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147 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A PTA shows a pt rehabbing from thoracic surgery how to produce an effective cough. Which position is most appropriate for the pt to be in
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Sitting
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an effective cough requires an inspiration greater than ___A__?
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tidal volume |
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is it possible to perform the max inhale needed for an effective cough while standing? is it appropriate for a pt rehabbing from thoracic surgery?
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it is possible to perform a max inhalation while standing position but this is not the most appropriate position after thoracic surgery.
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alternating isometrics consists of isometric contractions that are performed......?
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alternating from muscles on one side of joint to other side w/o rest
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what do alternating isometrics emphasize? |
endurance or strengthening |
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resisted progression is a technique used to improve...?
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coordination of proximal components during gait
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How is resisted progression performed? what is this technique used to enhance?
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resistance is applied to an area such as pelvis, hips or extremity during gait to enhance coordination, strength, or endurance
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agonistic reversal consists of a __A__ contraction performed against resistance followed by ___B__ & __B__ w/ resistance.
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A- concentric B- alternating concentric and eccentric contractions |
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agonistic reversal is used in a __A__ & __A__ manner and may be used incrementally throughout the range to attain __B__.
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A- slow and sequential B- maximum control |
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PTA focuses on inc. ROM thru stretch/PNF techniques w/ pt in supine performing contraction of HS against manual resistance by PTA f/b stretch of HS by PTA. Which PNF technique is being used?
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contract relax
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what is the most appropriate action to promote compliance w/ an HEP for a pt who is illiterate
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draw pictures to describe the exercises
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A PTA works w/ a pt post femur fx w/ external fixation. The PTA observes clear drainage from a distal pin site. The most approp. action is?
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Use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage and continue with the exercise session
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which pain scale does this describe: 12 descriptor items ea centered over 21 horizontal dashes. @ very L is - sign, @ very R is + sign. pt asked to rate pain in terms of ea descriptor.
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the descriptor differential scale |
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which px scale: Most often used to assess px affect. Consists of series of adjectives describing increasing levels of unpleasantness ie " distracting", "oppressive", "agonizing"
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Verbal rating scale
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which px scale: 10-15cm line w/ ea end anchored by 1 extreme of perceived px intensity. Pt asked to mark line the point that describes their present pain level.
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visual analogue scale |
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which pain scale: this scale asks pts to rate their perceived level of px intensity on a numerical scale 0-10 or 0-100
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numerical rating scale
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name ea pain scale pictured numbered 1-4
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1. verbal rating scale, 2. visual analogue scale 3. numerical rating scale, 4. wong baker faces scale |
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which finding would be 1st to occur for a 5 yr old diagnosed w/ duchenne MD less than 1 yr ago: A. distal mm weakness, B. proximal mm weakness C. impaired respiratory func. D. inability to perform ADL's
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B. PROXIMAL muscle weakness
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inflammation of a vertebra is referred to as
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spondylitis |
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a defect in the pars interarticularis or the arch of the vertebra is referred to as
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spondylolysis
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forward displacement of one vertebra over another (graded on a scale of 1-5 based on how much it has slipped) is referred to as
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spondylolisthesis |
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the condition where a vertebral body is completely off of the adjacent vertebral body is referred to as? what would this be graded on the 1-5 scale?
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- spondyloptosis - grade 5 |
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whats the best response to a pt who asks what effect anemia will have on his ability to complete therx program: A. may feel like ur mm are weak, B. may have frequent nasea, C. aerobic capacity may be reduced. D. may have tendency to become fatigued
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D. you may have a tendency to become fatigued
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a PTA assists a pt in lat. weight shifting activities while positioned in prone on elbows. Which therX technique would allow the pt to improve dynamic stability w/ this activity?
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approximation |
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which facilitation technique: uses max resistance to elicit a sequence of contractions from major mm components of a pattern of motion. Allows overflow to occur from strong to weak muscles.
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timing for emphasis |
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which facilitation technique is indicated when there is instability in weight bearing, poor static postural control, and/or weakness?
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alternating isometrics
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which facilitation tech. is indicated when there is weakness and/or incoordination and is commonly used in conjunction w/ repeated contractions?
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timing for emphasis |
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which facilitation technique is indicated with hypertonicity, inability to initiate movement, motor learning deficits, and communication deficits?
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rhythmic initiation
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which condition could be confirmed using x-ray: A. bicipital tendonitis B. calcific tendonitis C. supraspinatus impingement D. subacromial bursitis
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B. calcific tendonitis
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the majority of inflammatory conditions of the shoulder etc. would be formally diagnosed using which type of diagnostic imaging?
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MRI
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which condition is characterized by subjective reports of a deep ache directly in front & on top of the shoulder. Made worse w/ overhead activities/lifting
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bicipital tendonitis |
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which shoulder condition is characterized by a feeling of weakness & identifying presence of a painful arc of motion btwn 60-120 degrees of active shoulder ABD? which other shld condition has a very similar presentation?
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- Supraspinatus impingement - subacromial bursitis has a very similar clinical presentation |
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A pta works w/ a pt w/ cerebral palsy. The pta has limited experience w/ CP & is nervous about ability to provide appropriate treatment. What should PTA do: A. co-treat pt w/ supervising PT, B. treat the pt, C. refuse to treat the pt
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A. co- treat the patient with the supervising PT
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pt w/ claims of complete paresis of RLE . PTA does hoover test (pt supine, PTA puts 1 hand under ea calcaneus & asks pt to perform a rapid SLR w/ uninvolved LLE). Which finding would best dispute pts claims of RLE paresis?
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The patient exerts a downward force into the PTAs hand with their right heel
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a pt w/ ankylosing spondylitis has a forward stooped posture. Which PNF pattern would be best to promote improved posture ?
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D2 flexion
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the command for D ( 1 or 2) (flexion or extension) would be to open your hand and push down & away from your body
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D1 extension
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the command for D ( 1 or 2) (flexion or extension) would be to close your hand and pull down and across your body
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D2 extension
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the command for D ( 1 or 2) (flexion or extension) would be to close you hand and pull up and across your body
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D1 flexion
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the command for D ( 1 or 2) (flexion or extension) would be to open your hand and pull up and away from your body
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D2 flexion
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when administering the Romberg test it would be most important for the PTA to determine:
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The amount of sway present during the testing period
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A positive Romberg test is indicative of loss of __?___ often associated w/ a posterior column lesion in spinal cord or a peripheral neuropathy
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proprioception
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what position is a patient in when performing a Romberg test
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standing with the feet together |
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what is the only variable being manipulated when administering the Romberg test |
whether the eyes are opened or closed
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A positive Romberg test is characterized by
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pt standing w/ no more than minimal sway w/ eyes open, but has increased instability or falls when the eyes are closed
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A PTA works w/ a pt diagnosed w/ peripheral arterial disease. Which objective finding would most severely limit pt ability to do an ambulation program. A. signs of resting claudication, B. dec. peripheral pulse, C. cool skin. D. bp 165/90
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- resting claudication typically considered a contraindication to active exercise in pts w/ p.a.d. |
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Which structure: Makes up the broad upper portion of the sternum, it is quadrangular in shape and it articulates with the clavicles & 1st 2 ribs
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the manubrium
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which joint consists of the clavicle articulating with the manubrium of the sternum
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sternoclavicular joint
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which anatomical landmark refers to the "v" shaped notch at the top of the sternum?
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the suprasternal notch
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which structure refers to the small extension of the lower portion of the sternum, It is cartilaginous at birth and usually ossifies & unites w/ the body of the sternum by 40 years of age?
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the xiphoid process
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a surgeon wants his THA (post.lat. approach) pt to continue to wear a knee immobilizer in order to help prevent hip dislocation. The primary rational for this action is?
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The knee immobilizer reduces hip flexion by maintaining knee extension
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which lung volume is defined as the total volume of air that can be inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing
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tidal volume |
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which lung volume is defined as the maximum volume of air to which the lungs can be expanded
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total lung capacity
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normal tidal volume is approximately what percent of total lung capacity
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10% |
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The average tidal volume for a healthy adult is __?__ mL.
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500 mL. |
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typically in a healthy adult the average total lung capacity is?
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4,000-6,000mL |
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what is inspiratory reserve volume defined as? what percent of total lung capacity is IRV?
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- the additional volume of air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal inhalation - approximately 50% of TLC |
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residual volume is defined as? what percent of TLC is RV?
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- The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiratory effort. - approximates 25% of TLC |
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functional residual capacity is defined as? What percent of TLC is FRC?
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- The amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal tidal exhalation. - approximates 40% of TLC |
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pt sustained a traumatic shoulder injury 1 wk ago. He has px, inflamm., & mm spasm globally in shld. what intervention most appropriate? and why? A. grade1&2 joint mobs, B. bent over rows/light weight, C. door stretch for pec. maj., D. PNF w/o resistance
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A. Grade 1 and 2 joint mobilizations - bc grade 1&2 joint mobs help control pain by stimulating mechanoreceptors |
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In which stage of healing would it be appropriate to do bent over rows w/ a light hand weight for a pt who suffered a traumatic shoulder injury playing basketball
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subacute stage of healing
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In which stage of healing would it be appropriate for a pt, who suffered a traumatic shoulder injury during Bball, to perform doorway stretches for the pectoralis major?
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during the subacute stage of healing
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AROM exercise like PNF patterns w/o resistance are appropriate for a pt w/ a shoulder injury during the subacute stage of healing but AROM exercises used at __A__ would be acceptable for the acute stage of healing |
A. adjacent joints
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A PTA notices a transtibial amputee ambulating in gym cant maintain full knee extension during the loading response on the prosthetic side. What is the most likely rational for this
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alignment of the foot into excessive dorsiflexion
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if a transtibial amputee has weak hip flexors, could this cause the patient to not be able to maintain full knee extension during loading response on the prosthetic side
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no hip flexor weakness would not contribute to instability of the knee.
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would hip extensor weakness contribute to instability of the knee
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yes, knee instability that occurs during initial contact through midstance is often associated with weakness of the hip extensors
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if a transtibial amputee has pistoning of the residual limb w/in the prosthesis, what gait deviation will you see
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bc pistoning of the limb w/in a socket can result from inadequate suspension, the prosthesis will typically become longer & the pt will experience difficulty w/ toe clearance during swing phase
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for a transtib amputee, knee instability can occur due to a SACH foot that is too ( A. soft, B. stiff), thus creating a greater flexion moment at the knee upon contact.
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B. stiff
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what happens when a transtib amputee has a SACH foot that is too soft
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A soft SACH foot results in plantar flexion at the ankle and a subsequent extension moment at the knee upon contact
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a rocker bottom shoe would be most beneficial for a patient diagnosed with what condition? and why would this type of shoe be beneficial for them?
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- hallux rigidus ( degenerative arthritis due to bone spurring that effects the 1st MTP joint) - RB shoes reduce extension of the hallux during gait. This reduces pain & allows for an increased activity level |
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what type of shoe modification might help a person with Achilles tendonitis?
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a heel lift which places foot in a relatively plantarflexed position to reduce traction on the Achilles tendon
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what type of shoe modification might help a person with plantar fasciitis
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- a heel cup, medial longitudinal arch taping or orthotics
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management for posterior tibial tendonitis may include
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bracing & orthotics designed to support the arch and reduce pressure on the tendon
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which exercise would be most problematic for a person w/ patellofemoral pain syndrome: A. TKE in standing, B. mini squats from 0-30 deg. knee flex. C. LAQ's from 0-45deg. knee flex., D. quad setting in TKE in supine
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C. long arch quads from 0-45 degrees of knee flexion
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if treating a pt w/ patellofemoral pain syndrome, its important to know that w/ closed chain activities, patellofemoral joint forces are relatively low from _?_ to_?_ deg. of __?__ & activities in this range wont exacerbate symptoms
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from 0-30 degrees of knee flexion
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the patellofemoral joint reaction forces for open chain activities are lowest at _A_ deg. of _A_. The jt reaction forces increase as knee moves closer to _A_. Therefore, OC exercises btwn _B_ to _B_ deg of knee _B_ are not recommended.
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A- lowest at 90 degrees of flexion, forces increase as knee moves closer to full extension B- open chain exercises btwn 0-45 degrees of knee flexion are not recommended |
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a pt w/ a THA posterolateral approach is having trouble reaching feet to don/doff shoes. What motion should be emphasized to achieve improved independence w/ this skill?
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hip lateral rotation - the pt can laterally rotate the hip and place their foot on the opposite knee to don/doff shoes |
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what is a person stretching if they have their hands laced behind their head with their elbows pointing out and back
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pec minor |
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compression therapy is LEAST likely for which pt: A. 68y.o M w/ LE edema d/t CHF, B. 56yo F post TKA, C. 14y.o M who sustained burn to LE's 3 months ago D. 78y.o F w/ recent transfem amputation
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A. 68 year old male with lower extremity edema due to congestive heart failure |
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why shouldn't compression therapy be used on a person with CHF |
bc movement of fluid from the periphery back to the heart may further increase the stress on an already failing heart
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what is the ejection fraction? |
a measure of left ventricular contractility
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how is ejection fraction determined? what is the normal value of ejection fraction?
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- dividing stroke vl by left ventricular end-diastolic volume - norm is 55-70% |
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for ejection fration, anything less than 55% of the blood pumped out the ventricles w/ ea heart beat is abnormal and indicates?
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impairment in left ventricular function - ejection fraction is decreased in people w/ left side congestive heart failure |
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a PTA works w/ pt w/ CHF who has dyspnea during ambulation. The pt has ejection fraction less than 55%. Which intervention most appropriate? A. pursed lip breathing B. progressive resistive therx, C. education on energy conservation D. instruction on diaphragmatic breathing |
C. education on energy conservation |
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maximal aerobic capacity for older men and women typically ranges from _?_ to _?_ MET's
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5-8 MET's |
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maximal aerobic capacity for younger men and women typically ranges from _?_ to_?_ MET's
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8-12 MET's |
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max aerobic capacity for highly trained men and women has been shown to reach _?_ to _?_ MET's
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15-20 MET's |
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a max aerobic capacity of 3 METs is extremely low regardless of age/gender. ie walking 3mph on a level, firm surface is aprox. 3.5 METs. A max aero. cap. of 3 METs is likely associated w/
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significant pathology or illness |
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A PTA works w/ a 36 y.o F who is recreationally active and has no relevant past medical history. Which MET level would be most consistent w. the pts anticipated maximal aerobic capacity? |
10 METs - max aerobic capacity for men and women typically ranges from 8-12 METs. The pts age and activity level make it likely that the anticipated max aerobic capacity would fall in this range |
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PTA should educate pt w/ type2 diabetes mellitus& neuropathy in BLE's about proper foot care by telling pt: A. wear shoes snug on toes to prevent blisters, B. choose socks w/o seams to avoid irritating the skin on foot
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B. choose socks without seams to avoid irritating the skin on the foot - though pts w/ neuropathy shouldn't wear shoes that are too loose, they should also avoid shoes that are too snug in the toe box |
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should a pt w/ type2 diabetes mellitus& neuropathy in BLE's soak their feet in warm water once daily then apply petroleum jelly to retain skin moisture?
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NO, prolonged soaking can remove the natural protective barrier from the skin & make it fragile. However petroleum jelly after washing/drying would be appropriate to retain nautral moisture
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what is the patient position when performing postural drainage to the apical segment of the right upper lobe
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patient is positioned in sitting to treat apical segments of upper lobes
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how is a pt positioned when performing postural drainage to the posterior segment of left lower lobe
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in prone using trendelenburg position to treat the posterior segments of the lower lobes
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how is a pt positioned when performing postural drainage to the anterior segment of the right upper lobe
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supine, flat on table, to treat the anterior segment of the right upper lobe
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how is a pt positioned when performing postural drainage to the superior segment of left lower lobe
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in prone, flat on table, to treat superior segment of lower lobes
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postural drainage on a 68y.o w/ bronchiectasis &past med history of diabetes/hypertension, both poorly controlled. which lung segment would require PTA to modify standard treatment procedure? A. apical seg. of RUL, B. Post. seg. of LLL, C. ant. seg of RUL, D. superior seg of LLL
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B. posterior segment of left lower lobe - pt would be in prone using trendelenburg position to treat posterior segments of lower lobes. Due to uncontrolled hypertension, position would have to be modified by leavin HOB flat |
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which is a better predictor of the need for a topical moisturizer after a burn: A. depth of the burn, B. cause of the burn ( ie steam, chemical,fire etc.)
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A. the depth of a burn is a better predictor of the need for a topical moisturizer
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Why is the depth of a burn a better predictor of the need for a topical moisturizer than the cause of the burn?
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because the permanent need for topical moisturizer after a burn only occurs if the sebaceous glads, which produce oil and moisten skin, are destroyed. A full thickness burn would have to occur.
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what layer(s) of skin does a superficial burn involve? would this impact the sebaceous glands?
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- epidermis - minimally |
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what layer(s) of skin does a superficial partial thickness burn involve? Would this impact the sebaceous glands?
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- epidermis and upper portion of the dermis - bc the glands are located in the dermis, they would be impacted initially, but will eventually recover |
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what layer(s) of skin does a deep partial thickness burn involve? Would this impact the sebaceous glands?
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- complete destruction of epidermis & majority of dermis - glands would be impacted to larger extent than in a superficial part-thick burn, but since burn isn't full thickness, there will eventually be some recovery of seb. glands |
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what layer(s) of skin does a full thickness burn involve? Would this impact the sebaceous glands?
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- complete destruction of epidermis & dermis w/ partial damage to subcutaneous fat layer - Destroys sebaceous glands and creates permanent need for topical moisturizers |
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which intervention should be avoided for a pt w/ graves ds, & is 6wks post THA/p.l.approach: A. supine resisted hip lat. rot., B. standing hip abd w/ ankle weight, C. stair training, D. ambulation in warm therapy pool
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D. ambulation in a warm therapy pool should be avoided for this patient
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why should ambulation in a warm therapy pool be avoided for a patient who is 6wks post THA/p.l.approach w/ a past medical history of graves disease
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- pt's w/ graves disease have an accelerated metabolic rate and are intolerant of warm environments. However, amb in a regular temp pool or on land would be appropriate
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for patients with end stage renal disease, would it be appropriate to monitor exercise intensity using maximal age- predicted heart rate
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NO, autonomic dysfunction may limit maximal age-predicted heart rate by as much as 20-40 bpm in pt's w/ end stage renal ds
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because age-predicted max HR is not appropriate to monitor exercise intensity for pt's w/ end stage renal ds, what other method can be used to monitor exercise intensity ?
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Rate of perceived exertion scale
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Should a formal exercise stress test be administered prior to initiating an exercise program for a patient with end stage renal disease
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an exercise stress test is typically not necessary for pt's w/ ESRD bc mm fatigue typically limits the testing procedures necessary for testing and therefore the data generated is of limited value
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When designing an exercise program for a pt w/ ESRD on hemodialysis, should you progressively increase the duration of exercise to 60-90 minutes?
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Though, progressing the duration of exercise is desirable for pt's w/ ESRD, 60-90 min is excessive. A duration of 30 min. is a more realistic goal.
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General exercise guidelines for a pt's w/ ESRD include exercise _?_ to _?_ times per week at _?_ intensities.
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four to six times per week at low intensities |
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would the abductor pollicis longus contribute to median nerve entrapment?
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NO - the APL is innervated by the radial nerve & therefore wouldn't contribute to median nerve entrapment |
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would the flexor digiti minimi contribute to median nerve entrapment
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No - FDM is innervated by the ulnar nerve |
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would the flexor digitorum profundus contribute to median nerve entrapment
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No - The medial aspect of the FDP is innervated by the ulnar nerve, and even though the lateral aspect is innervated by median nerve, it still would not contribute to median n entrapment |
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would the pronator teres contribute to median nerve entrapment
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YES - the median nerve arises from the cubital fossa & passes between the two heads of the pronator teres. As a result the pronator teres can be a possible source of median nerve entrapment |
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a 13yo F injured her knee playing soccer &discusses possible ACL reconstruction w/ surgeon. Which would have greatest influence on her candidacy for surgery: A. anthropometric measurements, B. HS/quad strength ratio, C. skeletal maturity, D. somatotype
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C. skeletal maturity - d/t potential impact on future bone growth, lack of skel. maturity can be a contraindication to ACL reconstruction |
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During treatment session w/ 1 month old, the pta strokes the infants cheek causing the infant to turn its mouth toward the stimulus. This action is utilized to assess the..
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rooting reflex
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mechanical lumbar traction is being used for pt rehabbing from back injury. Goal is to decrease pt's muscle spasm. The most appropriate force based on the stated objective is..
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25% of body weight
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pt had recent lab test. Med. record indicates pt was dehydrated at time blood sample was taken. Based on pt hydration status, would increased coagulation time be a likely finding?
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NO -prothrombin time & partial thromboplastin time measure the coagulation of blood . Increased coagulation time indicates increased time to form a clot. Neither test is affected by hydration status |
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pt had recent lab test. Med. record indicates pt was dehydrated at time blood sample was taken. Based on pt hydration status, would a decreased hematocrit level be a likely finding?
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No, hematocrit level would be increased - hematocrit measures the % of RBC in a vl of blood. Hematocrit may be increased when the bodys water content is decreased d/t dehydration, diarrhea, vomiting, excessive sweating, severe burns and use of diuretics |
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pt had recent lab test. Med. record indicates pt was dehydrated at time blood sample was taken. Based on pt hydration status, would increased blood urea nitrogen level be a likely finding?
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YES - blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test assesses kidney function. An increased BUN level can be indicative of dehydration, renal or heart failure |
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pt had recent lab test. Med. record indicates pt was dehydrated at time blood sample was taken. Based on pt hydration status, would a decreased hemoglobin level be a likely finding?
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No - a low hemo level is indicative of anemia. Hemo level may be Increased when bodys water content is decreased d/t d/t dehydration, diarrhea, vomiting, excessive sweating, severe burns and use of diuretics |
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if a WC has excessive seat width, which adverse effect will result from this?
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difficulty propelling WC
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if a WC has excessive seat depth, which adverse effect will result from this?
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increased pressure to distal posterior thighs
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How is WC seat width determined? what is the standard seat width for the average adult?
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- measuring the widest aspect of the users buttocks, hips, or thighs and adding 2 inches. - avg: 18 inches |
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how is WC seat depth determined? whats the average seat depth for an adult WC? |
- measured from post. buttocks, along lateral thigh to the popliteal fold, then Subtract 2 inches - avg: 16 inches |
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What is the highest spinal cord injury level where learning to drive an adapted van would be a realistic independent functional outcome
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C6 |
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pt classifies intensity of exercise as 16 using borges (20 point) rating of perceived exertion scale. This classification best corresponds to _?__ % of the max HR range..
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85% of the heart rate range corresponds to an RPE of 16 (hard+) |
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the 20 point RPE scale ranges from a minimum value of __?__ to a max value of 20
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6 |
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60% of the heart rate range corresponds to an RPE of
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12-13 (somewhat hard) |
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an RPE of 14 or 15 ( between somewhat hard and hard) corresponds to what percent of the heart rate range
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70% |
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what is the action and innervation of the tibialis anterior
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- deep peroneal nerve |
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A pta does a lower quarter screening attempts to palpate the tibialis anterior. The most appropriate action to facilitate palpation is?
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ask patient to actively move the foot into dorsiflexion and inversion
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which side effect would be most likely for a parkinsons pt who has been receiving levodopa therapy for 2 yrs: A. bradykinesia, B. choreoathetosis, C. shuffling gait, D. rigidity |
B. choreoathetosis |
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What is choreoathetosis |
a type of dyskinesia characterized by uncontrolled, involuntary movements. |
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the onset of dyskinesias can occur as soon as 3 months after first receiving __?__ |
levodopa therapy |
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are bradykinesia, shuffling gait, and rigidity side effects of receiving levodopa therapy
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No, these are common characteristics of parkinsons disease which would improve with administration of levodopa |
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what is the median age of survival for a patient with cystic fibrosis |
35 years old |
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in regards to pulmonary function testing, which pulmonary value would be expected to remain stable over a patients lifespan: A. tidal vl, B. residual vl, C. forced vital capacity, D. inspiratory capacity |
A. tidal volume |
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will residual vl increase or decrease as a result of the aging process? |
increase - by 30-50% d/t the loss of alveoli & increasing stiffness of rib cage |
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will forced vital capacity increase or decrease as a result of the aging process? |
Decrease - by 40-50% d/t loss of alveoli & inc rib cage stiffness |
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will inspiratory capacity increase or decrease as a result of the aging process? |
decrease - there is a decrease in inspiratory reserve volume resulting in decreased inspiratory capacity |
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the primary determination of weight bearing status after a fracture is based on the |
relative stability of the fracture. The amount of the injury should allow for bone healing to be visible using diagnostic imaging |
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a pt post acetabulum fracture post 7 weeks ago. Which objective measure would be the most influential variable in determining pt weight bearing status |
radiographic confirmation of bone healing |
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ranchos los amigos stages of gait include |
initial contact, loading response, mid-stance, terminal stance, preswing , initial swing, mid swing, terminal swing |
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what position is the ankle in at the time of initial contact
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neutral or very slight plantarflexion |
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what is the position of the ankle during loading response |
after the heel contacts the ground, the ankle moves into 10 degrees of plantar flexion in a controlled manner |
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what is the position of the ankle during terminal stance |
at the onset of TS , the ankle moves into the max amount of dorsiflexion required during the stance phase. Motion eventually reverses and reaches 5 degrees of plantar flexion by the end of single limb support |
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PTA observes a pt ankle pain is exaggerated during weight bearing activities when the ankle is maximally dorsiflexed. Which component of gait cycle would likely exacerbate pt ankle pain? |
Terminal stance |
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a pt observes pt has difficulty controlling affected LE during the loading response. This phase is characterized by? |
increased quad activity (to limit the rate of knee flexion) and decreased HS activity since the muscles are no longer needed to prevent hyper extension ( particularly semi-M&semi-T) |
