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384 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Chapter 1 |
1 |
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Which of the following skills in NOT required of the fire apparatus driver/operator |
Perform complex math skills |
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Why must written maintenance and incident reports be clear and accurate |
They may be used for evidence |
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What should be done if a driver candidate is found deficient in math |
Provide assistance to correct deficiency |
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Fire apparatus drivers must pass a periodic medical exam in accordance with |
NFPA 1500 |
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Vision requirements for drivers are set by |
NFPA 1582 |
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In career departments drivers are often selected from rank of |
Firefighter |
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Which of the following is NOT used as a selection basis for drivers |
Interview |
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How are drivers most often selected |
By the Chief or company officers |
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The driving regulations of the fire apparatus driver are determined by all but |
Department of Transportation |
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Which statement regarding driving regulations is MOST accurate |
A fire apparatus driver is subject to all statutes, laws and ordinances |
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Which of the following licenses fire drivers in the U.S. |
Department of transportation |
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Which of the following licenses fire drivers in Canada |
Transport of Canada |
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Chapter 2 |
2 |
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What percentage of all firefighter injuries and deaths in the U.S. are caused by vehicle collisions while responding |
20 to 25 percent |
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Situational awareness comes for all of the following EXEPT |
good written test scores and road tests |
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Which of the following basic causes of apparatus collisions accounts for a significant portion of overall damage costs |
Improper backing |
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Which of the following statements regarding speed of the apparatus is most accurate |
Fire apparatus have a momentary brake lag |
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Which of the following can cause fire apparatus collisions |
False sense of security because of good driving record |
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Which is the most likely to cause serious vehicle design problems |
"homebuilt" vehicles |
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Which of the following statements regarding driver readiness and attitude is MOST accurate |
Drivers must be prepared to report to duty without any compromise of physical or mental ability |
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Which of the following must drivers keep in mind when starting a shift |
Drivers should be prepared for other people driving incorrectly |
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Who is responsible for the safety of all personnel riding on the apparatus |
Driver |
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Riders must be seated within the cab and wearing seat belts before: |
apparatus is put into motion |
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Which of the following is MOST accurate when loading fire hose while driving the apparatus |
The area must be closed to other vehicular traffic |
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Where must tiller operator instructors sit during tiller training |
In a detachable seat placed next to the tiller operator |
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During tiller training the instructor and tiller operator must be wearing ____ if not inside the enclosure |
Helmet and eye protection |
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Backing accounts for ____ of all collisions |
1/4 |
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Which of the following is a general safety rule for backing |
Walk around to clear obstructions first |
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Which of the following is NOT a general safety rule for backing |
Sound the apparatus horn continuously while backing |
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Where should spotter be during backing |
8 to 10 feet behind and slightly to the left |
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Which of the following statements regarding spotters is MOST accurate |
Spotters must always be in visual contact with the driver |
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Which of the following hand signals signifies slowing down |
Arms outstretched to the sides with palms facing down, raising and lowering palms straight up and down |
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Which action is signaled by crossed forearms tapped together in an exaggerated fashion |
STOP NOW |
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Chapter 3 |
3 |
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What is the purpose of a ladder turntable |
Provide continuous rotation of the aerial device on a horizontal plane |
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Fully extended aerial ladder apparatus range from _____ feet |
50 to 135 |
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The length of a fully extended aerial ladder is measured from the ____ with the ladder at maximum elevation and extension |
Ground to the highest ladder rung |
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Which of the following is NOT a use for ladder apparatus |
Below ground fire fighting |
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Which of the following statements regarding tillered trucks is MOST accurate |
Tiller trucks are steered by the driver |
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All elevating platforms must have a minimum floor area of ___ sq ft |
14 |
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Elevating platforms must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no opening under the railing greater than ____ inches |
24 |
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Elevating platforms are required to have a kickplate at floor level that must be ____ inches |
4 |
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Elevating platform apparatus must be equipped with a protective water fog curtain nozzle flowing at least ___gpm |
75 |
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What is the load capacity requirement for elevating platforms when fully extended, at any elevation and with no water in the pipe |
750 lbs |
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What is the load capacity requirement for platforms when the water pipe is charged |
500 lbs |
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Platforms 110 ft and shorter should be raised to a maximum elevation and extension and rotated 90 degrees in how many seconds |
150 |
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Platforms commonly range in size from _____ ft |
85 to 100 |
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What is the main difference between an aerial platform and a telescoping platform |
Telescoping platforms combine a safe work area with a safe, climbable aerial ladder |
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Which type of ladder construction has four sides of steel or aluminum welded together to form a box shape with a hollow center |
Box-Beam |
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What is the primary difference between an aerial platform and an articulating aerial platform |
Articulating platforms have boom sections that are connected by a hinge, and fold and unfold like an elbow |
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What is the primary function of a water tower |
Deploy elevated master streams |
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Water towers are usually designed so that fire streams may be deployed at a range of elevations from nearly horizontal to ___ from the ground |
90 degrees |
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Water towers are capable of maximum flows ranging from____ to ______ |
1,000 to 5,000 gpm |
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Which of the following is NOT a criteria for qualification as a quint |
Weight of the fire apparatus |
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Which of the following is a reason to equip apparatus with pumps |
The apparatus may be used to extinguish fires encountered when an engine company is not present |
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Which of the following are used to create beams of the ladder |
Trusses |
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What is the term for the bottom section of the ladder |
Base |
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Which of the following may be used to construct aerial ladders |
Steel |
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Which of the following are the lower chords of the aerial ladder to which the rungs, trusses, and other portions of the ladder are attached |
Base rails |
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Which of the following are the portions that attach between the two base rails and are used as steps for personnel on the aerial ladder |
Rungs |
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Which of the following is NOT a ladder requirement of NFPA 1901 |
Maximum time to place aerial ladder in service |
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Which of the following is the medium by which the hydraulic system transmits force |
Hydraulic fluid |
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The hydraulic pump on the aerial apparatus is powered by |
a power-take-off PTO |
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Which of the following supplies an adequate amount of hydraulic fluid to operate the system and to condition fluid while stores in the tank |
Hydraulic reservoir |
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Which types of valves prevent fluid from flowing backward through a component and act as a safety feature in the event that a leak develops in the system |
Check valves |
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Which of the following is a three-way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves |
Selector valve |
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Which of the following convert energy in the system into linear mechanical force or motion when pressurized hydraulic oil is directed into a chamber created by fitting a piston into a cylindrical barrel |
Hydraulic cylinders |
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Which of the following cylinders allow the piston to transmit force of the hydraulic fluid in the cylinders to the aerial device |
Aerial device hoisting cylinders |
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What is the rotational structural component of the aerial device |
Turntable |
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Control pedestals usually stand about____ ft |
3 1/2 |
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Which of the following is NOT a lever found on the control pedestal |
Inclination |
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Which of the following controls is NOT found on the control pedestal |
Water curtain controls |
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Which pre-piped aerial ladder waterways are a nontelescoping section of pipe attached to the underside of the bed section of the aerial ladder |
Bed ladder systems |
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Which pre-piped aerial ladder waterways consist of three or four sections that reduce in diameter |
Telescoping waterways |
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Detachable ladder pipe systems are typically limited to flows of less than ____gpm |
750 |
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Detachable ladder pipe systems should not be operated from an aerial positioned at a ____ angle |
90 degree |
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Which of the following statements regarding elevating platform waterway systems is MOST accurate |
They are safer than aerial ladders |
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Water tower systems are devices designed specifically for the deployment of |
Elevated master streams |
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Which of the following statements regarding communication systems is MOST accurate |
Communication systems may not be present on older apparatus |
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Which of the following is a requirement of breathing air systems |
Required on all apparatus built after 1996 |
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Which of the following statements regarding generators is MOST accurate |
Portable generators can be powered by gasoline, diesel, or propane engines |
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Portable lights generally range from ____ watts |
300 to 1,000 |
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Fixed lights usually have a capability of _____watts |
500 to 1,500 watts |
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When should electrical power cords be examined for damage to the insulation or connections |
Daily |
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Which of the following may be used when multiple connections are needed |
Junction boxes |
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Which of the following are used in situations where mutual aid depts. frequently work together and have different sizes or types of receptacles |
Adapters |
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Which of the following statements regarding hydraulic extrication tool systems is MOST accurate |
They have a wide range of uses, are fast, and have superior power |
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Hose distances ____ or greater from the pump to hydraulic powered tools may have a diminishing effect on tool operation |
100 ft |
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Aerial apparatus must carry at least all of the following ladders |
Pompier |
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Aerial apparatus should carry an extension ladder _____ or longer |
40 |
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NFPA 1901 requires which of the following forcible entry equipment be carried on the aerial apparatus |
Keyhole saws |
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Which type of ventilation equipment are placed in windows, doors, or roof openings to draw out heat, smoke, and gases by creating a lower pressure inside the fire building |
Exhaust fans |
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Which type of ventilation equipment are used to increase the air pressure in a structure and thus force out the by-products of combustion |
Positive-pressure blowers |
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When does loss control begin |
When companies leave the station |
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Chapter 4 |
4 |
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What is the difference between maintenance and repair |
Maintenance means keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness; repair means to restore or replace parts |
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Maintenance is typically performed by career depts. at the |
Beginning of each work period |
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Which of the following is NOT a purpose of maintenance and inspection documentation |
Lawsuits and liability claims |
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Which of the following statements regarding washing fire apparatus is MOST accurate |
Apparatus should be washed from the top downward |
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Fire apparatus should be washed with |
A good automotive detergent |
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Which of the following statements regarding glass care is MOST accurate |
Glass should be cleaned with warm, soapy water or commercial glass cleaners |
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Which of the following can be used to clean the interior of the fire apparatus |
Soapy water |
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Which of the following statements regarding waxing the fire apparatus is MOST accurate |
Wax should be applied after washing and drying |
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The driver should perform a walk-around inspection |
Daily |
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Which side of the apparatus should be checked first during an inspection |
Driver's side |
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During a walk-around inspection, door window glass should be inspected for all of the following EXCEPT |
Proper tint levels |
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Which of the following is NOT a step in the walk-around inspection process |
Refit lug nuts using hydraulic tools |
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When inspecting tires, check the ___ of the tire |
Speed ratings |
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When inspecting tires, check that apparatus tires are inflated to: |
The apparatus manufacturer's recommended tire pressure |
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Which of the following is NOT checked during the front of vehicle inspection |
Tires and wheels |
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Winches located in the front bumper area should be checked for: |
Proper operation and lubrication |
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Which of the following should be checked for rear dual wheels |
Duals should be the correct weight for the apparatus |
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Automatic snow chains are mechanical devices that are activated by a switch |
In the cab |
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When should equipment kept in compartments be inspected |
While inspecting compartment doors |
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Which of the following is NOT included in the rear of vehicle inspection |
Pump controls |
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When inspecting a quint, test the pump on the quint: |
Every day |
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What is the FIRST step in the in-cab inspection |
Set the seats and mirrors for proper adjustment |
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Which of the following electrical load management systems turns various lights on at specified intervals so that the start-up electrical load for all devices does not occur at the same time |
Load sequencer |
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Fire apparatus should be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns and other unnecessary peripherals from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below: |
80 psi |
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The driver should conduct a complete air-brake test: |
At the beginning of each shift |
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When testing air leakage rate, air pressure loss should not be more than ____ psi per minute |
2 |
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When testing low-pressure warning signal, the signal should sound before the air pressure drops to less than ____ psi |
60 |
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The parking brake switch should automatically pop out when the air pressure drops below ___psi |
40 |
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Slack adjusters should operate in and out of the brake chamber with no more than _____ of throw |
1 inch |
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Which of the following is NOT included in the minimum inspection of an engine compartment |
Chassis lubrication |
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When inspecting the battery condition, add ____ to any cell in which the electrolyte level is low |
Distilled water |
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Which of the following statements regarding chassis lubrication is LEAST accurate |
Chassis lubrication can only be performed by certified mechanics |
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Which of the following steps in charging batteries is MOST accurate |
Connect the battery charger to a reliable power source |
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Which of the following statements regarding jump-starting a fire apparatus is MOST accurate |
Jump starting may be necessary when the apparatus is away from the station |
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When should the aerial device hydraulic fluid be checked |
When the system is cold |
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Which of the following are NOT parts of the stabilizer inspection |
Drive pinions |
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Turntable bolts should usually be checked by |
A certified mechanic |
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It may be necessary to position a second firefighter at the tip of the aerial device in order to properly check the |
Aerial device communication system |
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Which of the following include sheaves, guards, and guides that should be inspected for damage |
Extension/retraction systems |
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During an operational inspection, the fire apparatus must be parked: |
In a suitable location for operating the aerial device |
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When should the hydraulic system selector valve control be moved into the aerial device position |
After stabilizers are safely set |
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Which of the following should be inspected after the aerial device is fully elevated |
Waterway system |
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What is the LAST step in the operational testing of the aerial device |
Stow the aerial device and stabilizers |
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Apparatus testing should be performed |
Immediately after construction and yearly afterward |
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What types of tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility and do not usually involve the driver |
Preservice tests |
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Which of the following statements regarding load testing is MOST accurate |
Load testing is a good indication that a static load can be supported at the tip of a fully extended aerial ladder |
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Which type of nondestructive testing is performed on accessible welds and steel components |
Magnetic particle inspection |
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Which type of nondestructive testing checks the composition of metal components to determine if any significant changes have occurred |
Hardness testing |
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What type of testing is performed to determine that the hydraulic system and structural mechanisms are performing in proper manner |
Operational testing |
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Which preservice tests are conducted by a third-party testing agency |
Certification testing |
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Chapter 5 |
5 |
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Which of the following is a guideline for driving a fire apparatus |
Use a courteous and professional driving style while driving in public |
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What is the FIRST step in starting the fire service apparatus |
Disconnect all ground shore lines |
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In which gear should a manual transmission apparatus be when starting the engine |
Neutral |
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Release the clutch ____ when starting from a standstill |
Slowly |
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Keep the transmission in ___ gear until the apparatus is clear of the station |
Low |
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Which of the following statements regarding operating the clutch is MOST accurate |
Do not operate the clutch abruptly |
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Which of the following is NOT an instance in which lower gears should be used |
After leaving a curve |
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Which of the following is a guideline for driving automatic transmission apparatus |
Depress the interlock on the shifter and move it to the appropriate gear selection |
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Which of the following is a guideline for nonemergency traveling |
Attempt to maintain engine rpm control through correct throttling |
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Choose a gear that allows the engine to operate at ______rpm lower than the maximum recommended rpm |
200 or 300 |
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Which of the following is the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus |
Angle of approach |
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Which of the following is the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint |
Breakover angle |
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Which of the following is NOT a consideration when stopping the apparatus |
Length of apparatus |
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Which of the following assist in braking and save wear on the service brake components |
retarding devices |
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If it is necessary to idle the engine for long periods of time, set the apparatus to idle at: |
900 to 1,100 rpm |
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When should the engine be deactivated |
After a cooldown period |
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The engine should be idled for ______ before shutting down |
3 to 5 minutes |
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Which of the following is the FIRST step in shutting down the apparatus |
Place the transmission in Park (P) or Neutral (N) |
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Which of the following is the sum of the driver/operator's reaction distance and the vehicle's braking distance |
Total stopping distance |
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Which of the following is the distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping |
Reaction distance |
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Which of the following does NOT affect the reaction distance |
Driver's vision |
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Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing a driver's ability to stop the apparatus |
Type and condition of the vehicle's pump and water tank |
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What is the correct equation for forward momentum |
Momentum= Velocity x mass |
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Which of the following is NOT a common cause for skids |
Driving too slow for road conditions |
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Which of the following statements regarding an antilock braking system (ABS) is MOST accurate |
The ABS causes a momentary delay in the time from which the pedal is depressed until sufficient air pressure is sent to the brake to operate |
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What is the FIRST step in correcting a skid |
Release the brakes, allowing the wheels to rotate freely |
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Which of the following auxiliary braking systems reduces air pressure on the front steering axle by 50 percent when the switch is in the slippery road position |
Front brake limiting valve |
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Which of the following auxiliary braking systems reduces air pressure on the front steering axle by 50 percent when the switch is in the slippery road position |
Front brake limiting valve |
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Which of the following auxiliary braking systems augments and works in conjunction with the vehicle's conventional service brakes |
Electromagnetic braking systems |
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Which of the following auxiliary braking systems works automatically and helps improve traction on slippery roads by reducing drive wheel overspin |
Automatic traction control |
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Weight transfer follows the law of inertia which states that: |
Objects in motion tend to remain in motion; objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force |
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Which of the following does NOT lead to weight transfer |
Driving too quickly on straight aways |
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What do most states and provinces require of private vehicles when an emergency vehicle approaches |
Pull to the right, stop, and remain at a standstill until emergency traffic has passed |
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Which of the following statements regarding collisions at intersections is MOST accurate |
Intersections are the most likely places for collisions involving emergency vehicles |
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Which of the following statements regarding driving into the opposing lane of traffic is MOST accurate |
Driving in the opposing lane of traffic must include the full use of warning devices |
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Which of the following is a guideline for passing other vehicles |
Be certain that opposing lanes of traffic are clear when crossing the center line |
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When driving in adverse weather conditions drivers should |
Recognize areas that easily become slippery |
|
|
Snow tires or chains |
Reduce stopping distance |
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Snow tires or chains may lose effectiveness in snow deeper than |
3 to 6 inches |
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Drivers need to be aware that audible devices can be outrun by apparatus at speeds above |
50 mph |
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When should warning devices be used |
During true emergency response situations |
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When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least _____ feet apart |
300 to 500 |
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Headlights should be ______ while responding |
Turned on |
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What is a preemption device |
Emitter mounted on apparatus that activates sensors in traffic lights |
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Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the tiller operator |
Certified company officer |
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Which of the following is NOT an item with which tiller operators must be aware |
Distance of the trailer from the nearest hydrant |
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Tiller operator training should always be closely supervised by: |
An expert tiller operator |
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Which of the following is NOT a check to be performed by the tiller operator before leaving the fire station |
Position of apparatus front wheels centered in doorway |
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Where on the tiller steering wheel should the hands be placed when moving forward |
near the top of the steering wheel |
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Which is NOT a guideline for driving the tiller |
Pay particular attention to small, compact cars |
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When necessary to move out wide with the trailer while making a turn, start turning away from the corner about the time that the ______ first enter the intersection |
Front tractor wheels |
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Where on the tiller steering wheel should the hands be placed when backing |
At the three o clock and nine o clock position with the thumbs pointing up |
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Which driving exercise tests the drivers ability to move the vehicle backwards within a restricted area without striking the walls and to bring the vehicle to a smooth stop close to the rear wall |
Alley dock |
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Which driving exercise simulates maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and right corners |
Serpentine course |
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In the serpentine course exercise, the markers are placed between ______ apart |
30 and 38 ft |
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Which driving exercise tests the drivers ability to turn the vehicle 180 degrees within a confined space |
Confined space turnaround |
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During the diminishing clearance exercise, the apparatus must travel faster than _____mph |
25 |
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In the straight line drive exercise, dots should be spaced about _____ feet apart |
3 to 4 |
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When performing the straight-in parking exercise, the right front wheel of the apparatus should not be more than _____ inches |
4 |
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When performing the crossover backing exercise, the apparatus must come to a full stop with both right side tires within___ inches |
4 |
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Road tests that lead to certification should include the applicable elements from NFPA ___ |
1002 |
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Chapter 6
When should apparatus placement procedures be developed |
During preincident planning |
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Where should apparatus park at buildings less than five stories tall |
To the outside of the engine |
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Where should aerial apparatus park at buildings greater than five stories |
Closest to the building |
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Which of the following is NOT a consideration for determining the correct distance between the aerial apparatus and the objective |
Load carrying capacity |
|
|
Which of the following are factors that work against the strength of the aerial device |
Stresses |
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Which of the following is a condition that causes aerial device stress |
Improper stabilization |
|
|
Where is the best rescue approach for an aerial apparatus |
Upwind |
|
|
Where is the best position for an aerial apparatus positioning for rescue |
At the corner of the building |
|
|
Which hose stream is preferred to create the least amount of stress on the device |
Wide-angle fog stream |
|
|
Where should the aerial device be positioned when positioning an elevating platform device to lift the victim over the top rail |
directly in line with the target |
|
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When positioning aerial apparatus for access in upper levels, which is the BEST position |
Maximum degree of safety |
|
|
When positioning aerial apparatus for access in upper levels, position the apparatus |
On the side of the building opposite the fire |
|
|
When ventilating a flat roof, position the apparatus: |
On the unburned side of the structure |
|
|
When ventilating a flat roof, position the apparatus so that the aerial device extends at least _____ feet above the roof level |
6 |
|
|
How should the apparatus be positioned for horizontal ventilation |
Upwind and with access to as many windows as possible |
|
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When positioning for a blitz attack, place the nozzle in the _____ portion of the window opening |
Lower |
|
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When positioning for a blitz attack, direct the fire stream |
Upward toward the ceiling |
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When positioning the apparatus for using elevating master streams close to ground level, position the apparatus _____ the intended target |
Directly in line with |
|
|
Where should the apparatus be parked when positioning apparatus for defensive operations |
A safe distance from the building |
|
|
Which of the following should be the LAST alternative for spotting the aerial appartus |
Soft surfaces |
|
|
What is the problem with positioning apparatus on frozen soil |
The ground may be stable at first, but can become unstable as the incident progresses |
|
|
Avoid parking and deploying the aerial device on ______ surfaces. |
Snowy and icy |
|
|
During ice conditions, the weight added by firefighters equipment must be |
decreased |
|
|
What is ice shrugging |
Slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding positioning apparatus in windy conditions is MOST accurate |
Position apparatus parallel to wind |
|
|
What is the desired distance between the aerial device and overhead electrical lines |
10 ft |
|
|
What should be done if it is necessary to exit an apparatus that is in contact with electric lines |
Jump clear of the energized apparatus |
|
|
Jackknifing is used by tiller apparatus to increase |
Stability |
|
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The greatest stability occurs by jackknifing approximately ___ degrees |
60 |
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Beyond an angle of ______ degrees, stability decreases |
90 |
|
|
When operating the aerial device off an incline, reduce stresses by spotting the turntable |
Downhill from the point of operation |
|
|
As extension of the aerial device increases, aerial loading must: |
Decrease |
|
|
What is the weakest operational position for an aerial apparatus |
At a low angle and long extension |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an indicator of imminent building collapse |
Grey smoke billowing from doors and windows |
|
|
Which staging level is used on every emergency response when two companies performing similar functions are dispatched |
Level I |
|
|
Which staging level is used when numerous emergency vehicles will be responding to an incident |
Level II |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for responding to incidents on highways |
Use the minimum number of warning lights during nighttime hours |
|
|
Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure firefighter safety while at highway incidents |
Position apparatus at an angle to shield firefighters |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for positioning the apparatus at a hazardous materials incident |
Park and approach the incident from the upwind and uphill side if possible |
|
|
Which of the following statements about parking apparatus near railroads is MOST accurate |
Always treat railroad tracks as an active railroad line |
|
|
Which apparatus should receive the best position at emergency medical incidents |
Ambulance |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a safety requirement when positioning aerial apparatus at aircraft incidents |
Stage the apparatus near the ends of aircraft emergency slides |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for positioning apparatus on bridges |
Remember that bridges and elevated sections of roads will be the first to freeze |
|
|
When positioning the apparatus at petroleum storage facilities, position the apparatus: |
Outside the dike's walls |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a guideline for positioning apparatus at technical rescue incidents |
Place apparatus in a position that maximizes the angle and extension to which the aerial device will be raised |
|
|
Chapter 7
When the apparatus is parked, where is its center of gravity? |
Along the longtitudinal midline, between the front and rear axles |
|
|
Which of the following prevent the apparatus from tipping as the aerial device is extended away from the centerline of the chassis |
Stabilizers |
|
|
How is the aerial hydraulic system engaged |
By activating the PTO system |
|
|
Which of the following statements about engaging the aerial hydraulic system is MOST accurate |
Procedures vary depending on type of transmission and presence of fire pump |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a preliminary check before setting and raising stabilizers |
Ensure that the selector valve light is lit |
|
|
Which of the following provides hydraulic power to the stabilizing system |
Selector valve |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding stabilizing on even terrain is LEAST accurate |
Even terrain is not the best option, but is unavoidable in some situations |
|
|
Which of the following occurs when the driver operates the stabilizer controls |
An increase in engine speed |
|
|
Which type of stabilizers first extend outward and then down |
Box type |
|
|
Stabilizer pads are usually ____ inches with a built-in handle |
24 x 24 |
|
|
What is the proper order for lowering stabilizers on even terrain |
Lower both stabilizers on side A, then both stabilizers on side B |
|
|
Correction of lateral unevenness can be achieved on grades of up to _____ percent |
5 or 6 |
|
|
When stabilizing the apparatus on laterally uneven terrain, which stabilizers should be lowered first |
Uphill side |
|
|
When stabilizing the apparatus on longitudinally uneven terrain, articulating aerial devices should be operated off the _____ of the vehicle whenever possible |
Rear |
|
|
Stabilizing the apparatus on curbs or other obstructions: |
Should be avoided whenever possible |
|
|
Which of the following prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system while the aerial device is in use |
Interlock |
|
|
Which of the following prevents the movement of fluid within the stabilization system |
Holding valve |
|
|
When should stabilizers be retracted |
After use of the aerial device is complete and it is returned to the bed |
|
|
What is the FIRST step in retracting the stabilizers |
Remove safety pins from the jacks |
|
|
In what order should stabilizers be retracted when the apparatus is parked on level ground |
The order is unimportant |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding manual stabilizers is MOST accurate |
They may still be in use on older pieces of apparatus |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding stabilizing the tractor-trailer aerial apparatus is MOST accurate |
A critical amount of stability is given by the manner in which it is parked and positioned |
|
|
Maximum stability occurs when the angle of the tractor is _____ from the center line of the trailer |
60 degrees |
|
|
The vehicle should never be positioned with the tractor and trailer at an angle greater than: |
90 degrees |
|
|
When placing the vehicle into an angled position, approach the objective building until the _________ is right next to it |
Turntable |
|
|
Chapter 8 |
8 |
|
|
Which of the following tasks must be completed before deploying the aerial device |
Place the apparatus transmission into the proper gear |
|
|
Which of the following secure the aerial device in its cradle when the apparatus is in the road-travel mode |
Hold-down locks |
|
|
Which of the following steps should be performed BEFORE elevating the aerial device |
Allow personnel to board the elevating platform |
|
|
The aerial device should be lowered to approximately ______ inches above the surface of the target |
4 to 6 |
|
|
What is the FIRST step in lowering the aerial device |
Remove personnel from the aerial ladder |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for lowering the aerial device |
Leave one end of the waterway system open during lowering |
|
|
Minimum load requirements for aerial ladders are established by NFPA |
1901 |
|
|
Aerial ladders must be capable of accommodating the minimum load from the tip of the ladder when: |
Fully extended |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding aerial devices built before 1991 is MOST accurate |
They are not required to meet the NFPA standard for minimum load requirements |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a key to operating on a grade |
Meeting minimum load requirements |
|
|
Most aerial manufacturers allow full operation of aerial devices in winds of up to _____mph |
35 to 40 |
|
|
Wind speeds beyond ______ mph can be very dangerous for aerial devices |
40 |
|
|
Which of the following is the MOST reliable form for determining wind speeds |
Calibrated wind-measuring equipment |
|
|
Guy ropes are recommended to be used in winds exceeding _____ mph |
35 |
|
|
Guy ropes are attached to the top end of the fly section when it is necessary to extend the ladder _________ feet |
75 |
|
|
What is the greatest danger to an aerial device by low air temperature conditions |
Increased viscosity of hydraulic oil |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an effective way to remove ice from the aerial device |
Using pick axes and pike poles |
|
|
Which of the following is a sign of heat damage to the aerial device |
Discoloration or disfiguration |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a sign of mechanical or power failure on an aerial device |
Deformed welds |
|
|
What should be done if any indicators of mechanical or power failure are present |
The device should be bedded and removed from service immediately |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for safely operating telescoping aerial devices |
All ladders are stronger when the load is applied perpendicular to the rungs |
|
|
Which of the following should be performed before loading the aerial ladder |
Ladder locks engaged |
|
|
Which of the following is a safety guideline for operating telescoping aerial devices |
The aerial ladder must never be used as a battering ram to break windows |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a guideline for safe operating practices for telescoping aerial devices |
If the driver is unsure about the limitations of the aerial device, an estimate should be made based on the size of the aerial device |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for safe operating practices for telescoping aerial devices |
Strong winds will affect the load capacity and stability of the aerial device |
|
|
Chapter 9 |
9 |
|
|
Articulating aerial apparatus have two or more sections that are called: |
Booms |
|
|
What is the difference between a water tower and an aerial platform |
A water tower is not intended to lift firefighters or equipment |
|
|
Articulating aerial booms are hydraulically operated by controls located: |
Inside the platform |
|
|
Which of the following statements about raising articulating aerial apparatus is MOST accurate |
Raising the aerial assembly is actually a series of motions |
|
|
Which of the following should be completed before deploying the aerial device |
The stabilizers must be fully deployed |
|
|
Which of the following is the FIRST step in raising the aerial device |
Release the hold down locks |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding articulating aerial equipment is MOST accurate |
Articulating platforms should always be operated forward of the turntable |
|
|
Which of the following is the FIRST step in lowering the aerial device |
Disengage cylinder and/or turntable locks |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding lowering the aerial device is MOST accurate |
The lower boom hold-down hooks should be opened |
|
|
Operating on a grade greatly complicates the concerns with regard to _____stress placed upon the aerial device |
Dynamic |
|
|
Which NFPA standard establishes static load requirements for operating on a grade |
NFPA 1901 |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a key to operating an aerial device on a grade |
Minimum extension |
|
|
Most manufacturers all operation of aerial device in winds up to ______ mph |
35 to 40 |
|
|
Which of the following is the MOST reliable method for determining wind speeds at the location of aerial device operation |
Calibrated wind-measuring equipment |
|
|
Which of the following is the greatest concern during low air temperature conditions |
Increased viscosity of hydraulic oil |
|
|
Which of the following is a result of ice formation on the aerial device |
Adversely affects stability |
|
|
Which type of nozzle provides a protective water curtain in the event of high heat situation to the aerial device |
Spray-curtain nozzles |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an obvious sign of heat damage to the aerial device |
Improper operation of the control levers |
|
|
What should be done if heat damage is noted to the aerial device |
The aerial device should be removed from service immediately |
|
|
Which of the following is a sign of mechanical trouble to the aerial device |
Interlock failure |
|
|
During master stream operations, which of the following occurs |
The maximum load capacity of the platform decreases in proportion to the nozzle reaction force |
|
|
Which of the following is a safety guideline for operating articulating aerial devices |
Caution must be exercised when operating near power lines |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding safe operating practices for articulating aerial devices is MOST accurate |
The aerial operator on the ground should always be standing on the operators platform when operating the aerial device |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a safe operating practice for articulating aerial devices |
The aerial operator on the ground should always be positioned in the cab when operating the aerial device |
|
|
Chapter 10 |
10 |
|
|
Which of the following is always the FIRST priority on the fireground |
Rescue |
|
|
Which of the following has the TOP priority consideration |
Most severely threatened by conditions of the hazard |
|
|
two or more groups of people are in danger, which should be rescued first |
Largest group |
|
|
Which of the following is the BEST position when raising the aerial device to a victim |
One in which the aerial is perpendicular to the objective |
|
|
When raising the aerial device to a victim in an unsupported position, the tip should be placed _____inches above the target |
4 to 6 |
|
|
Once the aerial is in place for rescue, what should be done |
Extension locks should be seated |
|
|
When positioning an aerial ladder for rescue from a window, the first rung of the ladder tip should be placed |
Even with the window sill |
|
|
When positioning an aerial platform for rescue from a window, the _______ should be placed even with the window sill |
Top rail of the platform |
|
|
When positioning the aerial device for rescue from a roof the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed so that at least ______ feet extend above the edge of the roof |
6 |
|
|
Which of the following pieces of equipment may be necessary to get over a roof with parapet walls |
Roof ladder |
|
|
Removing victims from elevated positions using aerial devices varies depending on the |
Age of victims |
|
|
What removal method should be used for infants and children |
Cradle in arms carry |
|
|
Which of the following should be rescued using the knee-sit method |
Heavier person who is conscious |
|
|
In what way is the knee-sit method advantageous |
The firefighter can use both hands to hold the rails |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding moving victims in aerial platforms is MOST accurate |
It is considerably easier than backing down aerial ladders |
|
|
The number of passengers who may be lowered into the platform will be determined by the |
Load capacity of the aerial device |
|
|
How many firefighters are required at a minimum to remove unconscious victims |
Two |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding lowering a stokes litter using an aerial ladder is MOST accurate |
It should be the last resort |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding using aerial devices for water rescues is MOST accurate |
Fire departments should discourage the use of aerial apparatus for water rescue |
|
|
Which of the following should be the FIRST choice when rescuing victims from an aircraft rescue incident |
Escape chutes or slides at exit door openings |
|
|
When positioning the aerial device at an aircraft exit, follow the procedures for |
Window rescue |
|
|
Which of the following is an acceptable use of aerial apparatus at aircraft rescue incidents |
Gaining access to aircraft crashed in elevated locations |
|
|
Which type of aerial device is particularly well suited for below grade rescue operations |
Three boom articulating aerial platform |
|
|
Which of the following the process that allows heat to travel through a heat-circulating medium |
Convection |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a condition affecting exposure hazards |
Time of day |
|
|
How can protection from convection fire spread be accomplished |
Large fog streams applied into the thermal column |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding positioning the apparatus to provide exposure protection is MOST accurate |
Apparatus positioning for exposure protection is challenging |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for exposure protection operations |
Use straight and solid streams when fog streams are ineffective |
|
|
Which of the following is an acceptable use of the aerial device |
One of several means of ventilation |
|
|
When using an aerial ladder to put firefighters on the roof, extend the fly section so that a minimum of ______ feet protrudes over the edge of the roof |
6 |
|
|
When using an elevating platform to put firefighters on the roof, position the platform |
Even with the roof's edge |
|
|
When using the aerial device for horizontal or cross ventilation, where should the aerial platform be positioned |
Slightly above the window and to the upwind side |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding the use of aerial ladders with piped waterways and water towers is MOST accurate |
The fire stream can be manipulated from the control pedestal or pump panel |
|
|
Which of the following ways of operating elevated master streams places firefighters at the tip in danger and is being used less and less |
Aerial ladders with detachable waterways |
|
|
Which of the following is a general safety principle when using detachable ladder pipes |
The ladder pipe barrel should be elevated or lowered slowly |
|
|
What is the rule of thumb for quick ladder pipe use |
75 degree elevation, 80 percent extended length, and 80 psi nozzle pressure |
|
|
On older units, use the ladder pipes perpendicular to the rungs, with a maximum lateral movement of _______ degrees to either side |
15 |
|
|
Which types of nozzles have a wider coverage and are able to break up water to effect better steam conversion |
Fog stream nozzles |
|
|
Which types of nozzles provide excellent penetration into fire areas and provide the power needed to reach the seat of the fire |
Solid stream nozzles |
|
|
Which of the following is the best application of a fog stream nozzle |
Exposure protection |
|
|
Which of the following is the best application of a solid stream nozzle |
Reaching fires deeply seated within a building |
|
|
What is a blitz attack |
Making attack from the exterior with a large bore fire stream to attack the fire on the inside and immediately stop the progress of the fire in the area of origin |
|
|
What is the BEST way to effect a blitz attack with an elevated master stream |
Deflect water off the ceiling of the fire room |
|
|
Where should the nozzle be positioned for optimal water deflection during a blitz attack |
Even with the bottom of the window |
|
|
When performing a blitz attack, allow water to enter the room at an angle of about _____ degrees |
30 |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a potential defensive attack |
Lack of water supply in the area |
|
|
Which of the following is an advantage of using the aerial device as an improvised standpipe |
Eliminates difficult hose lays up interior stairwells |
|
|
Aerial apparatus can be used to apply foam streams on all of the following fires EXCEPT in |
Buildings under construction |
|
|
Which of the following is a guideline for using the aerial device to discharge nonaerated foam streams |
Must use either AFFF or FFFP concentrates |
|
|
Which foam application method directs the foam stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pool |
Roll on method |
|
|
Which foam application method directs the foam stream off an object, allowing foam to run down onto the surface of the fuel |
Bank down method |
|
|
Which foam application method directs the stream into the air above the fire or spill and allows the foam to float down onto the surface of the fuel |
Rain down method |
|
|
Which foam application method may be employed when an elevated object is near or within the area of a burning pool of liquid or an unignited liquid spill |
Bank down method |
|
|
Which foam application method is the primary manual application technique used on above ground storage tank fires |
Rain down method |
