• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/49

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

49 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
By which method of action does Barbiturates, Chloral hydrate and Benzodiazepines cause hypnosis and sedation?
a. antagonism of NMDA receptors
b. non-competitive activation of Glutamate
c. direct activation of alpha 2-adrenoceptors
d. interaction with γ –aminobutyric acid (GABA)
d. interaction with γ –aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
a. Glycine
b. Norepimephrine
c. Glutamate
d. Dopamine
e. Serotonin
a. Glycine
Which drug does NOT directly activate GABA A receptors but enhances the receptor for GABA?
a. Midazolam
b. Methohexital
c. Etomidate
d. Inactin (EMTU ethyl-1-methylpropyl malonyl-thiourea)
a. Midazolam
What is the location of the GABA alpha 2 subunit associated with the anxiolysis action of benzodiazepines?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Cerebellar cortex
c. Limbic system
d. Thalamus
c. Limbic system
Which of the GABA agonists can produce sedation and hypnosis but not a true general anesthetic state unless combined with additional hypnotics?
a. Chloral hydrate
b. Diazepam
c. Alphaxalone
d. Propofol
b. Diazepam
Which of the following class of drugs are generally considered poor analgesics?
a. GABA agonists
B. NMDA antagonists
C. Alpha2 adrenoceptor agonists
D. Ethly ester of carbamic acid
a. GABA agonists
What effect would be expected if a rat were anesthetized with Nebutal (pentobarbital) after treatment with chloramphenicol?
a. failure to become anesthetized
b. shorter duration of anesthesia
c. longer duration of anesthesia
d. no effect on anesthesia
c. longer duration of anesthesia (supression of hepatic microsomal enzyme function)
What effect would be expected if glucose were administered to an animal recovering from barbiturate anesthesia?
a. faster recovery
b. re-anesthetization
c. increased susceptibility to hepatic lipidosis
d. no effect on anesthesia
b. re-anesthetization
Which of the following drugs has been associated with pathologic changes following IP administration?
a. chloral hydrate
b. chloralose
c. urethane
d. tribromoethanol
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
How does aspirin or phenylbutazone enhance the effect of thiobarbiturates?
a. supression of hepatic microsomal enzymes
b. induction of cytochrome P450 enzyme
c. stimulation of alkalosis
d. displacement from protein binding
d. displacement from protein binding
Which type of drug causes ventricular bigeminy as a result of autonomic imbalance between the parasympathetic and sympathetic efferent activity?
a. Etomidate
b. Thiamylal
c. Diazepam
d. Alpha-chloralose
b. Thiamylal
Which drug is know to produce second degree atrioventricular block in dogs?
a. Etomidate
b. Alphaxalone
c. Xylazine
d. Alpha-chloralose
c. xylazine
What effect does thiopental have on the cardioprotective effects of ischemic preconditioning?
a. no effect on cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
b. decreases cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
c. induces cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
d. completely blocks cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
a. no effect on ischemic preconditioning
Which GABA agonist is considered to be ineffective in rabbits because the effective dose and dose which causes respiratory arrest are close?
a. Inactin (thiobutabarbital)
b. Propofol
c. Diazepam
d. Ketamine
a. inactin (thiobutabarbital)
Which GABA agonist inhibits adrenal steroidogenisis?
a. Ketamine
b. Thiopental
c. Propofol
d. Etomidate
d. etomidate
What change does Pentobarbital have on the ischemic preconditioning like cardioprotective effects of inhalational anesthetics?
a. no change on cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
b. inhibits the cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
c. induces the cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
d. enhances the cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
b. inhibits the cardioprotective ischemic preconditioning
Which of the following drugs would most likely decrease the hypnotic effect of Pentobarbital in rats?
a. pregnenolone sulfate
b. phenylbutazone
c. doxycycline
d. chloramphenicol
e. sulfonamides
a. pregnenolone sulfate
In which species should barbiturates be used with caution because of a narrow therapeutic window?
a. mice
b. rats
c. hamsters
d. dogs
c. hamster
Which of the following drugs is a barbiturate specific antagonists?
a. naloxone
b. metaphit
c. idazoxan
d. Flumazenil
e. none of the above
a-opioid antagonist
b-cyclohexamine effect antagonist
c-Alpha2-Adrenoceptor antagonist
d-benzodiazepine antagonists

Answer- none of the above!
What is the DEA schedule for pentobarbital?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
b. II
Which of the following drugs is listed in schedule IV by the DEA
a. Thiamylal
b. Ketamine
c. Sufentanil
d. Chloral hydrate
e. Buprenorphine
d. chloral hydrate
Which drug is metabolized in the liver to the active metabolite trichloroethanol, which accounts for most of the hypnotic effect?
a. Chloral hydrate
b. Tribromoethanol (Avertin)
c. ethylmalonyl urea (Inactin)
d. Urethane
a. chloral hydrate
Which sedative hypnotic drug has been associated with adynamic ileus with IP administration in the rat?
a. Chloral hydrate
b. Tribromoethanol (Avertin)
c. ethylmalonyl urea (Inactin)
d. Pentobarbital
a chlorol hydrate
Which GABA agonist produces extended anesthesia (8-10 hrs), but is a poor analgesic and is not considered suitable for survival procedures?
a. Chloral hydrate
b. Tribromoethanol (Avertin)
c. ethylmalonyl urea (Inactin)
d. α Chloralose
d. α Chloralose
Which hypnotic agent is a imidazole compound (which includes ketaconazole), usually combined with an opioid to provide surgical anesthesia with cardiovascular stability?
a. alphaxalone
b. etomidate
c. ketamine
d. xylazine
b. etomidate
What component of propofol is most likely the cause of the histamine reaction in dogs?
a. the glucuronic acid metabolite
b. the oil used as a solubilizing agent (Cremophor)
c. bacterial growth in the soybean emulsion
d. degradation of the drug in the presence of oxygen
b. the oil used as a solubilizing agent (Cremophor)
Which of the following is a long acting barbiturate usually reserved for procedures requiring > 3hr in the rat?
a. pentobarbital
b. methohexital
c. thiopental
d. Inactin
d. inactin
Which of the following is a steroid anesthetic which produces rapid onset of short duration and a wide safety margin?
a. alphaxalone
b. Tribromoethanol (Avertin)
c. ethylmalonyl urea (Inactin)
d. Urethane
a. alphaxalone
What animal is zolazepam known to produce fear, continuous territorial exploration, and a jumping - climbing reaction?
a. mice
b. rats
c. cats
d. rabbits
c. cats
Which drug is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist?
a. naloxone
b. metaphit
c. idazoxan
d. flumazenil
d. flumazenil
Which animal has IM ketamine been reported to cause self mutilation?
a. Hamsters
b. Gerbils
c. Guinea pigs
d. Rabbits
c. guinea pig
Which anesthetic was shown to be nephrotoxic in rabbits?
a. Propofol
b. Telazol
c. Urethane
d. Methoxyflurane
b. telazol
Which anesthetic has been shown to better protect the ischemic rabbit myocardium from infarction?
a. pentobarbital
b. propofol
c. isoflurane
d. ketamine / xylazine
c. isoflurane
Which of the following statements about ketamine is NOT correct?
a. ketamine causes increased myocardial contractility
b. ketamine is not significantly protein bound
c. ketamine significantly suppresses respiration
d. ketamine raises the threshold to induced seizures in rats and mice
c. ketamine significantly suppresses respiration is not correct
What is the DEA schedule for the Synthetic Opioid Agonists - Tramadol?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. not listed in the DEA drug schedule
d. not listed in the DEA drug schedule
What is the location of the adrenoceptors which are activated by medetomidine resulting in sedation / hypnosis?
a. presynaptic non-noradrenergic neurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
b. alpha1 subunits of GABAA receptor in the cerebral cortex
c. alpha 2 subunits of GABAA receptor in the limbic system
d. catecholaminergic nucleus of the pons within the brainstem called the locus ceruleus
d. catecholaminergic nucleus of the pons within the brainstem called the locus ceruleus
What is the location of the adrenoceptors which are directly activated by medetomidine resulting in analgesia?
a. presynaptic non-noradrenergic neurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
b. alpha1 subunits of GABAA receptor in the cerebral cortex
c. alpha 2 subunits of GABAA receptor in the limbic system
d. catecholaminergic nucleus of the pons within the brainstem called the locus ceruleus
a. presynaptic non-noradrenergic neurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
Which of the following animals is alpha2-agonists least effective as a sedative / analgesic agent?
a. cattle
b. swine
c. dogs
d. horses
b. swine are very resistant to all
cattle are most sensitive to xylazine
What would be the expected effect with increasing the dose of xylazine?
a. sedation would be prolonged without increasing analgesia
b. both sedation and analgesia would be increased
c. sedation time would remain the same with increased analgesia
d. increasing the dose results in death since the therapeutic range is narrow
a. sedation would be prolonged without increasing analgesia
Which alpha2 adrenoceptor agonist is an imidazole derivative known to inhibit corticosterone and cortisol release in adrenocortical cells?
a. xylazine
b. medetomidine
c. romifidine
d. etomidate
b. medetomidine
Which alpha2 adrenoceptor agonist is an imidazole derivative known to inhibit corticosterone and cortisol release in adrenocortical cells?
a. xylazine
b. medetomidine
c. romifidine
d. etomidate
b. medetomidine
What is the active enantiomer of medetomidine which is responsible for its hypnotic analgesic action?
a. levomedetomidine
b. detomidine
c. dexmedetomidine
d. etomidate
c. dexmedetomidine
Which drug is a Alpha2 adrenoceptor antagonist and known to increase sexual activity in rats and monkeys?
a. xylazine
b. detomidine
c. idazoxan
d. atipamezole
d. atipamezole
Which drug is a dopaminergic receptor antagonist having a aliphatic side chain responsible for a pronounce sedative effect?
a. chlorpromazine
b. promazine
c. droperidol
d. azaperone
a. chlorpromazine or acepromazine
Which statement is INCORRECT with respect to the actions of the phenothiazine derivatives?
a. acepromazine can cause or potentiate seizures
b. phenothiazines can produce hyperglycemia
c. acepromazine can decrease platelet function in rats
d. phenothiazines can reduce hematocrit by splenic sequestration
e. chlorpromazine can cause myositis and paralysis in rabbits
a. acepromazine can cause or potentiate seizures
Which butyrophenone drug reverses dominant subordinate relationships and is approved for use in swine to control of fighting?
a. acepromazine
b. droperidol
c. azaperone
d. fluanisone
c. azaperone
Which drug produces long and stable anesthesia (8-10 hrs) with good analgesia but is not suitable for recovery procedures because it is a carcinogen?
a. chloralose
b. urethane
c. inactin (thiobutabarbital)
d. etomidate
b. urethane
Which anesthetic is a principal consitituent of clove oil and can illicit a neuromuscular blocking effect in fish?
a. chloralose
b. urethane
c. inactin (thiobutabarbital)
d. eugenol
d.eugenol
Barbiturates are divided into short acting and ultra-short acting. Of the list below, which barbiturates is not considered an ultra shorting acting agent.
a. pentobarbital
b. hexobarbital
c. thiopental
d. thiobarbital
a. pentobarbital