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99 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The Movement of Stabilized pts. from forward Med. locations to another pre-arranged destination is the definition of . . .
a. Air expeditionary force b. Expeditionary Med. Support C. Aero medical Evac. d. Airforce theater hospital |
Aero med evac.
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what Kind of change to Casualty Survival rates occurs when AE is available?
a. significant increase b. Significant decrease c. increase by onlY 10% d. decrease by only 10% |
significant increase
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what's the ratio of c-17's used for Expeditionary Medical support Vs 25 bed air transportable hospital (ATH)?
a. l:2 b. 1.7:3 C. 3:l d. 4:2 |
1.7:3
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The EMEDS components are broken down into which 3 increments?
a. 25 bed ATH, clinical units and unit type codes b. AEF, EMEDS, AFTH c. EMEDS intermediates, ATH, unit type codes d. EMEDS basic, +10, +25 |
EMEDS Basic, +10, +25
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which EMEDS increment has NO inpatient beds?
a. EMEDS basic b. EMEDS +10 c. EMEDS +25 d. All EMEDS have inpatient beds |
EMEDS Basic
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which EMEDS increment is Capable of performing 10 major Surgeries in 24 hrs, ?
a. onlY AFTHS have surgery capabilities b. EMEDS +25 C. EMEDS t 10 d. EMEDS Basic |
EMEDS Basic
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who is Qualified to preform a Critical incident Stress debriefing (cisd)?
a. mental health personnel and the AEF/EmEDS Commanders b. Aerospace Med. Specialist and AEF/EMEDS commanders C. mental health personnel and Aerospace med specialist w / additional training d. the AEF/EMEDS Commanders and aerospace specialist w/ additional training |
Mental health personnel and aerospace medcial specialist w/ additional training
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unit type code FFEP 1,the Expanded Critical care team, will be operational within how many hrs. upon arival to the deployed location?
a. l2 hrs. b. 24 hrs. C. 36 hrs. d. 72 hrs. |
12 hrs.
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EMEDS Basic requires both routine AE support and urgent AE support within how many hrs. of notification?
a. l2 hrs. for routine/2 hrs. for Urgent b. 12 hrs for routine/ 4 hrs for urgent C. 24 hrs for routine/ 12 hrs for urgent d. 36 hrs for routine/ 24 hrs. for urgent |
24 hrs for routine/12hrs for urgent
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what capabilities is the unit type code FFMFS, medical mobile field surgical team responsibie for providing?
a. Only Provides care for battle injured Using pain meds and blood transfusion b. set up ops,Seperate from main EMEDS locations c. provide care to all battle wounded personnel Where they are found d. Provides primary disaster med. capability for EMEDS |
provides PrimarY disaster medical capability for EMEDS
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How Many personnel are assigned to the EMEDS +10 increment ?
a. 26 Personnel b. 36 Personnel C. 56 Personnel d. 16 Personnel |
56 personnel
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How Many tents make up the EMEDS + 10 increment?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 |
6
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How many crit. Care pts. can be cared for by the EMEDS + l0 increment?
a. 1 b. 3 C. 5 d. 7 |
3
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what is the total # Of personnel assigned to the EMEDS +25?
a. 32 b.51 a.86 d. 94 |
86
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EMEDS +25 provides primary care for how many deployed personnel ?
A. 3000- 5000 b. 6000-8000 c. 900O-10000 d. 11000- 13000 |
3000- 500O
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How many Surgeries are the EMEDS +25 team able to perform in 72 hrs?
a. 10 b. 15 C.20 d. 25 |
20
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Which EMEDS increment provides advanced Surgical and trauma Support ?
a. EMEDS Basic b. EMEDS Intermediate C. EMEDS +10 d. EMEDS + 25 |
EMEDS + 25
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what function does the UTC FFEP5, EMEDS Surgical Augmentation team provide?
a. 24 hr sick call b. 24 hr surgical capability C. 24 hr aeromedical evac Support d. 24 hr medical logistics |
24 hr surgical capability
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The medical mental health Augmentation team, UTC FfGKU, deploys in conjunction w/ UTC...
a. FFCCT- med crit. Care air Transport team b. FFBAT- Med. Biological Augmentation team c. FFGKV- med. mental health rapid response team d. FFCcS- crit, care air transport team support package |
FFGKV- med Mental health rapid response team
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Air reserve Command has a total of how ManY personnel assigned?
a. 67 b. 6700 c. 6,700 d. 67, 000 |
67,000
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Air reserve command has how Many unit assigned aircraft?
a.4 b 40 C. 400 d. 4,000 |
400
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how Many individual mobilization augmentees are assigned to air reserve?
a. 1,700 b.7,000 C. 17, 000 d. 70,000 |
7,000
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HOW Many AF reserve units are located in the us?
A.60 b. 600 c. 6,000 d. 60,000 |
600
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AeroSpace Med. Service superintendent 4N091 is eligible to fill what positions ?
A.Section squadron superintendent and MAJCOM functional Manager b.Group superintendent and functional manager C. Career field manager and group superintendent d. Career field Manager and MAJCOM functional manager |
Group superintendent and functional manager
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The AF career field Manager has what Skill level ?
A. 4NOO b. 4NO31 c. 4NO51 d.4N071 |
4N00
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what % of SMSgt makes up enlisted rank ?
a. 1% b. 2% c. 3% d. 4% |
2%
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what conference can you attend where you will have input to the career field education and training plan ?
a. utilization and training workshop b. Exec. leadership SYmposium C. Med. service managers Conference d. Skt rewrite |
utilization and training Workshop
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The AF Career field manager utilizes what Survey to determine Jobs currently being performed?
A. Occupational Survey report and Job inventory Survey b. Health eval. Assessment review and enlisted stratification report c. Occupational Survey report and enlisted Stratification report d. Health eVal, Assessment review and Job inventory survey |
Occupational survey report and Job inventorY survey
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who develops and maintains Currency Of the CFETP?
A. Group superintendent b. surgeon General C. Career field Manager d. CDC writer |
Career field Manager
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when taking over as the the custodian for a new Supply account what is the 1st task to be accomplished ?
a. Contact MEMO so they can perform an inventory b . Contact the group superintendent to perform an inventory c. Ensure you involve the entire duty section to perform an inventory d. Ensure you and the current (losing) custodian perform a thorough inventory |
Ensure you and the current (losing) custodian perform a thorough inventory
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When do you submit an AF form 601, equipment action request, for a piece of equipment that needs replacing?
a. At the end of the month b. At the end of the year c. When the need for new equipment is identified d. When fallout money is available for new equipment |
When the need for the new equipment is identified
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When transferring equipment, who is required to initiate the AF form 601, equipment action request, transfer request?
a. Gaining custodian b. MTF commander c. Flight chief d. Losing custodian |
The losing custodian
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When requesting repairs on equipment, a work order is submitted, listing the malfunction to the?
a. biomedical equipment repair office B logistics department c. previous custodian d facility manager |
Biomedical equipment repair office
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Which equipment management list indicate each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility?
a. custody receipt/locator list b. equipment support list c. back order equipment list d.equipment turn in list |
Custody receipt/locator list
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How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed?
a. 5 days b.14 days c.20 days d.30 days |
5 days
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1 man hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for?
a.20 min b.30 min c.60 min d.90 min |
60min
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The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade and skill level table, approved variances, and the process analysis summary is the definition of a manpower...?
a. authorization b. standard c. Requirement d. unit measure |
standard
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Info found in this document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within an MTF?
a. unit manpower document b.manpower request document c.mission support plan document d. manpower requirement document |
Unit manpower document
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What is the numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include an alpha prefix or suffix?
a. Air Force specialty code b. program element code c.position number d. job number |
Air force specialty code
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What annotate special experience and training not otherwise reflected in the classification system?
a. individuals required grade b. special experience identifier c.organizational structure code d.functional account code |
Special experience identifier
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Each position in the unit Manning document is displayed over fiscal quarters when does the fiscal year start and end?
a. 1 June thru 30 May b.1 Jan thru 31 Dec. c.1 Sept thru 30 Aug. d.1 oct thru 30 Sept. |
1 Oct thru 30 sept.
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Who authorizes a change to manpower request?
a. logistics officer b. MTF commander c. group superintendent d. resource management office |
Group superintendent
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When considering the time management process what is the first element you should take into account?
a. Identifying b. prioritizing c.organizing d. planning |
planning
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What is the most effective time management tool utilized?
a. categorizing priorities b. streamlining priorities c.memorizing priorities d.creating priorities |
Categorizing priorities
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With whom does the responsibility of reviewing and approving staff schedules lie?
a. NCOIC/Nurse manager b. Group superintendent d.chief nurse c.Flight chief |
NCOIC/nurse manager
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When developing a schedule which publication would you reference to ensure you are following policy?
a. AFI 36 - 2618 b. AFI 36 - 2903 c.AFI 36 - 3003 d.AFI 10 - 248 |
AFI 36 - 3003
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Which would NOT be referenced in a local unit operating instructions (OI)?
a. off-duty education b. civilian employees c.preparation of schedules d.orientation plan |
Off-duty education
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When considering adequate staffing coverage what must you know?
a. sex of staff members b. knowledge of staff members c.patient preferences d.patient census |
Patient census
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When scheduling duties how many hours between shifts should you allow?
a. 12 b.8.5 c.8 d.6 |
12
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The conventional schedule is the easiest to develop because it allows everyone to work?
a. 12 hr. days b.10 hr. days 8 hr. days 6 hr. days |
8hr days
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Why are position descriptions and performance standards in place?
a. protect the supervisor from any liability b.protect staff from being asked to do things they're not qualified to do c. allow member to orient quicker d.it's mandated |
Protect staff from being asked to do things they're not qualified to do
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When you want to document the quality or quantity of a task where would you write it?
a. job description b.performance description c.performance standard d.position description |
Performance standard
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When developing performance standards what must you do first?
a. state job duties clearly b.complete the unit orientation √list c.complete an initial performance feedback d. take input from all workers on unit |
State job duties clearly
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Performance can be broken down into what 2 types of criteria?
a.visible and qualitative b.visible and quantitative c.qualitative and understood d.qualitative and quantitative |
Qualitative and quantitative
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When performance can be evaluated by how much, how fast, or how often,what performance criteria do you use?
a.Qualitative b.understood c.quantitative d.visible |
Quantitative
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What document contains complete info regarding ed. and training reqs. for an AFSC?
a. Specialty training standard (STS) b. career field education and training plan(CFETP) c. AF Form 156 student training report d. AF form 623a OJT continuation record |
Career field education and training plan (CFETP)
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When upgrading to a 7 skill lvl what is the min. time needed in training?
a. 9 mos b.12 mos c.18 mos d.24 mos |
12 mos
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When referring to tasks applicable to member's duty section, which docs. would you need to see?
a. CFETP, career field education and training plan b. JQS, job qualification standard c. STS, specialty training standard d. MTL, Master task list |
MTL, master training list
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When new personnel arrive to your duty section which doc. would you initiate to maintain all training reqs.?
a. CFETP b. 6 part folder c. maintenance record d. MTP, master training plan |
6 part folder
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When there are approved changes to the career field education and training plan, who is the approval authority?
a. MTF commander b. USAF Surgeon General c. ed. and training flight d.MAJCOM, functional managers |
USAF Surgeon General
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When looking for specific tasks that are performed in a duty section, where would you look?
a. master training list b.master training plan c. qualifying training packets d.career field education and training plan |
Master training list
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The entire career field education and training plan is constructed during the.....?
a. air staff conference b. Executive Leadership Conference c.medical service managers meeting d.utilization and training workshop |
Utilization and training workshop
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Re-engineering primary care services known as primary care optimization and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector are being accomplished through..?
a. TRICARE b. managed care c. pop. health management d.Military Health Service Management |
Population health management
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When enrolling in Tricare Prime what important decision is made?
a. how many appts. you'll need in 1 yr b.what type of specialy care you'll like c.what facility you would choose to use for inpatient care d.who your PCM will be |
Who your PCM will be
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What tool is used to assist PCMs in managing care for their enrolled pop.?
a.Health evaluation assessment review b.primary care managers review c.occupational survey report d. job inventory survey |
Health evaluation assessment review
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To assess monitor and encourage the demand for needed prevention services in the community are the goals for what kind of pop. health management?
a. demand management b.condition management c.community health management d.occupational health management |
Demand management
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The demand management concept is based on what foundation?
a. referring pts. for specialty care b. assessing already ill pts. c. curing pts through treatment d.teaching pts about prevention |
Teaching pts about prevention
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When properly executed condition management can provide.....?
a. the opportunity for care by any provider available b.continuity in provider practices c. increased health care costs d. lower health care costs |
Continuity in provider practices
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What classifies health care financing for the poor?
a. TRICARE for life b TRICARE Standard c. Medicare d.Medicaid |
Medicaid
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Health maintenance organization HMO gaind fed. support for corporate practice in.?
a. 1970 b.1972 c.1973 d.1975 |
1973
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What is one of the goals upon which the tri-care program was founded?
a. divide the mil. service healthcare facilities b.keep the retiree pop. out of MTFs c.have all pts. self treat at home d.improve benificiary access to care |
Improve beneficiary access to care
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With which health maintenance org. HMO does region 2, the mid-atlantic area of the US have a contract to Manage the TRICARE?
a. Health Net federal services b.through a lead agent c.sierra HMO d.Humana |
humana
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Which of the TRICARE options is a fee for service?
a. Tricare Prime b.TRICARE Standard c.TRICARE extra d.TRICARE for life |
TRICARE prime
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TRICARE for life was made available...?
a. 1 Sept 96 b.30 Oct. 99 b. 30 Sept 00 c. 1 Oct 01 |
1 Oct 01
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A 45 yr old pt. presents to ER w/ pain to her extremities. she says pain is worse at night. which type of neuropathy does she have?
a. focal b. peripheral c. proximal d. autonomic |
Peripheral
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A pt experienced a hypoglycemic episode, which neuropathy affects the body system that restores blood glucose lvls to normal?
a. autonomic b. focal c. peripheral d.proximal |
Autonomic
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Why do you suction a tracheostomy tube?
a. promote a positive outlook for pt's family b. clear upper airway from any foreign body c. removal secretions from the lower resp. air passage d. clear out vocal cords for better speech understanding |
Remove secretions from lower resp air passage
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When you convert the unit 0.001 grams it would equal to 1...?
a. milligram b.centigram c.microgram d.decigram |
Milligram
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When reviewing a med order, the dosage ordered by the provider is different than the dosage of the med supplied, what is the first thing you need to do?
a. contact provider b. contact nurse c. perform conversions d.calculate the order |
Perform conversions
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When you gather supplies to approximate a wound what can be used in place of sutures/staples
a.pressure dressing b. skin closure strips c. bandaid d.occlusive dressing |
Skin closure strips
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When you have a pt. who is apprehensive about needles and injections, which local anesthetic would you choose to ease pain?
a. digital block b. topical anesthetic c. local infiltration d. xylocaine |
Topical anesthetic
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When calling housekeeping to clean a room which task must the aerospace medical service craftsman still perform?
a. Empty trash daily b. terminally clean non-med equipment when pts are released c.empty sharps container d. mop/clean any slipping hazards |
Empty sharps container
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A pt √s into your clinic for same day surgery, what can you do to improve your customer service skills and make the pt feel at ease?
a. build rapport/make a good first impression b. ask peers what works for them c. never show empathy/concern d. take classes in your off time to improve customer service skills |
Build rapport and make a good first impression
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You notice a pt looking lost at main entrance of hospital, you approach and ask if they need assistance, the pt complains about a previous visit with their provider. when attempting to resolve issue, what level should you initiate resolution?
a. lowest level b.squadron commander level c.hospital commander level d. Wing Commander level |
Lowest level
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Why do you let the provider know if a QRS complex is wider than 3 blocks?
a. because the left atria is pacing the heart b. because of a possible heart block c. you don't need to the ventricles are normal d. because of ventricular repolarization |
Because of a possible heart block
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Why do you need to know if your pt is dehydrated/on drugs before performing an ECG?
a. because it elevates the p-wave b. because it decreases the P wave c. because it gives an abnormal reading d. it could influence the QT interval |
It could influence the QT interval
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When you attempt to revive a pt prior to administering any electricity to the heart what must you do?
a. a capillary refill b.take the patient's temp c.take the patient's pulse d. ask about the patient's meds |
Take the patient's pulse
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When there's no electrical activity in the heart the individual's in what arrhythmia?
a. asystole b. ventricular fibrillation c. pulseless electrical activity d.pulseless ventricular tachycardia |
asystole
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When you identify a member with a disability or med. condition whats the 1st step of the eval. process?
a. medical evaluation board b. appointment w/the PCM c. PHA d. apply an assignment limitation code |
MEB
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Why do you think med. standards and disqualifying med conditions are more stringent for flyers?
a. Flyers are TDY frequently b. Flyers are held to a higher standard c. they're a significant operational necessity of their mission d. because flyer exams occur every 2 years |
They are a significant operational necessity of their mission
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When a MEB has determined the individual is fit for duty who is responsible to review the case to determine the need of an assignment limitation code?
a. HQ AFOC/DPAMM b.HQ MAJCOM c. flight surgeon d.Med Group commander |
HQ AFOC/DPAMM
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Which condition would a member most likely to have an assignment limitation code C?
a. pregnancy b. hypertension c. obstructive sleep apnea d. mild depression |
Obstructive sleep apnea
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When you are conducting med. reviews which circumstance would require a follow-up?
a. incomplete PHA b.current profile c.completed lab work d.pts last visit greater than 6 mos |
Incomplete PHA
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when would you instruct aircrew to wear soft contact lens?
a. only during sleeping hrs b. only during waking hrs c.only during flight d. anytime they wish |
Only during waking hours
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When you have pts that are new soft contact lens wearers how often are the follow ups?
a. monthly b. every 6 months c. 1 month, 6 month, and yearly d. 1week, 1 month, 6 month, and yearly |
1 week,1 month, 6 month, and yearly
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Who is the on-scene commander for an accident on base?
a. Fire Chief b. Wing Commander c. installation commander d.EMT |
Fire Chief
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Once triage is complete communicate pt transport through the....?
a. med control center b. command post c. sec fo d.UCC |
Med control center
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Where would you send specimens being processed from aircrew fatalities?
a. Air Force personnel center b. Air Force Institute of Pathology c.medical treatment facility d.medical control center |
Air Force Institute of Pathology
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Why would you choose the freezing method for preserving tissue?
a.its the cheapest method b.it allows tissue to keep its form c. it's readily available d. it doesn't interfere w/ lab analysis |
It doesn't interfere with lab analysis
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