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149 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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a soccer player kicking a ball is the common mechanism of injury associated with apophysitis of the ___________
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anterior inferior iliac spine - due to the origin of the rectus femoris on the AIIS and the forceful contraction of the muscle when kicking |
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a runner completing hurdles is the common mechanism of injury associated with apophysitis of the ___________
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ischial tuberosity - due to the origin of the hamstrings on the ischial tuberosity and the traction force that accompanies hurdling when the hip is flexed and the knee is extended |
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a tennis player rapidly changing directions is the common mechanism of injury associated with apophysitis of the ___________
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iliac crest - due to traction forces on the iliac crest produced by simultaneous contractions of the abs. glute medius, and tensor fasciae latae |
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a sprinter coming out of the starting blocks is the common mechanism of injury associated with apophysitis of the ___________
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Anterior superior iliac spine -due to the origin of the Sartorius on the ASIS and the traction force that accompanies coming out of the starting blocks when the hip is extended and the knee is flexed |
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asthenia refers to
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generalized weakness secondary to cerebellar pathology |
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which test would be best to identify the presence of asthenia
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manual resistance to asses strength |
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what is the inability to preform rapidly alternating movements
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dysdiadochokinesia |
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what is the inability to control the range of a movement and the force of muscular activity |
dysmetria |
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alternating finger to nose is often used to test what condition that results from damage to the cerebellum |
dysdiadochokinesia |
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placing the feet on floor markers while walking is often used to test for what condition that is a result of damage to the cerebellum
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dysmetria |
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Short duration and frequent intervals
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exercise should be discontinued when a patients oxygen saturation level is below ___?___ percent
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90%
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which assistive device should be selected for a patient rehabbing from a traumatic brain injury who is occasionally impulsive but has fair standing balance and good upper and lower extremity strength?
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a walker because it offers the greatest amount of stability which would be necessary due to the patients impulsivity and fair standing balance |
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surgical insertion of a urinary catheter is commonly performed with what type of catheter
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suprapubic catheter |
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which type of catheter is a soft, flexible catheter that is surgically inserted through a vein into the pulmonary artery?
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A swan-ganz catheter
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what is a swan-ganz catheter used for
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to provide continuous measurements of pulmonary artery pressure
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what condition is defined as an increase in the number of red blood cells and concentration of hemoglobin which results in elevated blood pressure measurements.
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polycythemia
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is thrombocytosis a condition associated with an increase in blood pressure measurements
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NO - blood viscosity becomes increased due to the high platelet count but this is not associated with an increase in blood pressure |
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thrombocytosis is a condition which increases blood viscosity due to the high platelet count. this can result in an increased risk for?
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thrombosis
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A patient with recurrent lateral ankle sprains exhibits excessive supination during gait. Which condition would be most commonly associated with this type of observation?
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peroneal tenosynovitis
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peroneal tenosynovitis refers to inflammation of the peroneal tendons. Which two structures are most commonly affected with this condition and where are they located?
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- located posterior to the lateral malleolus |
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why do patients with a supinated gate typically associate with the condition of peroneal tenosynovitis
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because a supinated gate places additional stress on the peroneal tendons within the groove behind the lateral malleolus
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which condition is described as a compression neuropathy where the tibial nerve is compressed as is travels through the tarsal tunnel.
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tarsal tunnel syndrome |
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where is the tarsal tunnel located
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posterior to the medial malleolus |
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is tarsal tunnel syndrome more commonly associated with pronation or supination and why
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- pronation increases the pressure in the tunnel region often resulting in nerve compression |
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is plantar fasciitis associated with supination or pronation
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pronation |
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what does the posterior tibial tendon assist with
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is posterior tibial tenosynovitis associated with supination or pronation and why?
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- because as the condition progresses the arch of the foot can become significantly flattened |
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which condition would clinically warrant asking a patient if they feel dependent on coffee, tea, or soft drinks?
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a patient with premature ventricular contractions because the caffeine in those drinks can precipitate PVS's |
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what color is exudate documented as being serous ? is this normal for a healing wound? |
clear - yes this type of fluid is normal in the inflammatory and proliferative phases of healing |
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what color is exudate documented as purulent? Is this normal for a healing wound?
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- NO, this is generally a sign of infection |
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a pt diagnosed with end stage renal disease begins hemodialysis at an outpatient treatment center. Which frequency and duration of dialysis is most typical
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A PTA treats a patient with end stage renal disease for general deconditioning. Which 2 other symptoms would this patient most likely demonstrate
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decreased urine output and anemia |
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why do patients with end stage renal disease typically display signs of anemia |
due to the kidneys role in the production of erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates bone marrow to make red blood cells |
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are females or males at a greater increased risk of developing coronary artery disease |
Males are at a greater risk |
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would having a high density lipoprotein level of 60 mg/dl put an individual at risk for developing coronary artery disease? |
No, individuals with high density lipoprotein levels less that 40 mg/dl have an increased risk of developing this condition |
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would a 48 year old male with total serum cholesterol of 223 mg/dl be at an increased risk of developing coronary artery disease? |
Yes, the established risk threshold for males is greater than or equal to 45 years old and individuals with a total serum cholesterol greater than 200 mg/dl are at an increased risk
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what is the standard unit of measure when measuring phase charge
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coulomb |
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what is a unit of measure used to describe the rate of current |
ampere |
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what unit is used to describe resistance to electrical impedance |
ohm
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contract-relax is a technique used to increase |
range of motion |
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what technique is used to initiate movement and sustain a contraction through the range of motion, the therapist will provide a quick stretch followed by isometric or isotonic contractions |
repeated contractions |
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what can enhance the effectiveness of repeated contractions |
providing resistance at the point of weakness |
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what technique is used to increase range of motion and coordinate isometric contractions and it requires isometric contractions of all muscles around a joint against progressive resistance |
rhythmic stabilization |
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what technique uses isometric contractions to increase range of motion |
hold-relax |
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a patient is limited in passive dorsiflexion when the knee is extended but not when the knee is flexed. What muscle is responsible and why
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the gastroc is responsible because it is a 2 joint muscle that is put on slack when the knee is flexed allowing for more ankle range of motion |
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a patient rehabbing from an upper extremity injury performs an isometric resistive exercise where they are standing side ways next to a wall and abducting their arm into the wall. Which muscle is this targeting
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the supraspinatus |
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A PTA completes a developmental assessment on a 7 month old infant. Assuming norm.devel. which of the following would not be integrated? A, ATNR B. moro reflex C. landau reflex D. STNR |
C. landau reflex |
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what is the landau reflex
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an equilibrium response that occurs when a child responds to prone suspension by aligning their head and extremities in line with the plane of the body. |
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when does the landau reflex begin and when is it typically integrated |
begins at 3 months of age and is typically integrated by 2 years old |
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describe the ATNR reflex
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it is stimulated when the head is turned to one side. The response is the arm and leg on the face side are extended and the arm and leg on the scalp side are flexed. |
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when does the ATNR begin and at what age is it typically integrated
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from birth to six months old |
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how is the moro reflex stimulated
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stimulated when an infants head is suddenly dropped into extension for a few inches |
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what type of response does an infant have when the moro reflex is stimulated
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the arms abduct with fingers open, then cross the trunk into adduction often followed immediately by crying |
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when does the moro reflex begin and when is it typically integrated
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28 weeks of gestation to 5 months |
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how is the STNR reflex stimulated
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by the head moving into flexion or extension |
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what type of response occurs when the STNR is stimulated by the head moving into flexion or extension
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when the head moves in to extension- the arms are extended and the legs are flexed |
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what is the normal age of the STNR |
6-8 months |
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Assuming normal development which position would typically be the last to occur? A. modified plantigrade B. Quadruped C. ring sitting D. bridging |
A. modified plantigrade |
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when does it typically occur ? |
- characterized by LE weight bearing in supported standing while leaning with UE support on a table etc - at ten months with an age range of 10-12 months . |
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at what age does quadruped positioning typically occur in an infant
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8 months |
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at what age does an infant typically assume ring sitting position
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an infant typically assumes the bridging position at what age
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5 months |
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for a pt w/ gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), Which activity would be most problematic? A.diaphragmatic breathing in semi-fowler B. progressive amb program on treadmill C. administering percussion to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes D. assessing tactile fremitus in sitting |
C. administering percussion to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes
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why would it be problematic to administer percussion to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes on a patient with GERD
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because the patient would have to be positioned in supine with the foot of the bed elevated 18 inches. Having the head lower than the feet would significantly increase the likelihood of reflux
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1. describe the semi-fowler position 2. why wouldn't this position be problematic to a patient with GERD |
- head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees - pillows under the knees for support of a proper lumbar curve 2. Not problematic because patient is relatively upright |
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why is ambulation safe for a person with GERD
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- occurs in an upright position - does not involve excessive stomach movement |
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what does tactile fremitus refer to |
vibration of spoken words felt through the chest wall |
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what does the tactile fremitus assessment procedure provide information about?
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the density of the lungs and the thoracic cavity
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how is tactile fremitus assessed
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using the ulnar border of the hand or the palmar surface of one or both hands |
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would it be problematic for a patient with GERD to assesses tactile fremitus while palpating the chest wall in sitting ? why or why not
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No because question indicates that the patient is being assessed in an upright position which is a safe position for a patient with GERD
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Which is a valid assumption of a submax test? A. a steady state HR is obtained @ progressively decreasing work rates. B. an inverse relat. exists btwn HR & work rate C. maxHR 4 a given chronological age is variable D. max O2 consumption @ a given work rate is the same for everyone |
D. maximum oxygen consumption at a given work rate is the same for everyone
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__(A)__ exercise testing is commonly used to predict maximal oxygen consumption, however, the equations required make assumptions that tend to increase measurement error when compared to a __(B)_ test. |
A- submaximal B- maximal |
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a ____ exercise test is considered the gold standard for measuring aerobic capacity, however, the utility of the test is limited in many individuals whose performance may be limited by pain or fatigue rather than exertion. |
- Maximal
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"a steady state HR is obtained at progressively decreasing work rates" is a FALSE assumption of a submax test. A. Find the word which makes the statement an INVALID (false) assumption. B. Replace that word with a word that makes the sentence a VALID (true) assumption |
A. the word " decreasing" makes the statement false B. changing the word to " increasing" would make it a VALID assumption
" a steady state heart rate is obtained at progressively increasing work rates" |
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The statement "an inverse relationship exists between HR and work rate" is a FALSE (INVALID) assumption of a submax exercise test. A. Find the word which makes the statement an INVALID (false) assumption. B. Replace that word with a word that makes the sentence a VALID (true) assumption |
A. The word " Inverse" makes the sentence a false assumption of a submax test. B. Changing the word to " linear" would make it a valid assumption of a submax test - a linear relationship exists between heart rate and work rate. |
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The statement "maximal heart rate for a given chronological age is variable" is a FALSE assumption of a submax exercise test. A. Find the word which makes the statement an INVALID assumption. B. Replace that word with a word that makes the sentence a VALID (true) assumption |
A. the word "variable" makes this false B.the word to "uniform" would make the statement a valid assumption of a submax test
- maximal heart rate for a given chronological age is uniform. |
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A PTA observes the gait of a patient who has sustained a lateral ankle sprain ( w/o crutches). During walking it is expected that the UNAFFECTED extremity will have a (longer/shorter) swing phase which typically produces a (longer/shorter) step length.
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The unaffected extremity will have a shorter swing phase and a shorter step length
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when descending a step with axillary crutches the (involved/uninvolved) lower extremity and crutches are moved from the step to the ground, while the upper extremities and the (involved/uninvolved) lower extremity are used to slowly lower the body.
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the involved LE and crutches are moved from step to ground while the UE's and uninvolved LE are used to lower body
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would twice per day be a desirable frequency of exercise for senior citizens who are trying to improve cardiovascular status through a low intensity activity such as a walking program?
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No - This could be recommended to individuals who have difficulty sustaining exercise for 30 min. continuously or who prefer shorter bouts of therx. However, This isn't the most desirable intensity/frequency to improve cardiovascular status. |
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would once per week be a desirable frequency of exercise for senior citizens who are trying to improve cardiovascular status through a low intensity activity such as a walking program?
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NO - once per week is an inadequate frequency to improve CV fitness when exercising at a low intensity |
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would 5x per week be a desirable frequency of exercise for senior citizens who are trying to improve cardiovascular status through a low intensity activity such as a walking program?
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YES - since walking is a low intensity activity, more frequent exercise sessions are needed to improve CV status. |
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Exercising 3x per week at a (A. vigorous/ B. low) level would be an appropriate frequency & intensity to improve cardiovascular status
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A. vigorous level - at a vigorous level 3x/wk would be an appropriate frequency & intensity. However, It would not be the most desirable frequency for low intensity exercise |
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For a patient diagnosed with congestive hear failure, which condition would be most responsible for the patients limited therx tolerance? (A.) diminished lung volumes (B.) arterial oxygen desaturation (C.) insufficient stroke vl during ventricular systole (D.) excessive rise in BP |
C. insufficient SV during ventricular systole |
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Congestive heart failure may be due systolic dysfunction which is described as
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a diminished pumping ability of the ventricles secondary to muscle weakening
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CHF may be due to diastolic dysfunction which is described as
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stiffening of the heart muscle that impairs the ventricles capacity to relax and fill
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A PTA measures a patient for a wheel chair. When measuring back height, you should measure from the seat of the chair to the ( acromion process / base of the axilla) and subtract (2 inches / 4 inches)
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from seat of chair to base of the axilla and subtract 4 inches |
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subtracting 4 inches when measuring back height for a WC allows the back height to fall below the _________ which allows for optimal mobility
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inferior angle of the scapula
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when measuring for back height of a WC, the height of the seat cushion used, if applicable, must be ( added / subtracted ) to the obtained measurement
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height of seat cushion must be ADDED to the obtained measurement
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A pt is exercising & begins experiencing chest pain. After 20min of rest his condition is unchanged but he insists he can work through it. Should you A. dec. therx intensity&monitor his condition B. DC session& encourage pt to make dr apt. C. DC session & call ambulance |
C. discontinue session and call an ambulance - if angina symptoms are not relieve by cessation of exercise and rest, the patient should be transported to the nearest emergency center. |
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whats the best action to facilitate ambulation in the ll bars for a pt in a WC status post abdom surgery who has not ambu. in over 2 weeks? A. assist pt to standing B. demonstrate amb in the bars C. secure additional staff member for assistance |
B. demonstrate ambulation in the parallel bars - demonstration allows the PTA to model the appropriate technique for the patient in a controlled learning environment |
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classifying a patient as requiring minimal assistance means the patient Is able to at least ______% of the work.
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75% |
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A patient would be classified as needing _________ assistance if the patient was able to perform at least 50% of the work
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moderate assistance
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A patient has a wound w/ large quantities of exudate requiring frequent dressing changes . What would happen if a PTA applied a dressing that couldn't handle the quantity of exudate present?
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maceration
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maceration refers to
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softening of connective tissue fibers due to excessive moisture |
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the result of maceration is a loss of __A__ and a wound that is highly susceptible to ____B___ or ___C____
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A. pigmentation B. breakdown C. enlargement |
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transparent film is an example of a dressing that would be ( A. able , B. unable) to handle a significant amount of exudate
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- transparent film can not handle a large amount of exudate |
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an alginate dressing is an example of a dressing that would be ( A. able , B. unable) to handle a significant amount of exudate
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A. ABLE
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why do alginate dressings tend to absorb exudate
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because they are highly permeable |
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what does granulation refer to
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perfused, fibrous connective tissue that replaces a fibrin clot in a healing wound |
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epithelialization refers to
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the process of epidermal resurfacing |
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epithelialization appears as
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pink or red skin |
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___?____ tissue is highly vascular and fills the defects of full-thickness wounds |
granulation |
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signs and symptoms of infection include
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puss, redness, pain, swelling |
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more generalized symptoms of infection may include |
fever, chills, increased pulse rate |
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lab values associated with infection include |
an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate and white blood cell count |
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a patient w/ a grade 1 ankle sprain describes a mechanism of injury consistent with inversion and plantarflexion. which ligament is most likely affected |
anterior talofibular ligament |
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The anterior talofibular ligament is a thickening of the __A___ that extends from the anterior surface of the __B__ to the lateral facet of the talus and the lateral surface of the talar neck. |
B. lateral malleolus |
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the anterior talofibular ligament functions to resist ___A__ with the foot in __B___ |
A. ankle inversion B. plantar flexion |
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Regardless of the position of the foot, the ______ ligament is the most likely ligament torn with an inversion injury
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anterior talofibular |
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the calcaneofibular ligament is a round cord that passes posteoinferiorly from the tip of the __A__ to the lateral surface of the __B__ |
A. Lateral Malleolus B. calcaneus |
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the calcaneofibular ligament functions to resist ______ and ______
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ankle inversion and dorsiflexion
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the anterior TIBIOfibular ligament provides support to the _______
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distal tibiofibular joint |
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the anterior tibiofibular ligament resists _____ |
distal and posterior glide of the fibula |
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the deltoid ligament refers to the __A__ of the ankle. The ligament as a whole attaches proximally to the medial aspect of the __B__ and fans out to the various distal attachments. |
B. medial malleolus |
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a grade 1 ankle sprain is a minor injury that involves _____ of the ligament or perhaps a small _____ of the ligament
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stretching or a small partial tear |
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treatment for a grade 1 ankle sprain consists of
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RICE |
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A PTA applying iontophoresis to a patients knee wants to keep the current density low to avoid skin irritation. Current density may be altered either by increasing or decreasing _____ or by changing the ______ |
increasing or decreasing current intensity or by changing the size of the electrode |
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with iontophoresis current density= _____ divided by _____ |
current density= current amplitude (mA) divided by electrode size (cm2) |
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A PTA applying ionto wants to keep the current density low to avoid skin irritation. Which would be the best parameters? A. current amp of 4mA; 12cm2 electrode B.4mA; 4cm2 electrode C. 3mA;6cm2 electrode D. 3mA; 4cm2 electrode |
since current density= mA/cm2 then choice A. 4mA ; 12cm2 electrode would be the best choice for lowest current density A. 4mA/12cm2= .33 B. 4mA/4cm2= 1 C. 3mA/6cm2= .50 D. 3mA/4cm2= .75 |
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what is the goniometric measurement for radial deviation assuming normal ROM
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0-20 degrees
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what is the gonio measurement for normal wrist ulnar deviation
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0-30 degrees |
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what is the gonio measurement for normal wrist extension |
0-70 deg. |
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when taking a gonio measurement of wrist radial deviation where is the axis of the gonio? the stationary arm? The moving arm?
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A- middle of dorsal aspect of wrist over capitate SA-dors. midline of forearm, lat epicond. as reff. MA- dors. midline of 3rd metacarpal |
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is cerebellar dysfunction typically associated with hypertonia or hypotonia?
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- This causes the pt to have difficulty fixating the limb, leading to incoordination w/ movement. |
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what is defined as abnormal eye movement that entails nonvolitional, rhythmic oscillation of the eyes
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nystagmus |
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is nystagmus associated with cerebellar dysfunction?
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YES
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what is Ataxia? is this associated with cerebellar dysfunction?
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The inability to perform coordinated movements. Yes its associated with cerebellar dysfunction |
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what condition: Can affect gait, patterns of movement, & posture. The condition increases incidence of errors in the rate, rhythm, & timing of responses. |
ataxia
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cerebellar pathology is often characterized by...
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incoordinated movement
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specific motor impairments associated with cerebellar pathology include? (7)
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Ataxia, Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Nystagmus, Scanning speech, Tremor |
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Dysmetria, the inability to control the range of a movement and force of mm activity, often results in _______ or __________.
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overshooting or undershooting
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what are the signs of cold intolerance (6)
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Pain, Cyanosis, Wheals, Mottling, Increased pulse rate, and Significant drop in blood pressure |
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A patient shows signs of cold intolerance within 60 seconds of a cold immersion bath. Should the PTA select a different cryotherapeutic agent or discounting cold application& document findings |
The PTA should discontinue cold application and document the findings
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What should a PTA instruct a patient with T10 paraplegia to do in the event of a backward fall
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place one hand behind the head and the other hand across their lap |
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What is the purpose of a T10 paraplegic placing one hand across the lap in the event of a backward fall
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To prevent the LE's from hitting the patients face
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A pt 4 weeks status post ACL reconstruction asks the PTA why he is still partial weight bearing. An acceptable rational is..
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The pt does not have full active knee extension
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Why can't patients who have had ACL reconstruction surgery begin full weight bearing until they have full active knee extension?
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bc ambulation on a flexed knee can result in excessive irritation of the patellofemoral joint
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would the presence of diminished superficial cutaneous sensation influence a patients weight bearing status?
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No |
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During gait, what is the role of the quadriceps during initial contact (loading response)?
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To control the amount of knee flexion |
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what Is the role of the quads toward midstance?
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to extend the knee |
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The quads also control the amount of knee flexion during __A___ and they prevent ___B__ during initial swing.
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B. prevent excessive heel rise during initial swing |
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What are the hamstrings responsible for controlling during terminal swing?
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the forward swing of the leg |
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The hamstrings provide posterior support to the ____ when the knee is extended during _____.
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- knee capsule - during stance |
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Would having fair hamstring strength be adequate for FWB on the involved LE post ACL reconstruction assuming absence of other relevant clinical findings ? |
Yes fair HS strength would be adequate for FWB
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which 3 boney landmarks are used to measure Q angle
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ASIS, Midpoint of patella, Tibial tubercle |
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The Q angle refers to the angle between __A__ and __A___. The angle represents the angle of ___B____.
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A- the quad muscles and the patella tendon B- quadriceps muscle force. |
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What are the normal Q angle values for males and females?
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Females- 18 degrees |
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An increased Q angle above 18 degrees may be associated with what conditons? (4) |
- Patellar tracking dysfunction - subluxing patella - increased femoral anteversion - increased lateral tibial torsion |
