; 2
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in mammals, temporary anoxia results in _______ glycolysis
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increased
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"amplified glycolysis" occurs in: (3)
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1) muscle during vigorous exercise 2) cells that have continuously altered levels of PFK effectors such as many tumor cells 3) cells that are incapable of oxidative phosphorylation, such as erythrocytes.
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If we look at exercising muscle, ______ levels are high and both _____ & ______ levels are low.
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fructose-2,6-bisPi; ATP & citrate
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Under normal conditions the reducing equivalents present in NADH are transferred to the mitochondria where they can be used to generate ATP via ______. However, ______, so one of two shuttle systems must be used to get the reducing equivalents into the mitochondria- either the a) ________ (in all tissues) or the b) _____
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oxidative phosphorylation; NADH cannot cross the membrane directly; a) glycerol phosphate shuttle b) malate shuttle
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All of the reactions of the GPS system are reversible, so the direction of the reactions is driven by _____.
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mass action
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3 characteristics of the GPS:
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1) In most cells, it is the major shuttle for transferring electrons from cytosolic NADH into the mitochondria 2) It converts NADH into NAD in the cytosol so that glycolysis can continue. 3 It generates 2 ATP/cytosolic NADH.
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2 characteristics of the malate shuttle:
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1) The malate shuttle allows the production of 3 ATPs from every cytoplasmic NADH 2) It is primarily used in high energy tissues such as heart muscle, and for biosynthetic reactions in other tissues.
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under conditions of amplified glycolysis, ________ is very important, since it can recycle the NADH (that would tend to accumulate) back to NAD+.
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LDH
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The molecular action of hydrophilic hormones is ultimately to regulate the activities of cellular hormones, including (3):
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enzymes, TFs, cytoskeletal proteins
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Four generalized classes of cell-surface receptors for hydrophilic hormones:
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1) G-protein 2) Enzyme (eg receptor tyrosine kinases, the cytoplasmic domain of which phosphorylates target cells) 2) Cytokine (eg Jak kinases ---> Stat TFs) 4) Ion-channel (ie neurotransmitters)
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G-proteins are ______ that undergo a cycle in which they hydrolyze GTP and then exchange the resulting GDP for GTP
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GTPases
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Effector enzyme/protein: adenylate cyclase
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Second messenger: cAMP
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Effector enzyme/protein: guanylate cyclase
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Second messenger: cAMP
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Effector enzyme/protein: phospholipase C
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Second messenger: (phosphotidylinosital system): diacylglycerol (DAG), inositol 1,4,5 triphospate (IP3)
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Effector enzyme/protein: Phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase
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Second messenger: Phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5 P (PIP3)
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Effector enzyme/protein: ion channel
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Second messenger: calcium
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protein kinases ___________ ; there are three kinds:
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transfer the gamma-PO4 from ATP to the hydroxyl group of serine, threonine, or tyrosine residues of proteins; 1) Ser/Thr 2) Tyr 3) dual
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protein phosphotases __________
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reverse the action of protein kinases by hydrolyzing phospho-serine, phospho-threonine, or phospho-tyrosine residues and restoring the side chains to the free hydroxyl form
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conserved structural feature of protein kinase catalytic domains (4): (hint-- ATP binding region is where? substrate? what's in between?)
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1) ATP binding lobe = small N-terminal lobe; 2) substrate binding lobe = large C-terminal lobe 3) catalytic center = cleft btw large and small lobes; 4) activation loop
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two major biochemical mechanisms for molecular relays:
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1) covalent phosphorylation of the target protein by protein kinases 2) exchange of GDP for GTP by G-proteins
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polypeptide hormones are formed from _________, which are:
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pre-pro-hormones; -encoded by genes -transcribed into mRNA
-translated into pre-pro-hormones -processed to give the secreted and active form |
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pre-pro-hormones are targeted to the __________. steps are:
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secretory pathway; 1) N-terminal signal peptide targets hormone precursors to the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
2) Uptake into the ER lumen occurs during translation 3) Precursors progress through the Golgi network and are delivered to the plasma membrane in secretory vesicles 4) Processing to mature forms begins during these transitions. |
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Pro-hormone converting enzymes (PCs) are ________ that cleave on the _______ side of the _____ amino acid sites; their processing begins in the __________ and may continue in the secretory vesicles
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serine proteases, carboxyl side, dibasic amino acid sites; trans-Golgi network
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POMC is synthesized in specialized _______, _________-, _______ in humans. It is a single gene that encodes multiple hormones.
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pituitary, brain, and skin cells
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Insulin processing steps:
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1) signal processing directs pre-pro-insulin to ER 2) conversion to pro-insulin occurs in the ER 3) pro-insulin transits through the Golgi to secretory vessicles 4) C-peptide is removed in secretory vessicles 5) targets: liver --> inhibit glucose production; muscle/adipose --->stimulate glucose uptake and use
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pleomorphic phenotypes result from (2)
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mutations in a single gene encoding more than one mature hormone OR prohormone processing enzymes
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Gs
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stimulates adenylate cyclase
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Gi
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inhibits adenylate cyclase
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Gq
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stimulates phospholipase Cbeta
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G12
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stimulates ion channels
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G-protein-GTP (active) =
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Kd-GDP
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G-protein-GDP (inactive) =
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kcat-GTP
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2nd messengers generally act by ____________
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reversing negative inhibition of key protein kinases
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all eight isozymes of adenylate cyclase are integral membrane proteins with _____ transmembrane domains
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12
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adenylate cyclase synthesizes ___ from ______
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cAMP from ATP
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PKA (protein kinase A) has 2 ______ and 2 _________ subunits and is found as an _________ in the absence of ______
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catalytic; negative regulatory; inactive holoenzyme (membrane-bound) in the absence of cAMP
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Upon the binding of cAMP, the ______ domains of PKA dissociate and _____ target proteins to modify their activity
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catalytic, phosphorylate
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GTP-Galphaq binding to phospholipase Cbeta (PLC) _______ its activity; PLC in turn catalyzes the synthesis of two second messengers, _____ and ______
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stimulates; diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
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____ (released by PLC via Gq stim) is a short lived 2nd messenger that induces the release of stored ____ from the ER by binding to a ___ channel in the ER membrane.
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IP3; Ca2+, Ca2+
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______ and ______ (hint: PLC, Gq path) reverse the negative regulation on protein kinase C (PKC) through their binding to the negative regulatory domain
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DAG and Ca2+
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Gi inhibits the _______ and stimulates the ________ signaling pathways (bc the free gamma-beta subunit stimulates PLC and activates the Pi-cycle PKC pathway)
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adenylate cyclase, phospholipase C
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4 structural characteristics shared by all G-protein coupled receptors:
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1) extracellular N-terminal domain 2) seven transmembrane-spanning a-helices 3) three extra and three intra cellular loops to connect helices 4) intracellular C-terminal domain
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_____ is the target of cholera toxin The A subunit of cholera toxin has ______ activity; ADP ribosylation of Arg201 strongly inhibits the GTPase activity of ___ and effectively traps it in the _____ state. This in turn causes prolonged activation of ______ resulting in elevated ______, which causes intestinal epithelial cells to secrete chloride and water into the lumen of the intestine resulting in rapid dehydration.
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Gs; ADP-ribosylating; Gs; activated; adenylate cyclase, cAMP
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___ is the target of pertussis toxin, the A subunit of which has ________ activity; this in turn ADP inhibits the _____, locking the GPCR in the inactive state; this, Gi cannot inhibit ________ activity and cAMP levels are elevated.
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Gi; ADP-ribosylating; exchange of GDP for GTP; adenylate cyclase
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The systemic efffects of pertussis toxin, which include increased insulin production (hypoglycemia) and increased sensitivity to histamine (increased capillary permeability, hypotension and shock), result in the toxin's ability to alter normal __ activity.
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Gi
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Hallmarks of testotoxicosis:
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1) post-puberty levels of testosterone and sex hormone binding protein by age 4; 2) normal pre-puberty levels of LH and gnRH; 3) testosterone secretion levels independent of normal regulation
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FPP is linked to a constitutively activating mutation of the ______ ; the disorder is inherited as a ________ trait.
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luteinizing hormone receptor; sex-limited autosomal dominant
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In FPP, the mutated receptor expressed in tissue culture cells stimulates ___ production in the absence of ___
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cAMP, LH
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Albright Hereditary Osteopathy, AHO, involves a deficiency in _____ that makes cells resistant to the action of hormones that signal through ___ coupled GPCRs.
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G-alpha-s; Gs
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AHO presents with ________
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resistance to parathyroid hormone
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Actions of PTH: 1) bone ---> (2) 2) kidney ---> (3); resistance causes _______
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bone: remodeling, release of Ca2+; kidney: Ca2+ clearance, phosphate clearance, vitamin D production; resistance causes hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
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The first committed step for glycolysis is at ______; therefore, this is the primary regulation point. the second regulation point is the ______ rxn
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PFK; pyruvate kinase
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ATP inhibits ______ and stimulates _________
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PFK, FBP
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the Pasteur effect describes the inhibition of _______ by O2, because in the presence of O2, ____ levels are high
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glycolysis, ATP
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citrate inhibits _____ and stimulates ________
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PFK, FBP
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In the liver, the activity of PFK-2/FBP-2 is controlled by phosphorylation/dephosphorylation of the N-terminal regulatory region in response to the hormones _______ and ______. This serves as an override mechanism that controls glycolysis/gluconeogenesis in response to the whole body's need for blood glucose.
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glucagon and insulin
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F-2,6 bisP ______ PFK; F-2,6 bisP ______ FBP
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activates, inhibits
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In liver, glucagon & epinephrine result in a/an _______ in F-2,6 bisP levels
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DECREASE
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epi and glucagon activate _____; insulin activates ____
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PKA, receptor tyrosine kinase
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in the liver, insulin results in a/an ______ in F-2,6 bisP levels; in muscle, insulin has little to no effect
|
increase
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defects in the __________ have recently been liked to Rapid-Onset Dystonia Parkinsonism and Familial Hemiplegic Migraine type 2
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Na+ - K+ ATPase pump
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asymmetry in Na/K pump:
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3 Na+ out; 2 K+ in
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Cholestatic conditions result from mutations in several different ____ in the biliary tree.
|
ABCs
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Excitatory acetylcholine, glutamate and serotonin bind their receptors to _________ and depolarize while GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) and glycine _________ to attenuate depolarization by allowing Cl- entry or K+ exit down their concentration gradients.
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activate Na+ currents; activate Cl- or K+ channels
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Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disease in which binding of antibodies to the receptor causes its ________ and loss of neuromuscular transmission.
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internalization and degradation
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inner mitochondrial membrane is particularly impermeable to molecules due to the high proportion of _______in the membrane.
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cardiolipin
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cytochrome c is located in the ______ of the mitochondria
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intermembrane space
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in oxidative phosphorylation, the transfer of electrons along the electron transport chain is coupled to the movement of protons (H+) from the_____ to the ______
|
matrix side, inter membrane space
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arsenic
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Inhibits the pyruvate degydrogenase complex; prevents the generation of acetyl CoA.
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cyanide
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Inhibits complex IV of the ETC. Prevents the transport of electrons from cytochrome c oxidase to oxygen.
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rotenone
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Inhibits complex I of the ETC. Prevents the transfer of electrons from complex I to ubiquinone.
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Mitochondrial Uncouplers (2,4-dinitrophenol, DNP; FCCP):
|
proton ionophors; can bind to protons and cross the mitochondrial inner membrane- thus dissipating the proton gradient.
|
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oligomycin
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Inhibits ATP Synthase (F1F0 ATPase), thus blocking ATP generation via oxidative phosphorylation.
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uncoupling proteins
|
generate heat
|
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Charcot-Marie-Tooth 2A (CMT2A) disease is an axonopathy associated with mutations in the MFN2 genes that regulates ______.
|
mitochondrial fusion
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________ is a large enzyme complex in the mitochondrion consisting of 3 different types of enzyme subunits. It is the enzyme that connects the glycolytic pathway to the citric acid cycle.
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pyruvate dehydrogenase
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dietary source/ coonzyme:
1) thiamine or vitamin B1 2) pantothenic acid 3) riboflavin 4) niacin |
1) thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)
2) - coenzyme A (CoASH) 3) – FADH2 4) - NADH |
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catalyzes a 2 step reaction )the first in the CAC): an aldol condensation of oxaloacetate and acetyl CoA, followed by hydrolysis to yield citrate and free CoA. The hydrolysis step is not easily reversible.
|
citrate synthase
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second major CAC enzyme; a multi-enzyme complex very similar to pyruvate dehydrogenase. This step is irreversible. It also produces NADH.
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alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
|
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third major CAC enzyme; has a high negative detaG°' of hydrolysis, and can, therefore, be coupled to the direct phosphorylation of GDP to GTP (which is equivalent to ATP); this reaction is fairly reversible. This is an example of substrate level phosphorylation.
|
succinyl CoA synthetase
|
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final major enzyme of CAC; this is a good example of a reaction that has a net flow opposite to an unfavorable Keq. That is the oxidation of malate by NAD+ to produce oxaloacetate + NADH + H+ has a ∆G°' of + 7 kcal/mole.
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malate dehydrogenase
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breakdown of net ATP generated by glycolysis + CAC:
|
6 in cytosol, 30 in mitochondria
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the CAC is tightly regulated by oxygen supply via ___ inhibition (which is produced by oxidative phosphorylation)
|
NADH
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_____ stimulates the citric acid cycle at several points. This is important because electrical stimulation of the muscle causes an increase in intracellular ____ levels. Thus, the CAC is maximally stimulated in muscles.
|
Ca2+
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________ is a required cofactor for the transaminase reactions in the CAC. It comes from vitamin B6 in the diet.
|
Pyridoxal Phosphate
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net conversion of ______ to carbohydrate and most amino acids is not possible
|
fatty acids
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the citric acid cycle requires a constant supply of ________ to keep going
|
oxaloacetate
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dyslipidimia is an early indicator of ______
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type II diabetes
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C-reactive protein, which increases during DMtII, is a predictor of ____
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heart disease
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b) Thiazolidinedione (Actos & Avandia) drugs are _____ of PPAR-gamma (which controls adipocyte differentiation) and are used to improve insulin sensitivity in insulin resistant patients. Examples are Actos and Avandia
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agonists
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______ (eg TNFalpha and free fatty acids) are thought to modulate insulin resistance to DMtII
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adipokines
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complications of diabetes:
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muscle degradation, cataracts (aldol reductase, sorbitol), non-enzymatic glycosylation of proteins (HbA1c),
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the PPP is driven entirely by _____; it provides _____ for nucleic acids and _____ for biosynthesis and detoxification reactions
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mass action; pentoses; NADH
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NADPH produced by the oxidative portion of the PPP is used for (3):
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for biosynthetic reactions (eg. fatty acid biosynthesis), for reduction of glutathione, and for reduction of ribose to deoxyribose
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the non-oxidative portion of the PPP provides (2); ______ is a required cofactor
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ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis and cytoplasmic NADPH; Thiamine pyrophosphate is an essential cofactor
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a rapidly dividing cell would most likely utilize the _____ of the PPP; a cell that needs both NADPH and r5p in balance (liver, kidney) would use the ____ portion; cells that need more NADPH than r5p (RBCs) would use _______ of the pathway
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non-oxidative (for the ribose-5-phosphate); oxidative; both
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defects in ________ result in individuals being unable to produce NADPH via the PPP, which causes rare complications with RBCs under circumstances of high ROS levels (ie treatment with some antimalarials)
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glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
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symptoms of ________, an autosomal ______ deficiency of glucose 6-phosphatase in the liver (5):
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Von Gierke’s Disease, recessive; 1) hetapomegaly due to lots of glycogen 2) fasting hypoglycemia 3) lactic acidemia 4) hyperlipidemia 5) hyperuricemia
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_________ occurs when one drug indirectly decreases the amount of a second drug that
would otherwise be available to its site of action. Many agents such as phenobarbital, induce the microsomal enzyme activity responsible for the biotransformation of other drugs. |
biochemical antagonism
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Certain Safety Factor: CSF =
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LD1/ED99
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Bioavailability, (F) =
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(AUCoral)/(AUCi.v.) x (Dosei.v.)/(Doseoral)
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ion trapping
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more (ionized) drug is found on the side of the membrane where ionization occurs to the greatest extent
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