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60 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Combatant Commanders (COCOMs) report directly to
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a. major command (MAJCOM) commander
b. Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander c. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) d. Host nation (HN) leader |
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What functional area is responsible for setting policies, procedures, and concepts for logistics plans support of assigned and programmed forces?
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a. Installation
b. Numbered Air Force c. Secretary of Defense d. Major command (MAJCOM) |
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What senior war-fighting echelon plays an integral role as a command and control (C2) element during contingency and wartime operations?
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a. Wing
b. Squadron c. Major command (MAJCOM) d. Numbered Air Force (NAF) |
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What criterion is used to assess an operations plan (OPLAN) compliance with the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) guidance and joint doctrine?
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a. Mobility
b. Adequacy c. Feasibility d. Acceptability |
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What operations plan (OPLAN) criterion is used when considering if the resources made available for planning are used effectively or are insufficient to satisfy plan requirements?
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a. Mobility
b. Adequacy c. Feasibility d. Acceptability |
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When describing a concept of operations, an unnamed day on which a particular operation begins is known as
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a. X-Day
b. M-Day c. C-Day d. D-Day |
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What contingency planning phase makes sure that a plan properly incorporates the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment of forces and resources?
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a. Concept development
b. Plan development c. Supporting plan d. Plan review |
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Joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES) procedures that task military operation for humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping and or counter-drug operations are used to write
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a. an exercise plan
b. a functional plan c. a supporting plan d. contingency plan |
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Why are functional plans developed by combatant commanders (COCOM)?
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a. In response to chairman joint chiefs of staff (CJCS) requirements
b. To organize cargo and personnel requirements of ran exercise c. In preparation for a theater wide national disasters d. To calculate fuel requirements for theater airlift |
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What is a principal product of support planning?
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a. Various installations runway data
b. Development of the appropriate annexes. c. Signatures on all listed support agreements d. Combatant commander request for support |
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The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) consists of how many volumes?
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a. One
b. Three c. Five d. Seven |
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What volume of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) contains Unit Type Code (UTC) Availability and contains all postured UTC capabilities?
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a. WMP-1 Basic Plan and Support Supplements
b. WMP-2 Plans listing and Summary c. WMP-3 Combat and Support Forces d. WMP-4 Wartime Aircraft Activity |
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What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, Part 1 and Part 2?
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a. AFI 10-403
b. AFI 10-401 c. AFI 10-104 d. AFI 10-304 |
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What caused the merger of Department of War and the Department of the Navy into the National Military Establishment (NME)?
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a. World War I
b. World War II c. The National Security Act of 1947 d. The National Security Act Amendment of 1949 |
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Who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)?
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a. Secretary of State
b. Secretary of Defense c. Combatant commander d. President of the United States |
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Regarding National Security Strategy, how are presidential level decisions made?
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a. Through the National Security Council System (NSCS)
b. Through the Executive Legislative Branch c. With the approval of 3 or 5 Joint Chiefs d. Wirth Supreme Court approval |
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What implements, and augments presidential and Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) guidance that's forwarded in the Guidance for the Employment of the Forces (GEF)?
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a. National Security Council (NSC)
b. Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan c. Unified Command Plan (UCP) d. Operations plan (OPLAN) |
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The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System (PPBES) has how many phases?
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a. 1
b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
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Military Departments and Defense Agencies provide advice to the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System (PPBES)
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a. so that execution and accountability may be assessed properly
b. to ensure the smallest possible deployment foot print c. to ensure that assets are properly utilized d. so that the proper manning is allocated |
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What is the end result of Global For Management (GFM)
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a. Single service command in area of operations
b. Centralized force control by the Secretary of Defense c. Total implementation of the air expeditionary force (AEF) d. The timely allocation of those forces and capabilities necessary to execute combatant command missions |
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The Department of Defense (DOD) has historically conducted strategic force management
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a. through a decentralized process where the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) exercises combatant command authority over forces
b. through timely allocation of forces and capabilities necessary to execute combatant command missions c. via total implementation of the air expeditionary force (AEF) d. via command authority of the Joint Chiefs of Staff |
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The United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) controls what percentage of combat ready conventional forces?
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a. 10%
b. 35% c. 80% d. 100% |
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What crisis action phase involves the combatant (supported) commander's assessment to the President, Secretary of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
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a. Course of action development
b. Situation development c. Execution Planning d. Crisis assessment |
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What order is developed during Crisis Action Planning when the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) approves and transmits the selected course of action (COA) issued by the Chairman and may direct the supported commander to initiate Phase V?
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a. Warning order (WARNORD)
b. Planning order (PLANORD) c. Alert order (ALERTORD) d. Operation order(OPORD) |
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What is the last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process?
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a. Drafting
b. Validation c. Registration d. Construction |
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If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA) then
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a. it cannot be added to the Logistics Module (LOGMOD)
b. it cannot be tasked via time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) c. Air Combat Command (ACC) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements d. United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements |
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Who is the principal adviser to the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) on Air Force activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet combat commander (CCDR) requirements?
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a. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
b. Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) c. Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force (CMSAF) |
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Who manages and coordinates the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) schedule and tracks execution
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a. Vice Chief of Staff Air Force (VCSAF)
b. Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC) c. Commander, Air Mobility Command (COMAMC) d. Air Force Personnel Center Directorate of AEF Operation (AFPC/DPW) |
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What is an intermediate echelon of command, directly under the operational and support commands?
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a. Wing
b. Squadron c. Numbered Air Force (NAF) d. Major command (MAJCOM) |
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Who is responsible for determining a base's worst-case scenario?
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a. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
b. Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) c. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO) d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander |
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When does the installation deployment officer (IDO) identify the total number of personnel affected during the worst case scenario?
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a. After reviewing plans
b. Before reviewing plans c. When directed by the installation commander d. When directed by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander |
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The reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration (RSO&I) functions are applicable during
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a. the operations phase of military operations
b. the deployment phase of military operations c. the redeployment phase of military operations d. both the deployment and redeployment phase of military operations |
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Who directs subordinate commands and forces as necessary to carry out all aspects of military operations?
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a. Supported commander
b. Supporting commander c. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) d. Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) |
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A location in the United States or overseas that is a designated to collect unit type codes (UTCs) during a deployment is called
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a. origin
b. an egress point c. an aggregation point d. an aerial port of debarkation (APOD) |
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Selected locations in the area of responsibility (AOR) where personnel and equipment are aggregate together are called
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a. an aerial port of embarkation (APOE)
b. an aerial port of debarkation (APOD) c. a destination d. origin |
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The transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station is
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a. redeployment
b. deployment c. staging d. storing |
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Which redeployment phase responsibility is determined by the post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force?
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a. Joint Reception, Staging, Onward Movement, and Integration (JRSOI)
b. Pre-redeployment activities c. Redeployment planning d. Movement |
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It is important for the redeployment process to be flexible and able to adapt to the unique requirements of the redeployment environment because
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a. the redeployment destination may change several times before its finalized
b. the redeployment may require a far more rapid response than a deployment c. the deployed action could escalate to a wider war d. redeployment logistics are less time consuming |
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Deployed logistics planners, or designated alternates, collect as many deployment documents as possible because the
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a. home station may require the information
b. information is needed to redeploy the units c. forward location may require the information d. information is needed to close a deployed installation |
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It makes sense to have all the files and documentation ready before the redeployment order is executed because
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a. three copies of all information are required before personnel and equipment can start movement
b. the process of moving personnel and equipment happens very quickly c. the home station will not in-process inbound forces without it d. the information is needed to close a deployed installation |
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Who forwards indirect mission support requests to the next approval level via the war readiness materiel program manager (WRMPM)?
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a. War Readiness Material Officer/NCO (WRMO/WRMNCO)
b. Installation deployment officer (IDO) c. Combatant commander (COCOM) d. Wing commander |
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How many commands are responsible for managing war readiness materiel (WRM)?
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a. One
b. Two c. Three d. Four |
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What War Readiness Materials (WRM) functional area participates in WRM surveillance/staff assistance visits as requested by the Command War Readiness Material Officer (CWRMO)/NCO (CWRMNCO)?
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a. Command War Readiness Material Officer (CWRMO/CWRMNCO)
b. Command War Readiness Material Manager (CWRMM) c. Installation deployment officer (IDO) d. Combatant commander (COCOM) |
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Who accompanies the War Readiness Material (WRM) NCO during a WRM surveillance visit?
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a. The War readiness Material Program Manager (WRMPM)
b. The War Readiness Material Manager (WRMM) c. The Installation Deployment Officer (IDO) d. No one |
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Who selects the members of the installation War Readiness Material (WRM) review board?
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a. Major command (MAJCOM) commander
b. Installation deployment officer (IDO) c. Squadron commander d. Wing commander |
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Who does the War Readiness Material (WRM) Officer (WRMO)/NCO (WRMNCO) submit the WRM budget to and how often?
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a. Wing commander, annually
b. Base finance office, annually c. Wing commander, semi-annually d. Base finance office, semi-annually |
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What system do log planners use to load validated War Readiness Material (WRM) authorizations?
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a. Logistic Module (LOGMOD)
b. Combat Ammunition System (CAS) c. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) d. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) |
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The support agreement process starts when
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a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) is updated
b. the Support Agreement Manager (SAM) receives a request for support c. the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Commander directs it to start d. the Combatant Commander (COCOM) directs it to start |
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How often is a support agreement budget review performed and who conducts it?
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a. Semi-annually by the installation finance management office (FMO)
b. Annually by the installation finance management officer (FMO) c. Semi-annually by the installation deployment officer (IDO) d. Annually by the installation deployment officer (IDO) |
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A new support agreement funding annex is developed if
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a. there is more than a 10% change to the requested support
b. there is more than a 5% change to the requested support c. the exchange rate is increased by more than 10% d. the exchange rate is increased by more than 5% |
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When providing functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC) training, the supplier support agreements manager is assisted by personnel from the
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a. training office and command post
b. transportation office and the aerial port c. contracting office and the public affairs office d. manpower office and the financial analysis office |
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The purpose of the acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) is to simplify the interchange of
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a. logistics support between the US Air Force and friendly forces
b. nuclear weapons between the US Air Force and friendly forces c. logistics support between the US Air Force and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) d. weapons systems between the US Air Force and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) |
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Who coordinates with Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) on all acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) related issues, and ensures that all billing and collection requirements are completed
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a. MAJCOM ACSA managers
b. MAJCOM Financial Manager c. Installation financial analysis office (FAO) d. Numbered Air Force (NAF) ACSA manager |
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Who may assign a functional data manager a user role in the Base Support and Expeditionary Planning Tool (BaS&E)?
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a. Site manager
b. Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) c. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO) d. Functional area agreement coordinator |
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Who coordinates with the reception base or transit location on unique support requirements, suggested changes, or other impacts on reception planning?
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a. Host nation leaders
b. Deploying unit commanders c. AEF Reporting Tool (ART) monitors d. Installation personnel readiness (IPR) |
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Units are required to update/re-write a Base Support Plan/Expeditionary Site Plan (BSP/ESP) when
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a. a support agreement is updated or cancelled
b. the supported command commander directs it c. the supporting command commander directs it d. there has ben a significant change in the unit's support posture |
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Part II of the Base Support Plan/Expeditionary Site Plan (BSP/ESP) should be completed no later than how many days after the release of an updated planning document?
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a. 30 days
b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 120 days |
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What is the key to successful expeditionary site planning and must function with senior leadership involvement?
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a. Base Support Planning Committee (BSPC)
b. Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) workshop c. War Readiness Review (WRM) board d. Air power |
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How often should the Base Support Planning Committee (BSPC) hold meeting?
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a. Annually
b. Semi-annually c. Quarterly d. Monthly |
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What does the expeditionary site survey planning process define
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a. Capability
b. Strength c. Merit d. Cost |
