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129 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the origin of the term vaccine?
root word "vacca" is Latin for cow
naturally acquired immunity
acquisition of adaptive immunity through natural events
artificially acquired immunity
acquisition of adaptive immunity through immunization
2 parts of natural/artificial immunity
active immunity

passive immunity
What does active immunity result from?
immune response upon exposure to an antigen
Active immunity can develop naturally following _____.
illness
Active immunity can develop artificially following _____.
immunization
Passive immunity occurs naturally following _____. How?
pregnancy

IgG from mother crosses the placenta and infers protection to the baby
Passive immunity occurs naturally as a result of _____ _____. How?
breast feeding

IgA in breast milk are passed to the child
When does artificial passive immunity occur?
when antibodies produced from one person/animal are transferred to another
When does artificial passive immunity prevent disease?
before or after likely exposure to disease
3 types of passive immunization
immune serum globulin

specific immunoglobulins

monoclonal antibodies
Which type of passive immunization is administered to humans and equine?
immune serum globulin
3 types of active immunization
inactivated

live

DNA
4 types of inactivated active immunization
killed bacterium or virus

subunit

peptide or polysaccharide

toxoid

VLP
3 types of live active immunization
attenuated mutants

hybrid viruses

virulent strains
4 types of attenuated mutant live active immunization
limited host range

temperature-sensitive

cold-adapted

genetically manipulated
What are attenuated vaccines?
a type of live active vaccine

a weakened form of the pathogen that is generally unable to cause disease
With attenuated vaccines, the strain is replicated in the recipient and causes _____ with _____ symptoms.
infection

mild/undetectable
Attenuated vaccines result in _____ immunity. Why?
long-lasting

the multiplication of the microbe in the body continuously stimulates the immune system
What is one advantage of attenuated vaccines?
infection caused by vaccination can spread to other individuals, thus inferring immunization inadvertently
One disadvantage of attenuated vaccines is that they have the potential to cause disease in _____ people.
immunocompromised
Why should pregnant women avoid attenuated vaccines?
in case it causes damage to the fetus
3 examples of attenuated vaccines
Sabin polio

MMR

Yellow fever
Inactivated vaccines are unable to _____ in vaccinated individuals.
replicate
Inactivated vaccines retain _____ of infectious agent.
immunogenicity
2 categories of inactivated vaccines
whole agents

fragments
Whole agents contain _____ organisms of the inactivated virus.
killed
Whole agents do not change _____.
epitopes
4 examples of whole agent inactivated vaccines
cholera

plague

influenza

Salk polio
Fragments are _____ of organisms or agents including _____, _____, and _____ _____ _____.
portions

toxins

proteins

cell wall components
3 examples of fragment inactivated vaccines
toxoids

protein subunit

polysaccharide
adjuvant
agent that can stimulate the immune system and increase the response to a vaccine, without having any specific antigenic properties
3 examples of adjuvants
alum (aluminum salt)

squalen

BCG
Adjuvants can provide _____ _____ to antigens.
physical protection
Adjuvants can cause a greater release of _____ _____ by _____ releasing cells such as Th.
danger signals

chemokine
Adjuvants can release _____ _____ which help recruit B and T cells.
inflammatory cytokines
Adjuvants can increase the innate immune response to the antigen by interacting with _____.
TLRs
Adjuvants can translocate antigens to the _____ _____ which are recognized by T cells.
lymph nodes
antibody response (memory)- attenuated vaccine
IgG

secretory IgA if administered orally or nasally
antibody response (memory)- inactivated vaccine
IgG
cellular immune response- attenuated vaccine
good
cellular immune response- inactivated vaccine
poor
duration of protection- attenuated vaccine
long-term
duration of protection- inactivated vaccine
short-term
need for adjuvant- attenuated vaccine
no
need for adjuvant- inactivated vaccine
yes
number of doses- attenuated vaccine
usually single
number of doses- inactivated vaccine
multiple
risk of mutation to virulence- attenuated vaccine
very low
risk of mutation to virulence- inactivated vaccine
absent
risk to immunocompromised recipient- attenuated vaccine
can be significant
risk to immunocompromised recipient- inactivated vaccine
absent
route of administration- attenuated vaccine
injection, oral, or nasal
route of administration- inactivated vaccine
injection
stability in warm temperatures- attenuated vaccine
poor
stability in warm temperatures- inactivated vaccine
good
types- attenuated vaccine
attenuated viruses, attenuated bacteria
types- inactivated vaccine
inactivated whole agents, toxoids, subunit vaccines, polysaccharide vaccines
conjugate vaccine
type of inactivated vaccine

effective in young children; improved immune response through activation of B and T cells

polysaccharides are chemically linked to proteins so that they are T-dependent
Influenza A virus belongs to _____ family of RNA viruses.
orthomyxovirus
Influenza A virus has a _____-stranded RNA genome.
single
The genome of Influenza A virus is divided into _____ segments.
8
Influenza A virus has a lipid-containing _____ envelope derived from the host cell membrane.
spiked
Projecting from the envelope are 2 kinds of glycoprotein spikes: _____ and _____.
hemagglutinin (H)

neuraminidase (N)
The H spikes aid in _____, while the N spikes aid in _____ _____.
attachment

viral spread
The spread of Influenza A virus is caused by major _____ _____.
antigenic changes
antigenic drift
consists of minor changes in spikes- particularly H spikes

changes minimize effectiveness of immunity to previous strains and ensures enough susceptible people are available for continued virus survival
antigenic shift
represents more dramatic changes

virus strains are drastically antigenically different from previous strains

new virus comes from genetic reassortment

genetic mixing results in new virus that is often more virulent
genetic reassortment
occurs when two different viruses infect a cell at the same time
The Influenza A vaccine can be _____% effective.
80-90
Why is a new Influenza A vaccine required every year?
because of antigenic drift
Who decides on the vaccine composition?
WHO
flumist
a live, but weakened, virus
flu shot
a killed virus
Which is better: a flumist or a flu shot?
?
seronegative
person not yet exposed to antigen and has no specific antibodies
seropositive
person with exposure and actively producing antibody
titer
concentration of antibody in serum- indicates previous exposure
principles of immunological testing
you can have either an unknown organism or an unknown antibody and combine that with a known antibody/organism

will either identify organism or suggest a past/current infection
What is serum?
fluid portion of blood that has no clotting factors
What is plasma?
fluid portion of blood that has clotting factors
How are laboratory animals used to produce known antibodies?
animal is immunized with the antigen and produces specific antibodies

antibodies are retrieved by harvesting the animal’s serum
What are anti-antibodies?
an antibody that attacks other antibodies, especially ones produced in response to the injection of another antibody
How can anti-antibodies be produced?
by immunizing animals with IgG from human serum
How is the concentration of antibody molecules in a specimen usually determined?
through serial dilutions; the antigen is added to each dilution
What is the titer taken from? Why?
the last dilution

to give a detectable reaction
_____ complexes form aggregates.
antigen-antibody
Antigen-antibody binding can be seen in _____ and _____ reactions.
precipitation

agglutination
What are precipitation reactions?
used to detect specific antibodies or antigens

antibodies bind to soluble antigen to form insoluble complexes

thus, the complexes precipitate out of the solution
In precipitation reactions, complete aggregate formation occurs at _____ _____.
certain concentrations
To achieve concentrations, place separate antigen and antibody suspensions _____ _____ _____.
side by side
zone of optimal proportion
where the precipitate will form
What is the most widely known immunodiffusion test?
Ouchterlony technique
immunodiffusion tests
antigen and antibody are placed in separate wells cut in gel

solutions diffuse and meet between the wells

result in line of precipitation at zone of optimal proportion
Unlike the Ouchterlony technique, the radial immunodiffusion test is _____.
quantitative
To do the radial immunodiffusion test, the antibody is added to the melted, cooled gel before it hardens. What does this generate?
a uniform concentration of antibody molecules throughout the gel
When is the antigen added to the gel?
once the gel solidifies
The antigens then diffuse outward, forming a
_____ _____.
concentration gradient
A ring will form around the well as _____ _____ _____.
antigen-antibody aggregates precipitate
What can be constructed to determine concentration?
a standard curve
immunoelectrophoresis
used to determine antibody levels; high levels of certain antibody classes can indicate disease
In immunoelectorphoresis, _____ are separated using gel electrophoresis.
proteins
Antibodies are then placed in the wells and allowed to diffuse towards _____ _____.
separated proteins
A line of precipitation forms at the _____ recognitions site.
antibody-protein
Unlike precipitation reactions, agglutination reactions use relatively _____ _____ particles.
large insoluble
Because of their nature, these large insoluble particles will form _____ _____, which are much easier to see.
obvious aggregates
2 types of agglutination
direct agglutination

indirect agglutination
direct agglutination
a specific antibody is mixed with a insoluble antigen
What indicates a positive result in direct agglutination?
readily visible clumping
indirect agglutination
amplifies aggregation formation

antibody is attached to a latex bead; beads make aggregates more visible
Why are detectable markers attached to specific antibodies?
to detect the presence of a given antigen
4 types of tests that use labeled antibodies
Fluorescent Antibody (FA) test

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbant Assay (ELISA)

Western blotting

Fluorescence Activates Cell Sorter (FACS)
Fluorescent Antibody test relies on _____ _____ to locate labeled antibodies fixed to a microscope slide.
fluorescent microscopy
Fluorescence polarized immunoassay uses beam of polarized light to rate _____ of labeled antibodies.
spin

(works under the principle that bound antibodies are heavier than unbound and will spin more slowly)
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbant Assay (ELISA)
employs antibody that has been labeled with detectable enzyme (usually horseradish peroxidase)
The labeled antibody can bind either _____ or _____ to an antigen.
directly

indirectly
Antigen location can be determined using a _____ _____.
colorimetric assay
2 types of ELISA
direct ELISA

indirect ELISA
direct ELISA
looks for specific antigen

specimen is placed in wells of microtiter plate

wells are treated with antibody for antigen

ex: home pregnancy test
indirect ELISA
looks for antibody in patient serum (ie, human IgG)

wells of plate are treated with known antigen
Western blotting
technique used to detect antigenic proteins
In Western blotting, proteins are separated by _____ before reacting with the antibody.
size
This makes it possible to determine exactly which proteins the antibodies are recognizing, which is an essential aspect of _____ _____.
HIV testing
A special type of gel electrophoresis is used to the separate the proteins, called _____.
SDS-PAGE
SDS-PAGE resolves proteins of different sizes into a series of _____.
bands
Fluorescence Activated Cell Sorter (FACS)
special version of flow cytometry that counts cells labeled with fluorescent antibodies
FACS is used to count subsets of _____ _____.
T cells
For example, CD4 and CD8 cells can be counted and even separated by first mixing the cell with two preparations of _____ _____, each labeled with a different _____.
monoclonal antibodies

dye