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1130 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Sodium
Sodium 135-145 mEq/L
Potassium
Potassium 3.5-5 mEq/L
Calcium 8.5-10.5
Calcium 8.5-10.5 mmol/dl
pH
pH 7.35 – 7.45
Oxygen saturation
95-100 mmHg
PCO2
35-45 mmHg
HCO3
18-23 mmol/L
White Blood Cell Count (WBC)
4,500-10,000/mcL
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
4-5.9% >7=uncontroled glucose levels
Total Cholesterol
160-200
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
8-20
Blood Glucose (fasting)
70-120 mg/dL
Serum Creatinine
0.5-2.0 mg/dl
>2 signals Renal problems
GFR (Urinalysis)
100-130 ml/min/1.73m2
< 90 stage 1 Renal failure
Urine Specific Gravity (Urinalysis)
1.003-1.030
INR
0.8-1.2 (normal) 2-3 (therapeutic) INR and PT are used to determine therapeutic effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin)
Digoxin
0.8 to 2.0 ng/ml
Lithium
0.5 to 1.5 mEq/L
Dilantin
10 - 20 mcg/mL
Theophylline
10 - 20 mcg/mL
Temperature (PO)
36.3 - 37.3 °C (97.3-99.1 °F)
Above 100 = fever
Blood Pressure (adult systolic)
90–120 mmHg
Blood Pressure (adult diastolic)
60–80 mmHg
Heart Rate (adult)
60-100 beats/min
Respiration rate (adult)
12–20 breaths per minute
Sodium
135-145 mEq/L
Potassium
3.5-5 mEq/L
Chloride
95-105 mEq/L
Calcium
8.5-10.5 mmol/dl
Magnesium
1.5-2 mEq/L
pH
7.35 – 7.45
PO2
75-100 mmHg
Oxygen Saturation
95-100 mmHg
PCO2
35-45 mmHg
HCO3
18-23 mmol/L
Alanine transaminase (ALT)
30- 65 U/L
In healthy individuals, ALT levels in the blood are low. When the liver is damaged, ALT is released into the blood stream, which results in high ALT levels.
Causes:
Hepatitis
Cirrohosis
Ischemia
Tumor of liver
Ischemia
Viral hepatitis
Infectious Mononucleosis, or myopathy.
Congestive Heart Failure
Liver damage
Bile Duct problem
Aspartate transaminase (AST)
6 - 40 IU/L
When liver or muscle cells are injured, AST is released into the blood. AST test detects liver damage.
Causes:
Alcoholic Hepatitis
Cirrhosis
Acute hepatitis
Diabetes
Hepatitis Viruses
Jaundice
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
20 to 140 IU/L
Maybe used to determine liver or bone disorders. Pregnant women, growing children and people with healing fractures may also show a temporary increase in ALP levels
Causes:
Liver cancer
Cirrhosis
Hepatitis
Paget's disease
Rheumatoid arthritis
Creatine kinase (CK)
60 and 400 IU/L
Present in Muscle damage
The doctor may order CK isoenzymes or a CK-MB as follow-up tests, to distinguish between the three types (isoenzymes) of CK: CK-MB (found primarily in heart muscle), CK-MM (found primarily in skeletal muscle), and CK-BB (found primarily in the brain; when present in the blood, it is primarily from smooth muscles, including those in intestines, uterus or placenta).
Myoglobin
Female 1-66, male 17-106
Myoglobin may be ordered as a cardiac biomarker, along with troponin, to help diagnose or rule out a heart attack. Levels of myoglobin start to rise within 2-3 hours of a heart attack or other muscle injury, reach their highest levels within 8-12 hours, and generally fall back to normal within one day. An increase in myoglobin is detectable sooner than troponin, but it is not as specific for heart damage and it will not stay elevated as long as troponin.
Troponin-I
Troponin-T
Troponin-I less than 10 µg/L
Troponin-T 0–0.1 µg/L
Troponin tests are primarily ordered to evaluate people who have chest pain to see if they have had a heart attack or other damage to their heart. Either a cardiac-specific troponin I or troponin T test can be performed; usually a laboratory will offer one test or the other. Troponin tests are sometimes ordered along with other cardiac biomarkers, such as CK–MB or myoglobin. However, troponins are the preferred tests for a suspected heart attack because they are more specific for heart injury than other tests (which may become positive in skeletal muscle injury) and remain elevated for a longer period of time.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
160-200
HDL cholesterol
35-80 mg/dL
LDL cholesterol
80-120 mg/dl
Thyroid stimulating hormone
(TSH) 0.3 to 3.0 μIU/mL
The TSH test is used to check thyroid function and/or symptoms of hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism. It is usally ordered with a T4 test. A T3 may also be ordered.
Hemoglobin (Hb)
men 138 to 180 g/L women 121 to 151 g/L
The hemoglobin test may be used to screen for, diagnose, or monitor a number of conditions and diseases that affect red blood cells (RBCs) and/or the amount of hemoglobin in blood.
Hematocrit (Hct)
45% for men and 40% for women
To determine the proportion of the blood that is made up of red blood cells (RBCs), and help diagnose, or monitor conditions that affect RBCs.
Glycosylated hemoglobin(HbA1c)
4-5.9 % Hb
Used to monitor glucose control of diabetics over a period of 2-3 months. The goal is to keep A1c 6% or under.
White Blood Cell Count (WBC)
4,500-10,000 /mcL
High counts are associated with :
Infections,
Inflammation
Leukemia
Conditions that result in tissue death (necrosis) such as trauma, burns, surgery or heart attack
Allergic responses

Low counts are associated with:
Bone marrow damage and
disorders
Lymphoma
Autoimmune disorders
Overwhelming infections
CD4+ cells
500-1200 cells/mm3
CD4 is the main target of HIV, once the count is 200 or under a diagnosis of AIDS is given.
IgA
70-360
one of the most common of the five major classes of immunoglobulins; the chief antibody in the membranes of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts
IgD
0.5-3.0
Not completely understood, but seems share the role of activating B-cells with IgM.
IgE
0.01-0.04
IgE's main function is immunity to parasites such as parasitic worms. IgE also plays an essential role in type I hypersensitivity, which which include allergic diseases, such as allergic asthma, allergic rhinitis, food allergy, and some types of chronic urticaria and atopic dermatitis and anaphylactic reactions to certain drugs, bee stings, and antigen preparations used in specific desensitization immunotherapy.
IgG
800-1800
Infection control of body tissues, including viruses, bacteria, and fungi.
IgM
54-220
They are found in blood and lymph fluid and are the first type of antibody made in response to an infection. They also cause other immune system cells to destroy foreign substances
Thrombocyte/Platelet count
(150 – 400) × 103 per mm3
Prothrombin time (PT)
12-13 seconds laboratory dependent
The prothrombin time (PT) and its derived measures of prothrombin ratio (PR) and international normalized ratio (INR) are measures of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
Commonly used to check the therapeutic levels of warfarin (Coumadin),
INR
0.8-1.2 (normal) (therapeutic)2-3
The prothrombin time (PT) and its derived measures of prothrombin ratio (PR) and international normalized ratio (INR) are measures of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
Commonly used to check the therapeutic levels of warfarin (Coumadin),
Activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT/ aPTT)
30-50s laboratory dependent
Used to monitor the treatment effects of heparin, and similar anticoagulant
Blood Urea Nitrogen
8-20
The liver produces urea in the urea cycle as a waste product of the digestion of protein. BUN is an indication of renal health
Blood Glucose (fasting)
70-120 mg/dL
8 hours after eating
Serum Creatinine
100-130 ml/min/1.73m2
1) CKD Stage 1 – GFR >90mL/min/1.73m2 with evidence of kidney damage
2) CKD Stage 2 (Mild) – 60- 89 mL/min/1.73m2 with evidence of kidney damage
3) CKD Stage 3 (Moderate) – 30 - 59 mL/min/1.73m2
4) CKD Stage 4 (Severe) –15- 29 mL/min/1.73m2
5) CKD Stage 5 Kidney failure - GFR < 15 mL/min/1.73m2
CKD Stage 1
1) CKD Stage 1 – GFR >90mL/min/1.73m2 with evidence of kidney damage
CKD Stage 2
2) CKD Stage 2 (Mild) – 60- 89 mL/min/1.73m2 with evidence of kidney damage
CKD Stage 3
3) CKD Stage 3 (Moderate) – 30 - 59 mL/min/1.73m2
CKD Stage 4
4) CKD Stage 4 (Severe) –15- 29 mL/min/1.73m2
CKD Stage 5
5) CKD Stage 5 Kidney failure - GFR < 15 mL/min/1.73m2
Urine Specific Gravity (Urinalysis)
1.003-1.030
Ketone Bodies (Urinalysis)
0
Its presence in urine is a sign of DKA
Digoxin
0.8 to 2.0 ng/ml
Lithium
0.5 to 1.5 mEq/L
Dilantin
10 - 20 mcg/mL
Theophylline
10 - 20 mcg/mL
what is finkelstien test and what is it used to diagnose
pain with grasping thumb into palm_x000D_
_x000D_
used to dx de quervains tenosynovitis
a/w grape like vesicles in the vagina
hyditiform mole
a/w snow storm pattern on US of vagina
hyditiform mole
what are the two different type of hyditiform mole
complete_x000D_
-46_x000D_
-empty egg and 2 sperm_x000D_
_x000D_
incomplete_x000D_
-69_x000D_
-egg and 2 sperm
what are the functions of B-hCG
maintains the corpus luteum_x000D_
_x000D_
promotes male sexual differentiation_x000D_
_x000D_
stimulates maternal thyroid gland
what is the difference between gestational age and developmental age
DA = since fertilization_x000D_
_x000D_
GA = since LNMP_x000D_
_x000D_
(GA is 2 weeks longer)
what is Nageles rules for dating
LNMP - 3 months + 7 days
what are the features of fetal hydantoin syndrome and what causes it
caused by phenytoin or carbamazepine_x000D_
_x000D_
hypoplastic nails_x000D_
cleft palate_x000D_
vit K def
when is a baby considered term
38-42 weeks
when is a baby considered preterm
25-37 weeks
what type of somatoform disorder is pseudocyesis
conversion
what causes the damage in iron poisoning
lipid peroxidation and free radicals
what is the order that parity is written in
T-PAL_x000D_
_x000D_
Term_x000D_
Pre term_x000D_
Abortions_x000D_
Living children
what must be ruled out in in hyperemesis gravidarum
hyditiform mole_x000D_
_x000D_
choriocarcinoma
what cells produce B-hCG and where are they derived from
syncytiotrophoblasts_x000D_
_x000D_
progenitor villous cytotrophoblast cells
when does B-hCG begin to be produced
8 days after fertilization
what is the best initial test to dx pregnancy
B-hCG
what test confirms a pregnancy
US_x000D_
- transvaginal earlier than transabdominal
what is done to prevent or treat 1st trimester abortions caused by incompetent cervic
cervical cerclage
what cardiology physiologic changes are seen in pregnancy
increased HR_x000D_
_x000D_
decreased BP
what respiratory physiologic changes are seen in pregnancy
increased O2 consumption_x000D_
_x000D_
increased tidal volume and minute ventilation
what is a common SE of amniocentesis
amniotic fluid embolism
low PAPP-A is a/w
trisomy 18 and 21
what is a/w banana sign on US
compressed cerebellum_x000D_
_x000D_
a/w neurotube defect
what should be done next is a triple or quad screen are found to be abnormal
US to confirm date_x000D_
_x000D_
then an amniocentesis
a/w_x000D_
increased B-hCG_x000D_
decreased AFP_x000D_
decreased estriol
trisomy 21
a/w_x000D_
decreased B-hCG_x000D_
decreased AFP_x000D_
decreased estriol
trisomy 18
what are braxton hicks contractions
contraction without dilation in the 3rd trimester
why is chorionic villous sampling indication
known genetic disease in parents_x000D_
mother > 35 yo_x000D_
abnormal US
why is amniocentesis indicated
known genetic disease in parents_x000D_
mother > 35 yo_x000D_
abnormal quad screen
what test is used for rapid karyotype analysis
cordocentesis
when would MTX therapy for ectopic pregnancy be contraindicated
immunodeficient px_x000D_
liver or renal disease_x000D_
ectopic larger than 3.5cm_x000D_
presence of fetal heart beat_x000D_
coexisting intrauterine pregnancy_x000D_
currently breast feeidng
what is intrauterine fetal demise
fetal death after 20 weeks
what is abortion
fetal death before 20 weeks_x000D_
(or a fetus that weighs <500g)
how should intrauterine fetal demised be evacuated
before 24 weeks D/C_x000D_
after 24 weeks PGE2, pisoprostal, oxytocin
what is the next step in diagnosing an abortion
US
what is the next step after threatened abortion is diagnosed
reassure_x000D_
_x000D_
follow up with US a week later
what is the Rx for septic abortion
immediate surgical evacuation_x000D_
_x000D_
levofloxacin and metronidazole
what is used during twin delivery to convert 2nd twin from transverse to oblique position
internal podalic version
what is the only difference in monozygotic twins
finger prints
how is cervical length a/w preterm birth
>35 mm = decreased risk_x000D_
_x000D_
<35 mm = increased risk
what is preterm labor
contractions and dilation before 37 weeks
what is PROM
rupture of chorioamniotic membrane before 37 weeks_x000D_
_x000D_
gush of fluid from vagina)"
what is cervical incompetence
painless dilation of cervix w/o contraction
when should preterm labor NOT be stopped
preeclampsia and ecclampsia_x000D_
maternal cardiac disease or hemorrhage_x000D_
cervical dilation more than 4cm_x000D_
fetal death_x000D_
chorioamnionitis_x000D_
PROM
what should be done if preterm labor occurs and you dont want to deliver
give betamethasome or dexamethasone_x000D_
_x000D_
followed by Mg sulfate or CCB
how can Mg toxicity be checked for
depressed deep tendon reflexes
what are the most feared complications of Mg toxicity
respiratory depression_x000D_
_x000D_
cardiac arrest
what are the complications of PROM
preterm labor_x000D_
_x000D_
cord prolapse_x000D_
_x000D_
placental abruption_x000D_
_x000D_
chorioamnionitis
how can chorioamnionitis risk be decreased in PROM
decreasing the amount of examinations
Rx for chorioamnionitis
clindamycin and gentamycin
how can maternal and fetal blood be differentiated
Apt test
what heart tracings is vasa previa a/w
sinusoidal_x000D_
-tachycardia to bradycardia
Rx for vasa previa
crash c section
what is the next step in placenta previa is preterm
betamethasone_x000D_
_x000D_
tocolytics
what is the next step in placenta previa in term
schedule c section
how is placental invasion Rx
c section followed by hysterectomy
what is invaded in placenta accreta
superficial uterine wall
what is invaded in placenta increta
myometrium
what is invaded in placenta percreta
uterine serosa with_x000D_
bladder wall or rectal wall
what is placental abruption
separation of placenta from decidua basalis
what must be done if placental abruption occurs during delivery and why
rapid delivery to avoid retroplacental hemorrhage which could cause DIC
what is a concealed placental abruption
completely detached placenta_x000D_
_x000D_
blood remains within uterine cavity
what is a external placental abruption
partially detached placenta_x000D_
_x000D_
blood drains through cervix
what are the serious complications of a concealed placental abruption
DIC_x000D_
uterine tetany_x000D_
fetal hypoxia_x000D_
sheehan syndrome
what is uterine rupture
complete transection of uterus from endometrium to the serosa
what c section has the highest risk factor for uterine rupture
classical (longitudinal)
what placental invasion has the highest risk for uterine rupture
placenta percreta
how can uterine rupture present
abnormal bump in abdomen_x000D_
_x000D_
regression of fetus_x000D_
_x000D_
mother may have a sudden relief of pain that then becomes diffuse pain
Rx for uterine rupture
immediate laparotomy with delivery of the fetus_x000D_
_x000D_
all future deliveries must be at 36 weeks by c section
what type of reaction is Rh incompatibility
alloimmunization_x000D_
isoimmunization
what is the typical situation for ABO incompatibility
mother = O_x000D_
baby = A or B
what is the MCC for RhoGAM not to work
too low of a dose
what is used as a qualitative test to see maternal fetal hemorrhage
rosette test
what is used to determine the amount of fetal blood in maternal blood stream
klehauer betke stain
what is transient or late HTN of pregnancy
HTN during second half of pregnancy or later_x000D_
_x000D_
w/o proteinuria
what is chronic HTN of pregnancy
HTN before 20 week of gestation_x000D_
_x000D_
w/o proteinura
Dx_x000D_
chronic HTN of pregnancy that later develops prtoeinuria
chronic HTN with superimposed preeclampsia
what is gestational HTN
HTN that starts after 20 week of gestation
what is preeclampsia
HTN after 20 week_x000D_
_x000D_
edema_x000D_
proteinuria
what must chronic HTN or pregnancy be differentiated from
molar pregnancy
what are the symptoms for severe preeclampsia
>160/110_x000D_
_x000D_
>5g per 24 hours in urine_x000D_
_x000D_
impaired mental status, liver function and vision_x000D_
_x000D_
generalized edema_x000D_
_x000D_
oliguria_x000D_
_x000D_
thrombocytopenia
what is the pathophys of preeclampsia
vasospasm
what causes the seizures in eclampsia
cerebral vasospasm leading to cerebral hypoxia
Rx for ecclampsia
deliver if_x000D_
->34 weeks_x000D_
-lungs are mature_x000D_
-maternal or fetal deterioration
what causes the pain in HELLP syndrome
distention of hepatic (Glissons) capsule
what is seen histologically in the liver
centrilobular necrosis and hematoma formation
what causes fetal thyrotoxicosis in maternal graves disease
IgG autoAb cross placenta
how is gestational diabetes evaluated
screen 24-28 weeks with glucose load_x000D_
_x000D_
if >140 after 1 hour do glucose tolerance_x000D_
_x000D_
if any 2 are abnormal it is diagnostic_x000D_
-1 hour > 180_x000D_
-2 hour > 155_x000D_
-3 hour >140
what is IUGR
fetus weighs in 10% for gestational age
what are the characteristics of symmetric IUGR
brain is proportional to body_x000D_
occurs before 20 weeks gestation_x000D_
caused by fetal factors
what are the characteristics of asymmetric IUGR
brain weight is not decreased_x000D_
occurs after 20 weeks_x000D_
caused by maternal factors
what is the most preventable cause of IUGR
smoking
how can IUGR be diagnosed
US_x000D_
-fundal hieght is atleast 3 cm smaller_x000D_
-abdominal circumference is best because it differentiates symmetric from asymmetric
what is macrosomia
birth weight >4500g
what is the only way multiple gestations can be delivered
vertex vertex
how is macrosomia Dx
screened with fundal height >3cm greater than gestation age_x000D_
_x000D_
confirmed with US
how is macrosomia Rx
C section
MCC of nonreassuring nonstress test
sleeping baby
what should be done in a nonreassuring nonstress test
vibroaccoustic stimulation
when and why is a NST performed
high risk pregnancy 32-34 weeks
when is a contraction stress test done
equivical NST or BPP_x000D_
_x000D_
assess uteroplacental dysfunctipn
what is a contraction stress test
oxytocin challenge to see if it induces movement
what is done if a BPP = 6
contraction stress test
what is done is BPP = 4
delivery
what is the next step in nonreassuring HR
oxygen_x000D_
change maternal position_x000D_
discontinue uterotonic drugs
what is the most serious and dangerous deceleration
late
what is the cause of early decelerations
head compression -> vasovagal response
what is the cause of variable deceleration
umbilical cord compression
what is the cause of late decelerations
uteroplacental insufficiency ->hypoxia -> acidosis
what kind of contractions are not a/w with labor
irregular intervals_x000D_
_x000D_
do not shorten_x000D_
_x000D_
do not increase in intensity
what are some epidural anesthesia SE
urinary retention_x000D_
hypotension_x000D_
decreased CO
what is luchia rubra
first days bloody discharge
what is luchia serosa
3-4 days_x000D_
pale discharge
what is luchia alba
3-4 days_x000D_
white yellow discharge
what is prolonged latent stage
long time to reach 4 cm_x000D_
_x000D_
> 20 hours in primipara_x000D_
> 14 hours in multipara
what is protracted cervical dilation
slow dilation during active stage_x000D_
_x000D_
< 1.2 cm per hour in primipara_x000D_
<1.5 cm per hour in multipara
what is arrest of cervical dilation
no dilation for 2 hours
what is arrest of fetal descent
no descent for 1 hour
what is the MCC of arrest disorders
cephalopelvic disproportion
what is used to extract fetal head in breech delivery
piper forceps
Rx for breech
self correct by week 37_x000D_
_x000D_
if not perform external cephalic version_x000D_
_x000D_
if not perform c section
Dx_x000D_
mother has bilateral discharge of clear, yellow, green or brown fluid
galactorhea
what should be checked with suspected galactorrhea
prolactin TSH
what should be suspected in turtle sign_x000D_
(head is delivered and then retracts)
shoulder dystocia
what is post partum hemorrhage
bleeding more than 500mL after delivery
MCC of postpartum hemorrhage
uterine atony
Rx for postpartem hemorrhage
1- check for ruptured uterus or retained placenta_x000D_
_x000D_
2- compression massage_x000D_
_x000D_
3- oxytocin_x000D_
_x000D_
4- crystalloid fusion if BP is <90_x000D_
_x000D_
5- blood products may be given (FFP, PRBC)_x000D_
_x000D_
6- hysterectomy
MC soft tissue sarcoma in children
rhabdomyosarcoma
what causes breast milk jaundice
factor in human milk increases bilirubin enterohepatic circulation
Rx for breast milk jaundice
switch to formula for a couple days
time period for breast milk jaundice
3 weeks and beyond
what causes breast feeding failure jaundice
insufficient coloric intake
time period for breast feeding failure jaundice
first week
Rx for breast feeding failure jaundice
increase breast feeds
presentation for milk protein intolerance
vominting and blooding diarrhea that contains RBCs and eosinophils
milk protein intolerance is a/w
atopic disorders
fractures highly suggestive of abuse
ribs_x000D_
skull_x000D_
various stages
Dx_x000D_
child who was growing normally suddenly slows growth at 1 year but eventually reaches normal hieght
constitutional growth delay
MCC of short stature and pubertal delay
constitutional growth delay
Dx_x000D_
8 yo child wakes up in the middle of the night with pain that resolves in the morning
growing pains
Rx for growing pains
massage_x000D_
_x000D_
analgesics
normal newborn respiratory rate
40-60
what is breast milk helps in gastric emptying
whey protein
what are the benefits of breast feeding
less reflux_x000D_
_x000D_
less colic_x000D_
_x000D_
better absorption
what decreases in breast milk with each feed
protein
what is the main protein in breast milk
whey
what should be down if IV access cannot be obtained in pediatric px
intraosseous access_x000D_
_x000D_
can only be used for 24-48 hours
what is dacrocystitis
nasolacrimal duct obstruction
Dx_x000D_
chronic tearing and mattering that resolves with massage of lacrimal duct
dacrocystitis
when does chemical irritation of the eye occur
0-2 days
when does gonorrhea infection of the eye occur
2-7 days
when does chlamydia infection of the eye occur
7-21 days
when does herpes infection of the eye occur
over 21 days
what causes chemical irritation of the eye
silver nitrate
Rx for chemical irritation of the eye
resolve sin 24 hours
what eye problems are prevented with ointment given at birth
gonorrhea
what is put in eye soon after birth
erythromycon_x000D_
tetracycline_x000D_
silver nitrate
what clotting factor deficiencies commonly cause purpura
vWD_x000D_
_x000D_
hemophilia A and B
features of cephalohematoma
doesnt cross suture lines_x000D_
_x000D_
presents days later_x000D_
_x000D_
subperiosteal hemorrhage
features of caput succedaneum
crosses suture lines_x000D_
_x000D_
seen immediately after birth_x000D_
_x000D_
echymotic swelling of the scalp
what are nuclear remnants within RBC
howell jolly bodies
what do howell jolly bodies stain with
wright stain
what are oxidized hemoglobin
heinz bodies
what do heinz bodies stain with
crystal violet
what is deficient in galactosemia
G1PUT
features of galactossemia
cataracts_x000D_
jaundice_x000D_
hypoglycemia_x000D_
convulsions
features of uridyl diphosphate galactose 4 epimerase def
cataracts_x000D_
jaundice_x000D_
hypoglycemia_x000D_
convulsions_x000D_
hypotonia_x000D_
nerve deafness
what is used to detect Phe products in urine of those with PKU
gluthrie test
what causes redness, swelling and fever after a DTaP
pertussis part
when should the Hep B vaccine be given
shortly after birth_x000D_
_x000D_
except in those that wiegh less than 2kg (4lbs)
what newborns should recieve the HBIG
those with HBaAg positive mothers
what causes transient polycythemia of newborn
hypoxia (MCC delayed cord clamping)
when does transient tachypnea require evaluation
if more than 4 hours work up for sepsis_x000D_
_x000D_
blood and urine cultrues
MCC of brachial palsy
macrosomic baby
when do the sinuses develop
maxillary and ethmoid are present at birth_x000D_
_x000D_
sphenoid within first few years_x000D_
_x000D_
frontal by 9-10 yo
which brachial palsy is a/w horner syndrome
klumpke
MCC of clavicular fracture
shoulder dystocia
biggest problem of oligohydramnios
cord compression
MCC of induced labor and c section
cord compression
until when is bed wetting normal
5 yo
what is the first step in management of a hiatal hernia
intubate _x000D_
_x000D_
orogastric tube placement
where is AFP made
liver_x000D_
_x000D_
GI tract
what is omphalocele a/w
trisomy 18
MCC of elevated AFP
incorrect dating
what is the cause of umbilical hernia
weakness of rectus abdominis
what is umbilical hernia a/w
congenit hypothyroidism
Rx for umbilical hernia
resolves spontaneously by 3_x000D_
_x000D_
surgical intervention by 4
MC abdominal mass in children
wilms
WAGR is caused by a deletion in
chromosome 11 PAX6
MC site of wilms metastasis
lungs
wilms tumor arises from
metanephrose
what is the best initial test to diagnose wilms
abdominal US
what is the most accurate test to diagnose wilms
CT with contrast
features of wilms
hematuria_x000D_
HTN_x000D_
doesnt cross midline_x000D_
no horners
features of neuroblastoma
no hematuria_x000D_
no HTN_x000D_
horners syndorme_x000D_
crosses midline
what is a/w wilms tumor
denys drash _x000D_
beckwith wiedemann
features of beckwith weidemenn
hypoglycemia_x000D_
macroglossia_x000D_
visceromegaly_x000D_
omphalocele_x000D_
wilms tumor
MC cancer of infancy
neuroblastoma
MC extracranial solid malignancy
neuroblastoma
a/w bag of worms
varicocele
what does neuroblastoma prognosis depend on
N-myc protooncogene and hyperdiploidy
what causes spermatocele
dilation of efferent ductules
Dx_x000D_
painless fluid filled cyst that transiluminates
spermatocele
what causes vericocele
dilation of pampiniform plexus
what are hallmark signs of neuroblastoma
hypsarrythmia (dancing eyes)_x000D_
_x000D_
opsoclonus (dancing feet)
cause of hydrocele
remnant tunica vaginalis
how is vesicoureteral reflux diagnosed
VCUG
how is posterior urethra valve diagnosed
VCUG
what is hypospadias a/w
cryptorchidism_x000D_
_x000D_
inguinal hernias_x000D_
_x000D_
5a reductase def
what is epispadias a/w
urinary incontinence_x000D_
_x000D_
bladder extrophy
which cyanotic heart lesion depend on PDA
transposition of great vessels_x000D_
_x000D_
hypoplastic LH
what are the cyanotic heart lesions
Ts
what are the R-L shunts
Ts
what are the acyanotic heart lesions
3 letters and coarctation
what are the L-R shunts
3 letters and coarctation
MC cyanotic heart lesion in children
TOF
what are at increased risk for TOF
cri du cht_x000D_
_x000D_
trisomys
MCC of cerebral palsy
cerebral anoxia
child with trauma to soft palate is at increased risk for
acute stroke syndrome_x000D_
_x000D_
due to compression or dissection of carotid
a/w boot shaped heart
TOF
how are all cyanotic heart lesions Dx
X ray_x000D_
_x000D_
most accurate is echocardiogram
a/w single S2
TOGV_x000D_
TA_x000D_
TOF_x000D_
tricuspid atresia_x000D_
hypoplastic LH
MC cyanotic heart lesion in neonates
TOGV
a/w egg on string x ray
TOGV
a/w pulsus bigeminus
hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
a/w pulsus bisferiens
aortic regurg
a/w pulsus tardus et parvus
aortic stenosis
a/w pulsus paradoxus
cardiac tamponade _x000D_
_x000D_
tension pneumothorax
increased risk factor for TOGV
aperts_x000D_
cri du chat_x000D_
trisomys
features of TOF
overriding aorta_x000D_
pulm stenosis_x000D_
right ventricular dilation_x000D_
VSD
features of hypoplastic LH
LV hypoplasia_x000D_
mitral valve atresia_x000D_
aortic valve lesions
presents with gray cyanosis at birth
hypoplastic LH
x ray shows globular shaped heart
hypoplastic LH
a/w biventricular hypertrophy
TA
what is the most severe sequela of TA
pulmonary HTN
MC congenital heart lesion
VSD
how are acyanotic heart lesions Dx
best initial is echcardiogram_x000D_
_x000D_
most diagnostic is cardiac catheterization
a/w paradoxical splitting
LBBB
how is VSD treated
75% close by 10yo_x000D_
_x000D_
surveilence with echocardiogram until then
MCC of ASD
osteum secundum defect
a/w fixed wide split S2
ASD
what is the only congenital heart defect that doesnt develop endocarditis
ASD
when is PDA a normal finding
forst 12 hours
which heart lesions radiate to the back
pulmonary and tricuspid
MCC of secondary HTN in children
fibromusculr displasia
Rx for kawasaki
aspirin for fever and arthralgia_x000D_
-if life long, needs influenza vaccine_x000D_
_x000D_
IVIG to prevent coronary aneurysms
a/w pear shaped heart
pericardial effusion
a/w jug handle appearance
primary pulmonary artery HTN
a/w 3 like appearance
coarctation of aorta
MC location for coarctation of aorta
ligamentum arteriosus
what happens if coarctation is proximal to left subclavian artery
pressure is higher in the right arm
when is jaundice pathologic in newborns
appears in first 24 hours_x000D_
rises by more than 5mg per day_x000D_
bilirubin rises above 19.5_x000D_
direct bilirubin rises above 2_x000D_
hyperbilirubin persist after 2 weeks of life
Rx for pathologic jaundice of newborn
phototherapy_x000D_
_x000D_
exchage transfusion if rises above 20
Dx _x000D_
drooling, regurgitation or vomiting during feeds
esophageal atresia
best initial test for esophageal atresia
coiling NG tube on x ray
Dx_x000D_
patient with recent URI follwed by sore throat, hot potatoe voice and neck stiffness
retropharyngeal abscess
best initial test for retropharyngeal abscess
x ray shows widening between trachea and spine
what confirms a retropharyngeal abscess
CT
best initial test for pyloric stenosis
abdominal US
most accurate test for pyloric stenosis
GI series
Dx_x000D_
palpable olive shaped mass in epigastrium
pyloric stenosis
what can be seen in upper GI series of pyloric stenosis
string sign_x000D_
shoulder sign_x000D_
mushroom sign_x000D_
railroad track sign
a/w doughnut sign
intussusception
what is choanal atresia
membrane between nostrils and pharyngeal space prevents breathing during feeding
Dx_x000D_
child turns blue when feeding and pink when crying
choanal atresia
best initial test for choanal atresia
passing NG tube
confirmation test for choanal atresia
CT with intranasal contrast shows narrowing of pterygoid plate
first step in management of choanal atresia
secure airway
a/w explosive stool on rectal exame
hirschsprung
what is charge syndrome
coloboma of the eye_x000D_
heart defect_x000D_
atresia of chanae_x000D_
retardation in growth and development_x000D_
genitalurinary defects_x000D_
ear anomolies
best initial test for hirschsprung
x ray
best diagnostic test for hirschsprung
full thickness biopsy
what is vecterl syndrome
vertebral anomolies_x000D_
anal atresia_x000D_
cardiovascular anomolies_x000D_
tracheoesophageal fistula_x000D_
esophageal atresia_x000D_
renal anomolies_x000D_
limb anomolies
choanal atresia is a/w
charge syndrome
imperforate anus is a/w
vacterl syndrome
defect in duodenal atresia
improper canalization
what isduodenal atresia a/w
annular pancreas_x000D_
_x000D_
down syndrome
what is the best initial test for duodenal atresia
x ray
a/w double bubble
duodenal atresia_x000D_
_x000D_
volvulus
first step in management of duodenal atresia
IVF
presentation in volvulus
vomiting with bile_x000D_
blood stained stools_x000D_
abdominal distention
a/w birds beak
volvulus
best initial treatment for volvulus
endoscopic decompression
most effective therapy for volvulus
surgical decompression_x000D_
(used if endoscopic decompression fails)
a/w currant jelly stools
intussusception
a/w sausage mass
intussusception
MC location for intussusception
ileocecal junction
common causes of intussusception
polyp_x000D_
lymphoma_x000D_
hamartoma_x000D_
enlarged mesenteric node_x000D_
enlarged peyer patches_x000D_
meckels diverticulum
best initial test for intussusception
US
a/w target sign
intussusception
most accurate test for intussusception
barium/air enema
therapeutic steps in intussusception
1- fluid resuscitation_x000D_
_x000D_
2- NGT decompression_x000D_
_x000D_
3- barium/air enema_x000D_
_x000D_
4- surgery
what kind of tissue is found in meckels diverticulum
gastric or pancreatic
what is meckels diverticulum
incomplete obliteration of omphalomesenteric duct (viterlline duct)
Dx_x000D_
1 year old boy with painless rectal bleeding
meckels diverticulum
what is the most accuarate test for meckels diverticulum
technetium 99m scan
Dx_x000D_
infant with excessive crying for more than 3 hours, more than 3 days, for more than 3 months
infantile colic
Rx for infantile colic
probiotics_x000D_
_x000D_
simethicone
a/w increased gastric residual volume
necrotizing enterocolitis
a/w pneumatosis intestinalis
necrotizing enterocolitis
how does IDM develop RDS
hyperinsulin antagonizes the actions of cortisol on the lungs
what pathologies are a/w IDM
caudal regression_x000D_
TOGV_x000D_
duodenal atresia_x000D_
small left colon_x000D_
anencephaly_x000D_
neurotube defects
what is increased in 21 hydroxylase def
17 a hydroxyprogesterone
how can 21 hydroxylase def be confirmed
ACTH stimulation test
MCC of congenital hypothyroidism
thyroid dysgenesis
a/w palpable step off at lumbosacral area
spondyllolisthesis
what is spondylolithessi
forward slip of vertebral L5 over S1_x000D_
_x000D_
slow development of back pain and neurological dysfunction
what are some common findings of rickets
craniotabes_x000D_
_x000D_
rachitic rosary (beading of ribs)_x000D_
_x000D_
large anterior fontanelle_x000D_
_x000D_
harrison groove (horizontal depression on lower border of chest)
Rx for rickets
calcitrol_x000D_
_x000D_
ergocalciferol
MCC of neonatal sepis
GBS
how can GBS be diagnosed in a mother who has already recieved antibiotics
latex agglutination
what should be done in a new born suspected of having sepsis
lumbar puncture and blood cultures
best initial test to diagnose toxoplasmosis
IgM
best initial test to diagnose syphilis
VDRL or RPR
best initial test to diagnose CMV
urine or saliva viral titers
best initial test to diagnose herpes
tzanck smear
best initial test to diagnose varicella
tzanck smear
most accurate test to diagnose toxoplasmosis
PCR
most accurate test to diagnose syphilis
FTA ABS or dark field microscopy
most accurate test to diagnose CMV
urine or saliva PCR
most accurate test to diagnose herpes
PCR
most accurate test to diagnose varicella
viral culture
most accurate test to diagnose measles (rubeola)
IgM Ab
MCC of infantile febrile seizures
HSV 6 (roseola)
features of measle (rubeola)
cough coryza conjunctivitis_x000D_
_x000D_
rash spreads from head to toe_x000D_
_x000D_
koplik spots
what can cause upper airway compression by a vascular ring
double aortic arch_x000D_
right sided aorta_x000D_
pulmonary sling
tracheal compression symptoms that are worse when supine and relieved by extending the neck
upper airway compression by vascular ring
how is foreign body aspiration treated and diagnosed
direct laryngoscopy and rigid bronchoscopy
what causes croup
parainfluenza
triad of croup
barking cough (horseness)_x000D_
_x000D_
caryza_x000D_
_x000D_
inspiratory stridor
a/w steeple sign
croup
a/w narrowing of air column in the trachea on x ray
croup
a/w lateral x ray showing subglottic narrowing
croup
how is croup Rx
mild symptoms = steroids_x000D_
_x000D_
severe symptoms = racemic epi_x000D_
_x000D_
finally intubate if all fail
a/w unilateral tonsilar swelling with uvualr deviation
peritonsilar abscess
when is HiB vaccine needed
those younger than 5_x000D_
_x000D_
asplenics
MCC of epiglotitis in unvaccinated
HiB
MCC of epiglotitis in vaccinated
Strep
presentation of epiglotitis
hot potatoe voice_x000D_
_x000D_
drooling in tripod position_x000D_
_x000D_
cherry red epiglotis
a/w thumb print sign
epiglotitis
Rx for epiglotitis
intubate_x000D_
_x000D_
ceftriaxone
prophylaxis for epiglotitis close contacts
rifampin
MCC of chronic inspiratory noise in infants
laryngomalacia
Rx for laryngomalacia
improves slowly_x000D_
_x000D_
disappears by 2 years
how is laryngomalacia diagnosed
laryngoscopy
what is seen in laryngoscopy of laryngomalacia
rolling in from side to side
what is the most contagious stage of whooping cough
catarrhal stage
when does post tussive emesis occur
paroxysmal stage
a/w butterfly pattern on xray
whooping cough
when should a px with whooping cough be isolated
first 5 days of Rx
how is whooping cough diagnosed
PCR of nasal secretions_x000D_
_x000D_
or _x000D_
_x000D_
toxin ELISA
pathophys of whooping cough
causes ciliary paralysis
prophylaxis to close contacts of whooping cough
macrolides
Rx for whooping cough
erythromycin or azithromycin_x000D_
_x000D_
initially decrease infection_x000D_
after 2 weeks they reduce transmission
what should never be done in diptheria infection
scrape
a/w productive cough lasting 7-10 days with fever
bronchitis
MCC of bronchitis in smokers
s pneumo_x000D_
_x000D_
H influ
MCC of bronchitis in nonsmokers
viral
Rx for diptheria
antitoxin
a/w gray pseudomembrane plaques on back of throat
diptheria
a/w think greenish amniotic fluid
meconium aspiration syndrome
a/w displaced femoral epiphysis in obese adolescents
slipped capital femoral epiphysis
a/w a painful limp and an externally rotated leg
slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Rx for Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
internal fixation with pinning
a/w avascular necrosis of the femoral head
legg calve perthes disease
a/w asymmetric hips in a child
legg calve perthes disease
a/w proximal thigh atrophy in child
legg calve perthes disease
a/w breech infants with difficulty walking
congenital hip dysplasia
Rx for congenital hip dysplasia
<6m = pavlik harness_x000D_
_x000D_
6m - 1 y = reduction with spica cast_x000D_
_x000D_
>2y reduction
how is congenital hip dysplasia Dx
ortolani and Barlow meneuver_x000D_
_x000D_
causes click or clunk
endocrine disfunction in prader willis
hypothalamic dysfunction_x000D_
-GH def_x000D_
-hypogonadism
how is SIDS most prevented
sleepin in supine position
Rx for reyes syndrome
glucose_x000D_
_x000D_
FFP_x000D_
_x000D_
mannitol
pathophys of reyes syndrome
diffuse mitochondrial injury_x000D_
-extensive fatty vacuolization of liver without inflammation
barbiturates
phenobarbital_x000D_
pentobarbital_x000D_
methohexital_x000D_
thiopental_x000D_
thiamylal
alpha-2 agonists
xylazine_x000D_
medetomidine_x000D_
detomidine
benzodiazepines
diazepam_x000D_
clonazepam_x000D_
zolazepam_x000D_
midazolam
dissociative anesthetics
ketamine_x000D_
tiletamine
neuroleptics
phenothiazines: acepromazine, chlorpromazine_x000D_
_x000D_
butyrophenones: droperidol
pure opioid agonists
morphine_x000D_
hydromorphone (oxymorphone)_x000D_
etorphine_x000D_
codeine_x000D_
dextromethorphan_x000D_
methadone_x000D_
carfentanil_x000D_
sufentanil_x000D_
fentanyl
pure opioid antagonists
naloxone_x000D_
naltrexone_x000D_
diprenorphine
mixed opioid agonists/antagonists
butorphanol_x000D_
buprenorphine
miscellaneous opioids
loperamide_x000D_
apomorphine
inhalational anesthesetics
halothane_x000D_
isoflurane_x000D_
sevoflurane_x000D_
nitrous oxide
analeptics
doxapram_x000D_
strychnine_x000D_
theophylline_x000D_
aminophylline_x000D_
theobromine
local anesthetics
esters: cocaine, proparacaine_x000D_
amides: lidocaine, bupivacaine, mepivacaine
anticonvulsants
phenobarbital_x000D_
primidone_x000D_
diazepam_x000D_
clonazepam_x000D_
potassium bromide_x000D_
felbamate_x000D_
gabapentin
phenobarbital
barbiturate_x000D_
_x000D_
used to tx seizure disorders in dogs & cats; occasionally used as oral sedative
pentobarbital
barbiturate_x000D_
_x000D_
sedative agent, drug of choice for tx of intractable seizures in dogs & cats d/t convulsant agents (ex. strychnine poisoning) or CNS toxins (ex. tetanus), major active ingredient in several euthanasia solutions_x000D_
_x000D_
largely replaced by ultra-short acting barbiturates b/c of slow induction, long duration of action, inactivated primarily by metabolism (don't use w/ liver dz)
thiopental
barbiturate_x000D_
_x000D_
ultra short acting _x000D_
excellent IV induction agent in young, healthy animals, or alone for very short procedures
thiamylal
barbiturate_x000D_
_x000D_
ultra short acting_x000D_
no longer available in US; replaced by thiopental
methohexital
barbiturate_x000D_
_x000D_
ultra-short acting anesthetic agent often used in sight hounds b/c it does not depend on redistribution to fat to reverse effect
etomidate
ultrashort acting, hypnotic non-barbiturate induction agent_x000D_
_x000D_
excellent induction agent for patients w/ CV, respiratory, or liver dz_x000D_
_x000D_
safe for use in sighthounds_x000D_
_x000D_
depresses cortisol production_x000D_
can't use in horses (excitement)
propofol: facts + pros
non-barbiturate sedative-hypnotic agent_x000D_
_x000D_
used for induction &/or maintenance of anesthesia, to produce prolonged sedation of patients in ICU_x000D_
_x000D_
pros: rapidly metabolized & redistributed --> very rapid recovery_x000D_
does NOT accumulate in body w/ chronic dosing
barbiturates & lipid solubility
thiobarbiturate always more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturate_x000D_
_x000D_
phenobarb<pentobarb<thiopental_x000D_
_x000D_
as lipid solubility increases:_x000D_
1. duration of action decreases_x000D_
2. quicker onset_x000D_
3. increased rate of distribution, metabolism_x000D_
4. more hypnotic potency_x000D_
5. more protein binding
barbiturates: metabolism & redistribution
renal excretion: if highly lipid soluble, completely reabsorbed --> metabolized in liver (caution w/ liver dz)_x000D_
_x000D_
redistribution occurs if drug given rapidly (ex. IV), highly lipid soluble: drug goes to high flow organs 1st, then rapid reversal to muscle, adipose
clinical uses of barbiturates
induction_x000D_
tx of seizures_x000D_
to decrease ICP & tx cerebral edema_x000D_
euthanasia
cons of barbiturates
NOT analgesic (HYPERalgesic at subanesthetic doses)_x000D_
contraindicated w/ liver dz d/t metabolism, inc. free drug if hypoproteinemia is present_x000D_
can't use thiobarbiturates in sighthounds_x000D_
induce liver microsomal enzymes --> incr. metabolism of other drugs (phenobarb most potent)_x000D_
given only IV or PO_x000D_
w/ multiple dosing --> longer duration_x000D_
no pharmalogical antagonist (phenobarb OD: give bicarb to alkaline urine --> increased rate of excretion of parent drug)
CV, resp. effects of barbiturates
brief hypotension, reflex tachycardia_x000D_
transient resp. depression (+/- apnea)_x000D_
arrhythmias, esp. in excited animals
clinical uses of alpha-2 agonists
preanesthetic agent_x000D_
chemical restraint_x000D_
_x000D_
selectivity: xylazine < detomidine < medetomidine_x000D_
_x000D_
duration: detomidine longest
effects of alpha-2 agonists
increases potency of other anasthetic drugs_x000D_
sedation/hypnosis_x000D_
analgesia_x000D_
muscle relaxation
adverse effects of alpha-2 agonists
emesis_x000D_
resp. depression_x000D_
CV effects (vary b'twn drugs)_x000D_
bloat_x000D_
hyperglycemia_x000D_
increased urine output_x000D_
don't use xylazine during last mo. of pregnancy
CV effects of xylazine
transient hypertension followed by prolonged hypotension_x000D_
bradycardia_x000D_
arrhythmias
clinical uses of guaifenesin
adjunct to anesthesia in horses (IV)
effects of guaifenesin
sedation/hypnosis_x000D_
analgesia_x000D_
muscle relaxation_x000D_
antipyretic_x000D_
antitussive
pros & cons of guifenesin
pros: inc. potency of barbiturates_x000D_
dec. hypertonicity assoc. w/ ketamine_x000D_
little cardiopulmonary depression_x000D_
_x000D_
cons: not very H2O soluble --> large vols. required_x000D_
may hemolyze RBCs (esp. in cattle)
clinical uses of benzodiazepines
pre-anesthetic med (often w/ opioids)_x000D_
tx of seizures (midazolam: neonatal seizures in foals)_x000D_
tx anorexia in cats_x000D_
tx fears & phobias
pros of benzodiazepines
dec. dose of other anesthetic drugs_x000D_
muscle relaxant_x000D_
weak resp. depression_x000D_
minor CV effects
cons of benzodiazepines
cannot give IM (except midazolam)_x000D_
weaker sedative/hypnotic effects than other meds_x000D_
amnesia_x000D_
can't give oral diazepam to cats --> idiopathic hepatic necrosis_x000D_
avoid ending chronic tx abruptly_x000D_
tolerance w/ chronic use_x000D_
IV midazolam in cats --> profound tachycardia
pharmacokinetics of benzodiazepines
lipid soluble --> extensive redistribution when given IV_x000D_
_x000D_
metabolism:_x000D_
oxidative pathway --> many active metabolites_x000D_
reductive path --> inactive compounds_x000D_
_x000D_
midazolam: short duration d/t rapid metab & distribution
mechanism of action of benzodiazpines
facilitates GABA by binding to site on GABA receptor --> inc. affinity of GABA for receptor & vice versa --> GABA produces inc. in chloride conductance
flumazenil
benzodiazepine receptor antagonist_x000D_
_x000D_
useful in sick animals, esp. cats, to speed up recovery from anesthesia
mechanism of action of barbiturates
low doses: facilitates GABA by binding to site on GABA receptor (separate site from benzos)_x000D_
_x000D_
higher doses (anesthetic): _x000D_
decreases presynaptic release of NTs_x000D_
blocks postsynaptic action of excitatory NTs_x000D_
GABA-mimetic effect
dissociative anesthetic state
eyes open_x000D_
involuntary movements_x000D_
vocalization_x000D_
hallucinations_x000D_
feel separated from body
physiological effects of dissociatives
analgesia (mostly somatic, less visceral)_x000D_
sympathetic activation_x000D_
hypertonicity (use w/ benzos, alpha-2s, or guaifenesin)_x000D_
inc. ICP, IOP_x000D_
convulsions (use w/ benzos)_x000D_
apneustic breathing_x000D_
retention of near normal pharyngeal & laryngeal reflexes
mechanism of acation of dissociatives
noncompetitive antagonists of NMDA glutamate receptor --> inc. activity of layer V pyramidal output neurons (that release glutamate) --> disruption of thalamic & cerebral functions
tiletamine
similar to ketamine, but longer duration of action_x000D_
_x000D_
can only be bought mixed w/ benzo zolazepam = Telazol (recoveries may be prolonged & rough)
clinical uses of neuroleptics
chemical restraint_x000D_
preanesthetic meds (dec. dose of other meds)_x000D_
antiemetic
neuroleptic syndrome
sedation_x000D_
tranquilization_x000D_
dec. emotional behavior_x000D_
dec. responsiveness to external stimuli_x000D_
dec. spontaneous movement_x000D_
NOT hypnotic_x000D_
NO analgesia alone
adverse effects of neurolpetics
extrapyramidal effects: dyskinesia, dystonia, muscle tremors_x000D_
higher doses --> catalepsy_x000D_
hypotension_x000D_
hypothermia_x000D_
mild neg. inotropic effect_x000D_
dec. seizure threshold_x000D_
weak resp. depression, but can inc. resp. depression w/ other drugs
mechanism of action of neuroleptics
antagonize dopaminergic, alpha-adrenergic, muscarinic, H1, certain serotonergic receptors
phenothiazine neuroleptics: effects in horses
ace, chlorpromazine_x000D_
_x000D_
can cause violent incoordination & excitement _x000D_
_x000D_
penile prolapse & priapism
droperidol
butyrophenone neuroleptic_x000D_
_x000D_
used in various preps in SA, swine_x000D_
don't use in horses d/t bizarre rxns_x000D_
shorter duration than phenothiazine neuroleptics_x000D_
potent dopamine receptor antagonists --> more likely to produce extrapyramidal effects
mechanism of action of opioids & opiopeptins
decrease release of substance P --> dec. transmission of nociceptive info
species dependent effects of morphine
dogs, monkey, man: analgesia, sedation, euphoria, pupillary miosis_x000D_
_x000D_
horses, cats, pigs, ruminants: analgesia, excitement, dysphoria, mydriasis (use low doses)
pros of morphine
valuable premed b/c dec. amt. of other drugs_x000D_
antitussive_x000D_
mild hypotension, bradycardia
cons of morphine
dose dependent resp. depression: CAUTION w/ lung dz, neonates_x000D_
constipation, esp. w/ chronic use_x000D_
emetic_x000D_
SEVERE hypotension if in shock or w/ volume depletion
hydromorphone
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
similar to morphine, but 5x more potent_x000D_
_x000D_
less GI upset & vomiting than morphine in dogs
etorphine
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
agonist at all receptors, 1000x more potent than morphine_x000D_
_x000D_
used only to immobilize wild animals
codeine
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
10x weaker than morphine_x000D_
protected from 1st pass metabolism in liver --> converted to morphine_x000D_
_x000D_
uses:_x000D_
antitussive_x000D_
w/ acetaminophen to relieve pain in dogs
dextromethorphan
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
devoid of all opioid properties except ANTITUSSIVE effect
meperidine
pure opioid agonist (=Demerol)_x000D_
_x000D_
effective analgesic, maintains much of potency when given PO_x000D_
less constipating than morphine
methadone
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
accumulates in body --> inc. duration of action w/ multiple doses_x000D_
retains most analgesic potency when given orally_x000D_
tolerance, dependence develop slowly_x000D_
also NMBA glutamate antagonist --> dec. opioid dependence
carfentanil
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
most potent of fentanil family (all are short acting, w/ rapid onset)_x000D_
_x000D_
used to immobilize wild animals
sufentanil
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
anesthetic adjunct in dogs
fentanyl
pure opioid agonist_x000D_
_x000D_
anesthetic adjunct in dogs_x000D_
patches: control of chronic pain (absorption can be unreliable)
naloxone
pure opioid antagonist_x000D_
_x000D_
most commonly used opioid antagonist in vet med_x000D_
_x000D_
parenteral use only (usually IV), slightly shorter acting than morphine
diprenorphine
pure opioid antagonist_x000D_
_x000D_
parenteral only (usually IM)_x000D_
_x000D_
used only to reverse etorphine-induced immobilization
naltrexone
pure opioid antagonist_x000D_
_x000D_
uses:_x000D_
control crib biting in horses_x000D_
reverse carfentanil-induced immobilization_x000D_
_x000D_
long duration of action_x000D_
oral or parenteral use
butorphanol
mixed opioid agonist/antagonist_x000D_
_x000D_
uses:_x000D_
analgesic_x000D_
antitussive_x000D_
preanesthetic med_x000D_
chemical restraint (w/ alpha-2 agonist)_x000D_
_x000D_
popular in horses d/t low incidence of excitatory effects_x000D_
weak resp. depression, less constipation
buprenorphine
mixed opioid agonist/antagonist_x000D_
_x000D_
uses:_x000D_
analgesic in dogs & cats_x000D_
alternative to methadone for addicts_x000D_
_x000D_
longer duration of action than torb, morphine_x000D_
reverse w/ naloxone given PRIOR to buprenorphine_x000D_
well tolerated in horses
loperamide
misc. opioid agent (=Immodium)_x000D_
_x000D_
used to tx diarrhea_x000D_
_x000D_
avoid repeated use --> constipation_x000D_
can cause profound sedation in certain dog breeds (collies, Australian shepherds, etc.)
apomorphine
misc. opioid agents_x000D_
strong dopaminergic agonist _x000D_
_x000D_
emetic of choice in dogs_x000D_
give conjunctivally (or SQ)
innovar
neuroleptanalgesic_x000D_
_x000D_
= droperidol + fentanyl
midazolam + morphine
benzo/opioid combo_x000D_
_x000D_
given IM as pre-med to dogs that can't be handled easily &/or are in pain_x000D_
often given to cats as alternative to ketamine (ex. w/ intracranial mass, etc.)
diazepam + morphine
benzo/opioid combo_x000D_
_x000D_
given IV as pre-med to calm depressed &/or sick dogs
neuroleptanalgesia
(+): sedation, dec. anxiety, intense analgesia, dec. movement, NO emesis, dec. dose of other drugs_x000D_
_x000D_
(-): resp. depression, extrapyramidal effects, chest rigidity, change in autonomic fn
benzodiazepine/opioid combos
(+): sedation, dec. anxiety, intense analgesia, amnesia, minimal autonomic effects, NO extrapyramidal effects_x000D_
_x000D_
(-): resp. depression (easily reversed w/ opioid antagonist)
determinants of tension of gas in alveoli (FA)
rate of delivery of gas TO alveoli: _x000D_
1. tension of anesthetic gas in inspired gas (FI)_x000D_
2. minute volume_x000D_
_x000D_
rate of removal of gas FROM alveoli:_x000D_
1. cardiac output_x000D_
2. blood solubility (Fblood)*
blood solubility & induction/recovery
LOW blood solubility: _x000D_
fast induction & recovery_x000D_
_x000D_
HIGH blood solubility: slow induction & recovery
effects of inhalational anesthetics
all produce dose dependent depression of respiration & MAP_x000D_
minimal skeletal muscle relaxation_x000D_
_x000D_
halothane is most potent (lowest MAC)_x000D_
sevo has fastest induction/recovery (lowest max vapor conc.)
cons of halothane
hypotension d/t dec. myocardial contractility_x000D_
arrhythmias_x000D_
significant hepatic biotransformation (hepatotoxic metabolites)_x000D_
_x000D_
alters Ca++ movements_x000D_
1. intearctions w/ aminoglycoside Abs, Ca channel blockers --> severe CV depression_x000D_
2. can produce malignant hyperthermia (esp. in pigs), caused by failure of Ca uptake in SR
dantrolene sodium
used to tx malignant hyperthermia_x000D_
_x000D_
decreases Ca++ release from SR
sevoflurane
hypotension d/t vasodilation, esp. in muscle & skin (same w/ iso)_x000D_
unstable in soda lime_x000D_
excellent for sea turtles_x000D_
expensive
nitrous oxide
used as adjunct to anesthesia in small animals b/c:_x000D_
1. concentration & 2nd gas effects_x000D_
2. decreases dose of primary anesthetic_x000D_
3. mild stimulation of symp. nervous system_x000D_
4. ANALGESIC_x000D_
_x000D_
avoid conc. > 70-75%_x000D_
do not give to patients w/ any condition where air is trapped in viscera --> will cause air pocket to expand (ex. pneumothorax)
concentration effect
only seen w/ high conc. of nitrous oxide_x000D_
_x000D_
when higher conc. of anesthetic gas is inhaled, FA (& therefore Fblood), inc. at a slightly greater rate than if a lesser conc. were inhaled
2nd gas effect
occurs when a 2nd gas (ex. 1% halothane) is inspired w/ 75% nitrous & 24% O2_x000D_
_x000D_
conc. effect produced by 75% N2O not only concentrates O2, but also halothane --> inc. rate of movement of halothane from alveolar air to pulm. blood --> faster induction
uses of analeptics
used to reverse drug-induced CNS depression (esp. respiratory depression)_x000D_
_x000D_
cause general CNS stimulation --> can result in convulsions
doxapram
most commonly used analeptic_x000D_
_x000D_
used to stimulate respiration during or after gen. anesthesia, in newborns, in cases of cardiopulm. arrest_x000D_
_x000D_
stimulates carotid & aortic chemoreceptors --> reflux stimulation of medullary resp. centers_x000D_
_x000D_
short duration: 5-10 m._x000D_
excessive doses --> hypertension, hyperventilation, seizures (rare)
strychnine
analeptic; used as a pesticide_x000D_
_x000D_
glycine receptor antagonist --> CNS stimulation_x000D_
_x000D_
strychnine poisoning --> severe & extremely painful convulsions
theophylline
methylxanthine (weak analpetic)_x000D_
_x000D_
used in tx of asthma, adjunct to digoxin to tx CHF (dilates coronary aa.)
aminophylline
methylxanthine (weak analpetic)_x000D_
_x000D_
H2O sol. salt of theophylline (better oral absorption)_x000D_
_x000D_
used in tx of asthma, adjunct to digoxin to tx CHF (dilates coronary aa.)
theobromine
methylxanthine (weak analpetic)_x000D_
_x000D_
in chocolate
cocaine
local anesthetic (ester)_x000D_
_x000D_
only one to cause vasoconstriction
proparacaine
local anesthetic (ester)_x000D_
_x000D_
used to anesthetize cornea_x000D_
lasts 15-30 m.
lidocaine
local anesthetic (amide)_x000D_
_x000D_
most widely used local anesthetic_x000D_
_x000D_
used to tx post-op ileus in horse_x000D_
_x000D_
may cause local irritation & swelling, esp. in horse
bupivacaine
local anesthetic (amide)_x000D_
_x000D_
useful for post-op analgesia_x000D_
duration up to 8 hrs
mepivacaine
local anesthetic (amide)_x000D_
_x000D_
most widely used local in horses b/c it causes little swelling & edema
mechanism of action of local anesthetics
block initiation & propagation of AP by preventing voltage-dep. inc. in Na permeability that accompanies a small inc. in mem depolarization
factors influencing sensitivity of nerves to blockade by local anesthetics
firing rate of nerve: resting Na channels least susceptible, then open channels, inactivated channels most susceptible _x000D_
_x000D_
pH of body fluids & pKa of local anesthetic: uncharged mols penetrate mem, but CHARGED mols bind receptors (if pH dec. d/t inflammation --> more drug needed to block)_x000D_
_x000D_
anatomical structure of nerve: small diameter n. easier to block
local anesthetics: determinants of absorption from site of administration
dosage_x000D_
site of injection: absorbed more quickly in highly vascular area_x000D_
extent of tissue binding: keeps drug at site of admin --> inc. duration of action_x000D_
concurrent admin of vasoconstricting substances: locals are vasodilators & usually sold w/ vasoconstrictor (ex. epi); vasoconstriction --> inc. efficacy b/c systemic absorption is decreased d/t low blood flow
metabolism of local anesthetics
esters: shorter half life d/t rapid hydrolysis by plasma & liver cholinesterases_x000D_
amides: hydrolyzed by liver microsomal enzymes (DO NOT USE w/ liver dz)
systemic effects of cocaine
restlessness, euphoria --> tremors --> convulsions_x000D_
_x000D_
vasoconstriction, hypertension, arrhythmias
systemic effects of local anesthetics (except cocaine)
only w/ HIGH plasma levels:_x000D_
_x000D_
marked hypotension d/t dec. cardiac contractility --> dec. CO & vasodilation by dec. symp. tone
mechanisms of action of seizures
seizure focus activated, seizure discharge from focal area may synchronize w/ other neurons & propagate to surrounding areas of brain_x000D_
_x000D_
dec. GABA activity & inc. glutamate activity important
3 ways anticonvulsants inhibit seizures
1. dec. excessive discharge of seizure focus_x000D_
2. inc. seizure threshold required for discharge_x000D_
3. dec. spread of discharge to surrounding neurons_x000D_
_x000D_
most drugs work by 2 & 3
tx for chronic seizures in dogs & cats
Dogs:_x000D_
1. phenobarb_x000D_
2. phenobarb + KBr_x000D_
3. KBr alone_x000D_
_x000D_
Cats:_x000D_
1. phenobarb_x000D_
2. benzodiazepine_x000D_
3. third level drugs
when to start tx for seizures
> 1 seizure/month_x000D_
very intense seizures w/ breathing difficulties_x000D_
clusters of seizures
pros of phenobarbital for tx of seizures
effective against wide spectrum of epilepsies_x000D_
inexpensive_x000D_
relatively non-toxic_x000D_
easy to measure blood levels_x000D_
relatively little sedation
cons of phenobarbital for tx of seizures
polyphagia --> wt. gain_x000D_
PU/PD_x000D_
hepatotoxicity_x000D_
_x000D_
w/ chronic use:_x000D_
altered bone metabolism_x000D_
inc. metabolism of other drugs using liver microsomal enzymes_x000D_
blood dyscrasias_x000D_
inc. liver enzymes
mechanism of action of phenobarb for tx seizures
inc. seizure threshold, dec. spread of discharge d/t facilitation of GABA, then also inhibition of glutamate_x000D_
_x000D_
at higher doses, may dec. Ca flux across neuronal mem
primidone
anticonvulsant (dogs only)_x000D_
_x000D_
congener of phenobarb _x000D_
more expensive, more hepatotoxic, quite sedative intially_x000D_
_x000D_
it & 2 metabs all anti-convulsant
benzodiazepines to tx seizures
orally ineffective in dogs_x000D_
tolerance to anticonvulsant properties can develop over time_x000D_
most potent elevator of seizure threshold: facilitates GABA_x000D_
_x000D_
diazepam: used in cats that are refractory to phenobarb (don't give orally)_x000D_
_x000D_
clonazepam: not metab. by liver microsomal enzymes (no active metabolites), longer half life, doesn't cause hepatic necrosis
cons of potassium bromide
vomiting_x000D_
pancreatitis (rare)_x000D_
takes ~1 mo. to reach therapeutical plasma levels_x000D_
in emergency, would have to give large loading dose --> potentially cardiotoxic (can use sodium bromide IV instead)
third level drugs used to tx seizures
felbamate (dogs)_x000D_
gabapentin (dogs, cats)
tx of status epilepticus
1. IV diazepam (2-3 doses if needed)_x000D_
2. IV phenobarbital_x000D_
3. if still seizing, IV pentobarbital to produce anesthesia (or IV propofol)_x000D_
_x000D_
if seizures result of strychnine poisoning: tx of choice is anesthetic dose of IV pentobarbital
cons of propofol
-some pain w/ IV administration_x000D_
-can damage tissue if given extravascularly_x000D_
-apnea common after administration_x000D_
-dose dependent vasodilation --> dec. MAP (do NOT use in hypotensive patients)_x000D_
-cats: chronic admin can cause oxidative injury to RBCs
ALS
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis AKA Lou Gahrig’s Disease
ALS Pathophysiology
Rapidly Progressive neurodegenerative disease that attacks upper and lower motor neurons.
What neurotransmitter do ALS pts have in excess? How is it harmful?
Glutamate- it's toxicity is apparently due to Ca flooding the cell. Ca is supposed to briefly enter the neuron with each signal and triggers the cell to fire off its own signals and adjust its own activities accordingly. But prolonged Ca inside the cell evidently can do damage, and will even activate programmed cell death
Is ALS slow or quick onset?
Very quick progression and very short lifespan
Major problems for ALS pts?
No known cause, cure, specific treatment, standard pattern of progression, and no method of prevention.
What is the suspected cause of ALS?
Genetic (10%)- small gene mutation maybe overstimulation by glutamate→ cell injury degeneration (ALS patients have higher levels of glutamate)
Age and gender ALS usually affects?
ages 40-60_x000D_
Men > women
ALS: what is the overall problem?
Brain can no longer send impulses to muscles (therefore can no longer control muscle movement)
Does ALS start as being widespread throughout the body?
Starts in one area of body and spreads until entire body is involved
Major clinical manifestations of ALS
Atrophy → Progressive muscle weakness_x000D_
Muscle wasting_x000D_
Spasticity → paralysis_x000D_
Fatigue_x000D_
Cramps_x000D_
Twitching especially of face (fasciculation)_x000D_
Less motor control in hands and arms_x000D_
Talk, swallow, and breathing affected (will eventually need to be put on a ventilator)
What are the biggest concerns for ALS pts?
• Compromised respiratory_x000D_
• Pneumonia
Does ALS cause death?
Not from ALS itself, but death due to respiratory failure
What is the avg lifespan for ALS pt?
3-5 yrs d/t respiratory failure
Are cognitive/intellictual functinos affected by ALS?
No- Intellectual functioning remains intact! Worst part of this desease ☹ (Think Steven Hawkings)_x000D_
_x000D_
May see cognitive changes in thinking and planning processes
Are the senses affected by ALS?
No- Does not affect sight, sound, smell, taste, hearing_x000D_
_x000D_
• Control of eyes, bladder, etc. will be lost
How to diagnose ALS?
No Specific test to diagnose ALS (all tests are used only to rule out other diseases )
Tests used to determine if pt has ALS?
• Electromyelogram (EMG): Looks at fibrillations and muscle twitching_x000D_
• Muscle Biopsy: Shows abnormalities_x000D_
• PFTs: To make sure no other respiratory problems are the cause of fatigue
Why do we want to diagnose ALS early on?
The earlier it is diagnosed, the slower the disease progresses = can have longer lifespan (d/t lifestyle and environmental changes)
Can ALS be treated to stop progressing>
No- no matter what, the disease WILL progress _x000D_
100% fatal
How to manage ALS?
No specific treatment
What is the only drug approved by the FDA to manage ALS?
Rilutek
What type of drug is Rilutek?
glutamine antagonists
What labs to monitor for pts on Rilutek?
LFTs- drugs harsh on liver_x000D_
_x000D_
AST/ALT
How long does Rilutek work for ALS pts?
Only 2-3 months!
What does Rilutek do for the ALS pt?
slows progression and may prolong need to be trached- Does not relieve symptoms
What other meds will ALS pts be Rx?
Meds also prescribed for pain, fatigue, spasticity, excessive secretions, sleep disturbances, and other complications as they occur
What nursing care for ALS pts?
Support!_x000D_
Patient may feel pain, depression, panic attacks, fear, etc._x000D_
Pastoral care? Palliative/comfort care, refer to support groups, hospice programs, help w/ spasticity, help/advise about putting final affairs in order
What are some of the issues ALS pts and families will have to deal with?
Adaptive devices to maintain independence_x000D_
Alternative means of communication_x000D_
Consider mechanical ventilator (up to patient and family)_x000D_
Remember- No Cure
GB- Guillan Barre
It is demylination/INFLAMMATION OF THE PERIPHERAL NERVES AFFECTS NODES OF RANVIER, SLOWS TRANSMISSION OF IMPULSES→progressive motor weakness and sensory abnormalities.
How common is Guillan Barre?
Rare!
Does Guillan Barre affect more men or women?
Men- esp middle aged
Most common form of Guillan Barre?
ASCENDING PARALYSIS, _x000D_
LEGS UPWARD _x000D_
DTR (deep tendon reflexes)s, flaccid paralysis, paresthesias
Descending type of Guillan Barre affects...
Starts in the jaw, tongue larynx- on its way down compromises respiratory function_x000D_
Facial weakness, dysphagia, difficulty speaking, diplopia_x000D_
As it goes down cranial nerve 10 is affected- difficulty swallowing and BP drops d/t vagal, bradycardia, orthostatic BP, bottom out, arrhythmias, shock
IF GB STARTS TO AFFECT AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM AND RESP. SYSTEM...
MAJOR COMPLICATIONS AND EVENTUALLY RESP FAILURE→DEATH!!!!
How does GB happen?
Acute illness causes an autoimmune response that interferes with T-suppressor cell circuits. Causative antigen has similar cell markers as myelin. Body mistakes myelin for causative agent and attacks= invasion of spinal and cranial nerves.
Three acute stages of GB
Acute/Initial period_x000D_
Plateau_x000D_
Recovery phase
What is the Acute/Initial period of GB?
1-4 weeks- onset of symptoms (NUMBNESS AND TINGLING), PROGRESSIVE WEAKNESS) and ends when no further deterioration occurs _x000D_
Can Cause complete paralysis_x000D_
If spread to Resp & ANS- pt in danger- on vent in ICU
Plateau phase of GB?
Several days to 2 weeks- NO RECOVERY, NO FURTHER PROGRESSION OF DISEASE→ Most discouraging phase to patients- they need complete emotional support, and information from HCP they are very frustrated and need help in moving forward
Recovery phase for GB
4-6 months ,sometimes up to 2 years- HEALING OCCURS IN REVERSE ORDER (whatever was affected last heals first), CAN BE PAINFUL WHEN NERVES REMYELINATE, SOME PTS MAY HAVE RESIDUAL DEFICITS THAT NEVER HEAL.
Cause of GB?
NO actual known cause
What are potential causes linked to GB?
1. ACUTE ILLNESS_x000D_
2. UPPER RESP INFECTIONS_x000D_
3. TRAUMA_x000D_
4. IMMUNIZATIONS_x000D_
5. SURGERY_x000D_
6. INFECTION→VIRAL EXPOSURE→EPSTEIN BARR (GET IT? GUILLAN BARRE)_x000D_
7. SYSTEMIC LUPUS_x000D_
8. UNDERCOOKED CHICKEN…NASTY. :/
S/S of GB
• DECREASED DEEP TENDON REFLEXES_x000D_
• FLACCID PARALYSIS_x000D_
• TONE REMAINS INTACT_x000D_
• PARESTHESIAS_x000D_
• WEAKNESS_x000D_
• FATIGUE_x000D_
• FACIAL PARALYSIS_x000D_
• DYSPHAGIA_x000D_
• DIFFICULTY SPEAKING_x000D_
• DIPLOPLIA (DOUBLE VISION)_x000D_
• LABILE BP_x000D_
• CARDIAC ARRYTHMIAS_x000D_
• TACHYCARDIA_x000D_
• LOSS OF BOWEL AND BLADDER FUNCTION_x000D_
• ATAXIA
Most dangerous symptom of GB in severe cases?
IN SEVERE CASES→RESP FAILURE→PNEUMONIA→DEATH!!!!!
What test to diagnose GB?
NO SINGLE DEFINITIVE TEST- tests are only used to rule out other diseases/disorders
Tests to help diagnose GB?
Lumbar puncture_x000D_
Blood Studies_x000D_
EMG_x000D_
NCV_x000D_
Hx of viral illenss in past few weeks or immunization
If pt has GB, what will Lumbar Puncture show?
Cerebral Spinal Fluid will have proteins (from inflammation)
What will blood studies show if pt has GB?
Leukocytosis (only in early phase of illness)
What will EMG show if pt has GB?
electromyelogram MEASURES THE MUSCLES ABILITY TO FIRE IMPULSES (ACTIVITY)- will be diminished
What will NCV show if pt has GB?
Nerve Conduction Velocity (MEASURES THE SPEED AT WHICH MUSCLES/NERVES CONDUCT AN IMPULSE) will be slowed
What is the cure for GB?
No known Cure
What are treatments for GB?
Plasmapharesis_x000D_
IV Immunoglobulins
What is Plasmapharesis?
Plasma Is Removed From Whole Blood, Antibodies That Circulate In Plasma Are Thus Removed, And The Pt Receives The Remaining Blood Cells. Done Several Days After Onset Of Symptoms. 3-4 Treatments 1-2days Apart
How does Plasmapharesis work to help GB?
Limits the amount of circulating antibodies that are attacking the myelin
What nursing responsibilities for pts undergoing plasmapheresis?
Support/Reassurance_x000D_
Weigh The Pt_x000D_
Monitor Shunt (Patency, Bleeding, Obstructions Listen For The Bruits!!!!)_x000D_
Pt May Experience Bradycardia Because Of Loss Of Plasma
What do we give pt if they are experiencing bradycardia d/t loss of plasma?
Atropine!
Atropine
atropine counters the rest and digest" activity of all muscles and glands regulated by the PNS. This occurs because atropine is a competitive antagonist of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (acetylcholine being the main neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic nervous system). Atropine dilates the pupils, increases HR, and reduces salivation and other secretions."
Major A/E of plasmaphresis?
1. Hypovolemia_x000D_
2. Hypokalemia_x000D_
_x000D_
These both can lead to cardiac problems!
What is Iv Immunoglobulin therapy?
Pt Is Treated With Immunoglobulins From A Pool Of Donors, When Given Can Lessen Attack On Nervous System
Major A/E of Iv Immunoglobulin therapy?
1. Chills_x000D_
2. Fever_x000D_
3. Headache_x000D_
4. Myalgia
Interventions for GB?
Monitor Resp status_x000D_
Monitor for cardiac dysfunction_x000D_
Improve mobility_x000D_
Manage Pain_x000D_
Promote communication_x000D_
Nutrition_x000D_
Provide Support
What to give for hypotension (GB)?
IVF
What to give for Bradycardia (GB)?
Atropine
What to give for Hypertension (GB)?
Beta Blockers (Nitroprusside)
Hot to improve mobility (GB)?
ROM exercises- active and passive, PT, OT, Assist w/ transfers, assistive devices, balance rest with activity
How to manage pain (GB)?
Opiates With A Pca Pump, Positioning, Deep Breathing, Distraction, Humor, Guided Imagery, Ice, Heat (Not Excessive!!!!!), Massage
What is MS?
Multiple Sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the myelin sheath and conduction pathway of the CNS. It’s one of the leading causes of neurological disability in persons 20-40yrs
Cause of MS?
Unknown- may have genetic predisposition and environmental factors (also geographic)_x000D_
_x000D_
Viral- inflammation process could be a cause
MS is an ______ response that destroys the ___ ___ (______-)
inflammatory_x000D_
myelin sheath (demylination)
Pathway of MS-_x000D_
_x000D_
___________--> _________--> ________--> interference of normal ______ _________
Inflammation --> Scarring --> plaques --> interference of normal nerve transmission
MS is characterized by an ______ response that results in diffuse random or patchy areas of _____ in the white matter of the CNS. When this happens, the ____ ______ is damaged and its thickness is reduced (__________).
inflammatory_x000D_
plaque_x000D_
myelin sheath_x000D_
(demyelinated)
Myelin is responsible for...
The electrochemical transmission of impulses between the brain and spinal cord and the rest of the body.
Are impulses still transmitted in MS pts?
Yes- but they are less effective
What areas are most affected by MS?
optic nerves, pyramidal tracts, posterior columns, brainstem nuclei and the periventricular regions of the brain
4 types of MS?
Relapsing Remitting (RRMS)_x000D_
Primary Progressive (PPMS)_x000D_
Secondary progressive (SPMS)_x000D_
Progressive Relapsing (PRMS)
Relapsing Remitting (RRMS):
MOST COMMON. periods of exacerbation and remission- clearly defined for about 4-5 yrs. The course of the disease may be mild or moderate, depending on the degree of disability. Symptoms may develop and resolve in a few weeks to months after which the patient returns to baseline.
Primary Progressive (PPMS):
continuous progressive worsening of mobility, balance, increased spasticity and pain involves a steady and gradual neurological deterioration without remission of symptoms. The patient has progressive disability with no acute attacks. Patients with this type of MS tend to be between 40-60yrs at onset of disease.
Secondary progressive (SPMS):
begins with relapsing-remitting course that later becomes steadily progressive. Functioning begins to decline with no clear times of remission
Progressive Relapsing (PRMS):
characterized by frequent relapse with some partial recovery but not a return to baseline. Progressive, cumulative symptoms and deterioration occur over several years.
MS S/S
Fatigue/weakness_x000D_
Visual disturbances_x000D_
Cognitive changes_x000D_
Mental Health_x000D_
Spinal Cord dysfunctions
What type of visual disturbances with MS?
Blind spots (holes in vision)_x000D_
Blurred vision_x000D_
Diplopia (double vision)_x000D_
Decreased visual acuity_x000D_
Scotomas (change in peripheral vision)_x000D_
Nystagmus (involuntary, rapid eye movement)
What type of cognitive changes with MS?
Intention tremor (tremor when performing an activity)_x000D_
Cognitive changes usually seen late in the course of the disease: decreased short term memory, concentration, and ability to perform calculations; inattentiveness; and impaired judgment
What type of mental health issues with MS?
• depression_x000D_
• isolation
What type of Spinal Cord Changes/dysfunctions with MS?
• Bowel and bladder dysfunction_x000D_
• Constipation and INCONTINENCE _x000D_
• Sexual dysfunction _x000D_
• muscle spasms (SPASTICITY)_x000D_
• tingling/numbness_x000D_
• decreased motor coordination (ATAXIA)
What is important to teach the pt about any type of MS medication therapy?
***medications that work well now may not work later, and medications that do not work now may work later- it is all trial and error***
What is the acronym for MS medical treatment?
A-B-C_x000D_
Avonex, Betaserone, Copoxone
Avonex or Betaserone
MS med- interferons (Very expensive)_x000D_
_x000D_
FIGHTS VIRAL INFECTION and regulates the immune system_x000D_
-mechanism of action is very unclear but it does help to FIGHT RELAPSE of symptoms-every other day SQ inj fights viral infections and regulates the immune system
Copoxone
MS med- a glutimer acetate_x000D_
_x000D_
decreases relapse rate and progression of disease. Blocks immune system’s attack of myelin.
Baclofen
for the muscle spasms (muscle relaxer) (MS)
Baclofen Most Common A/E?
Sedation
Gabapentin (Neurontin)
decreases spasticity (MS)
What labs to monitor for pts on Gabapentin?
monitor renal function tests (BUN, CR)
MS- Overall goals of meds?
increase self care ability with ADLs
What drugs are useful to decrease spasticity?
Baclofen and valium
What type of history to assess for MS pts?
relatives with MS?_x000D_
type of symptoms?_x000D_
how long do they last? _x000D_
triggers?
What is a neurological exam used for in pts with MS?
TO see the progressino of the disease and any cognitive changes
What is and EMG used for in pts with MS?
looks at neurological electrical activity and conduction through muscle stimulation
What are the two gold tests for MS???
MRI and VEP (Visual Evoke Potential)
what type of MRI and what are they looking for in pts with MS?
MRI of Brain w/ contrast- looking for plaque
What is the Visual Evoke Potential (VEP) and why is it used to help diagnose MS?
measures electrical activity of brain in response to visual sensory input (demyelination will slow conduction)- in MS it will be severely slowed
What is the overall goal for MS pts?
GOAL= ↑ independence and self-care with ADL’s
What pt teaching for MS pts?
Energy Banking_x000D_
Diet_x000D_
Prevent exacerbations_x000D_
Make appts later in morning to allow time for mobility
What diet is helpful for MS pts?
↓ simple carbs, saturated fats_x000D_
use of mustard under tongue to decrease spasticity
What can MS pts do to help avoid exacerbations?
Avoid:_x000D_
_x000D_
Over exertion_x000D_
Stress- physical and emotional_x000D_
Heat intolerance _x000D_
Sick people (Immunosuppressants)_x000D_
Sudden body changes
What are the three Movement Disorders?
Multiple Sclerosis_x000D_
Parkinson's Disease_x000D_
ALS
What system is responsible for coarse control of voluntary muscles (And is affected in movement disorders?)
The EPS- Extrapyramidal System
What is Dopamine?
A neurotransmitter that is produced in the Substantia Nigra (basal ganglia) and adrenal glands. DA sends info to parts of the brain that control movement and coordination
What other neurotransmitter is important in smooth movement, and communicates with DA?
ACh
what type of disorder is Parkinson's?
A movement disorder
Is Parkinson's curable?
No
What are causes of Parkinson's?
Causes are UNKNOWN, but genetics and exposure to PESTICIDES and other chemical agents are suspected to have a role.
What happens at a cellular level Parkinson's Disease?
here is Death of the neuron (substantia nigra cells) that produce dopamine
The substantia nigra is responsible for
the production of dopamine.
Dopamine (DA) and Acetylcholine (Ach) work together to
to initiate and control smooth purposeful movement.
What happens to Dopamine and ACh in Parkinson's Disease?
Because there is a decrease in Dopamine, and a normal level of ACh there is now an imbalance between the two. The imbalance causes increased GABA action (an inhibitory neurotransmitter) which decreases signal conduction which leads to the manifestations of the disease.
What are the 4 CLASSIC manifestations/symptoms of Parkinson's Disease?
1) Tremors at rest (tremors when not engaged in purposeful movement)_x000D_
2) Muscle rigidity (stiffness)_x000D_
3) Slow movement (shuffling)_x000D_
4) Postural instability (stooped posture)
Do Classic symptoms occur more at rest or during purposeful movement?
At rest, during purposeful movement symptoms subside
What are other symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
orthostatic hypotension, “mask-face”, may get dementia, excessive perspiration
Is Ach increased in Parkinson's?
No, it stays the same, but because DA is deceased, there is now an imbalance
What happens when ACh and DA become unbalanced?
Movement becomes jerky
Why does the imbalance of DA and ACh cause this type of jerky movement?
The UNOPPOSED Ach causes a stimulation of GABA, and DECREASES the CELLS ABILITY TO FIRE
Is Parkinsons Progressive?
Yes
Is Parkinson's fatal?
No, and life expectancy is not decreased
What types of drugs are used to treat Parkinson's?
dopaminergics, dopamine agonists, anticholinergics, and COMT inhibitor
What Dopaminergics are used to treat Parkinson's?
Carbidopa and Levodopa
Why is carbidopa and levodopa given in combination?
Levadopa is a precursor to dopamine. It can cross the BBB but only 2% makes it past the BBB to be converted to dopamine where it can do its work. Levadopa is deactivated by DDC and COMT (enzymes)_x000D_
•Carbidopa inhibits DDC, which allows a greater 10% of the levodopa to reach the BBB, allowing for smaller amounts of Levadopa to be administered, which decreases the chances for adverse effects.
Why can't Dopamine be given for Parkinson's?
It cannot cross the BBB
What two enzymes in the body break down Levodopa?
Dopamine decarboxylase (DDC) & _x000D_
catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT)
How does Carbidopa work to increase the amount of Levodopa available to cross the BBB?
Carbidopa inhibits the DDC enzyme- stops it from breaking down the levodopa
How long does the Carbidopa-Levodopa combo take to see effects?
1-2 months, sometimes up to six months.
Where is Carbidopa-Levodopa metabolized into Dopamine?
In the periphery of the body
What disease can Carbidopa-Levodopa activate (if the person is already genetically predisposed to?)
Malignant melanoma
What pts is the Carbidopa-Levodopa combo contraindicated in?
In pts with undiagnosed pigmented lesions, hx of melanoma,
What effect can carbidopa-levodopa have on pts with preexisting conditions?
Anyone with past cardiac disease, pulmonary disease, Peptic ulcer disease and DM may have exacerbation of symptoms_x000D_
_x000D_
Can also cause mental status changes in pts with mental health hx (Depression, SI)
Why is it a goal to get more levodopa to the BBB?
So that we can give less medication to begin with and decrease the A/E
What are A/E of carbidopa-Levodopa?
GI upset- N/V/D, anorexia, wt loss, orthostatic hypotension_x000D_
Abnormal movements
What is the most serious A/E of carbidopa-Levodopa?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (AKA parkinsonian crisis)- happens when drug is STOPPED ABRUPTLY-extreme rigidity/tremors
Simultaneous admin of Carbidopa-Levodopa with MAOIs can result in...
hypertensive crisis- MAOIs should be D/Cd 2-4 weeks before start of therapy
What effect does B6 (pyroxidine) have on Carbidopa-Levodopa?
It increases levadopa destruction.
What (7) foods contain B6?
bananas, avocado, oatmeal, sunflower seeds, chicken, halibut
What Drug interaction happens with Carbidopa-Levodopa and TCAs?
delays absorption
What happens when Hydantions (aka phenytoin- dilantin) are given with Carbidopa-Levodopa?
decreases effectiveness of levadopa
What is very important to assess before giving Carbidopa-Levodopa as drug therapy?
Psych Hx_x000D_
Malignant melanoma- skin lesions?_x000D_
Cardiac Hx
What diet to follow while on Carbidopa-Levodopa?
High protein diet can slow or prevent absorption of carbidopa-levodopa- therefore need to take protein in high amts- eat equally throughout the day_x000D_
•Take on an empty stomach, but take food 15-30 mins after to decrease GI distess.
Is Carbidopa-Levodopa less effective for certain races/ethnicities ?
Yes- Due to increased COMT in Chinese, Filipino, and Thai populations, this drug is less effective for them.
How long does Carbidopa-Levodopa work for?
2-5 years, so they need to alert HCP when symptoms start to worsen so they can be switched to something else
Should pts on Carbidopa-Levodopa reduce their dietary intake of Vit B6?
No! They need to eat the foods high in B6 or take supplements because they still need that vitamin for the body. Plus, only Levodopa ALONE interacts with B6- not the combo drug because the carbidopa inhibits the action of B6
If taking Levodopa alone should pts avoid foods high in Vit B6?
Yes!
What are surgical treatments for Parkinson's?
Pallidotomy_x000D_
Fetal-Cells- Stem Cell implantation (still in research)_x000D_
Beep Brain Stimulation
Pallidotomy
Can be very effective for controlling Parkinson's Symptoms- go in and destroy brain tissue
Beep Brain Stimulation
Put a pacemaker into the brain to interfere with the part of brain causing tremors and to inactivate parts of the brain that causes theose symptoms without purposly destroying the brain like pallidotomy
What are 2 major nursing responsibility with Parkinson's patients?
Aspiration precautions and_x000D_
Maintain movement- Keep pt. as mobile & _x000D_
independent as possible
What is Meningitis?
Inflammation of the meninges- the tissue that surrounds the brain and the spinal cord
What causes meningitis?
Inflammation is caused by viral, bacterial, fungal, or protozoal infection
How do organisms enter the brain/meninges?
Organisms enter brain via BBB- opened connection between the CSF and the organism following a trauma injury, surgery, ruptured cerebral abscess, or other open entry
When will we see exudate with meningitis?
If infection is bacterial
What is something that must be constantly monitored with meningitis?
Increased ICP d/t blockage of CSF flow that results in a change in blood flow leading to increased ICP, hypoxia, and infarction (stroke)
How common and severe is viral meningitis?
It is the most common; it is self-limiting and can get better on it's own.
How does one get viral meningitis?
results from viral illness- measles, mumps, herpes simplex, zoster (shingles) virus
Is there anything found in the CSF to diagnose meningitis when it is a viral infection?
No
Viral menigitis AKA
Aseptic Meningitis
S/S Viral meningitis
fever, photophobia, HA, myalgias, nausea
Treatment for viral meningitis?
symptomatic cases treated only- usually with acyclovir
How serious is bacterial meningitis?
VERY SERIOUS- MEDICAL EMERGENCY
When do we see a lot of bacterial meningitis cases coming into the hospital?
Seasonal when upper resp. infections are common (colds)
What are the common organisms that cause bacterial meningitis?
Bacteria organisms that cause meningitis: Neisseria meningitides (most often), Streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenza
Outbreaks of Meningococcal meningitis occurs in areas of increased populations in...
Close quarters ex: college dorms, military barracks
What is the classic triad of symptoms that are associated with bacterial meningitis?
Fever_x000D_
Nuchal Rigidity_x000D_
Decreased LOC
What other S/S are associated with Bacterial Meningitis?
Seizures_x000D_
ICP → decreased LOC_x000D_
Brudzinski’s sign_x000D_
Kernig’s Sign
Brudzinski’s sign
neck and hip flexion
Kernig’s Sign
SEVERE cases only, passive extension of the knee while hips are flexed
What causes the ICP in bacterial meningitis?
exudate and abnormal stimulation of hypothalamic area
If bacterial meningitis is left un-treated...
If left untreated → herniation of brain → DEATH
Infant S/S meningitis
“flu-like”, increased irritability, arching, decreased feeding, nuchal rigidity,_x000D_
**can be hospitalized for up to 6 months, lose all motor skills- relearn how to walk, talk, eat, etc.
What will we see when assessing Pupil reaction & Eye movements in bacterial meningitis?
nystagmus, photophobia
What cranial nerve responsible for pupil reaction and eye movement?
Cranial nerves 2,3,4,6,
What motor response will we see when assessing bacterial meningitis?
decreased muscle tone
What cranial nerves are involved in progression to decreased muscle tone?
Cranial nerves 3, 4, 6, 7, 8
Will we see memory and behavioral changes with bacterial meningitis?
Yes
What type of HA with bacterial meningitis?
Severe HA that will not go away
What is the best way to diagnose bacterial meningitis?
Analysis of CSF
What will results of CSF analysis be if pt has bacterial meningitis?
Appearance cloudy_x000D_
High WBCs and High protein_x000D_
Low Glucose_x000D_
CSF pressure will be elevated
What will results of CSF analysis be if pt has viral meningitis?
Appearance clear_x000D_
High WBCs and slightly High protein_x000D_
normal or low Glucose_x000D_
CSF pressure varies
What is the VERY FIRST thing that is prescribed when bacterial meningitis is even suspected?
Broad spectrum Antibiotic – 1st thing!!! prophylaxis_x000D_
very important, patient can die during testing
What position should a pt be in after a LP?
patient MUST lay flat for 8 hrs after procedure to avoid CSF leakage
What nursing interventions for bacterial meningitis?
• monitor VS_x000D_
• FREQUENT neuro and vascular assessments- Q2Hr_x000D_
**change in neuro may indicate increased ICP- esp. LOC changes_x000D_
• reduce environmental stimuli_x000D_
• monitor peripheral pulses_x000D_
• medication management
What meds are prescribed for bacterial meningitis?
antibiotics, steroids, hyperosmolor, anti epileptics (seizures d/t increased ICP)
The increased ICP in bacterial meningitis increases the likelihood of what?
seizures
Encephalitis
inflammation of the brain tissue itself and meninges
What is encephalitis usually caused by?
Viral infection
What is encephalitis patho?
inflammation of the brain tissue and meninges, usually caused by viral infection which causes inflammation which leads to the 2D’s ( neurological degeneration and demylination) where white matter can be destroyed, then swelling or edema occurs resulting in compression and increased ICP, herniation of the brain and ultimately DEATH
Is encephalitis serious?
YES LIFE THREATENING-leads to neurological deficits, motor issues, learning disabilities, memory problems, and epilepsy
**CLASSIC TRIAD of clinical manifestations of encephalitis**
**FEVER, N/V, STIFF NECK **
Other s/s encephalitis
change in mental status_x000D_
neurological deficits_x000D_
motor dysfunction_x000D_
light and/or noise sensitivity_x000D_
fatigue
What changes in mental status come with encephalitis?
more severe change than meningitis- personality and behavioral
What neurological defecits happen in encephalitis?
optic nerve paralysis, nystagmus, facial weakness
optic nerve paralysis, nystagmus, facial weakness in encephalitis- what cranial nerves are involved?
Cranial nerves 2, 4, 6
What type of motor dysfunction comes with encephalitis?
difficulty swallowing
What cranial nerve is affected if there is difficulty swallowing?
Cranial nerve 10
How to diagnose encephalitis?
CSF specimen _x000D_
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
What information will CSF give in the case of encephalitis?
obtained via lumbar puncture, determines specific infection organism
What information will PCR give in the case of encephalitis?
detects viral DNA/RNA chains in CSF
What is the number 1 intervention for encephalitis?
Prompt recognition and treatment for increased ICP
Other interventions for encephalitis?
frequent VS including O2 sat and neuro checks – Q2Hr_x000D_
HOB elevated between 35-45- not too high to reduce risk of increasing ICP_x000D_
darkened, quiet environment to reduce stimuli
What med to give to pts with encephalitis?
antiviral medication therapy- acyclovir
What to teach pts and family about encephalitis?
family support and care- possibility of long term care: fall precautions, signs and symptoms of decreased LOC and mental status changes, aspiration, swallowing precautions, etc.
What are the outcomes of encephalitis?
recovery VERY SLOW, may have full recovery or may have some permanent disabilities_x000D_
_x000D_
Medical management is long term therapy
What is a seizure?
Abnormal, sudden, excessive, uncontrolled electrical discharge of neurons w/in brain
What is epilepsy?
two or more seizures_x000D_
Chronic disorder, repeated unprovoked seizures occur
What can be causes of epilepsy?
May be caused by:_x000D_
An abnormality in electrical neuronal activity_x000D_
Imbalance of neurotransmitters (GABA)_x000D_
both
Triggers for seizures?
Increased physical exertion_x000D_
Emotional stress_x000D_
Stimulants (caffeine)_x000D_
Fatigue_x000D_
Foods_x000D_
Chemicals_x000D_
Bright lights, strobes
Three broad categories of seizures
1. Generalized seizures- both hemispheres_x000D_
_x000D_
2. Partial seizures- one hemisphere_x000D_
_x000D_
3. Unclassified seizures
Generalized Types of seizures affect which hemisphere?
Affects Both Hemispheres
4 types of generalized seizures
Tonic Clonic (Grand Mal)_x000D_
Absent _x000D_
Myoclonic_x000D_
Atonic
Tonic Clonic (Grand Mal) seizure
(generalized-both hemi)_x000D_
_x000D_
Lasts 2-5 Mins_x000D_
Tonic Phase→Stiff, Rigid, LOC_x000D_
Clonic Phase→Jerky Uncontrolled Movements_x000D_
Post-Ictal→Resting Phase May Last Up To 2 Hours, Do Not Wake The Pt, Allow Them To Wake Up On Their Own!
What is the tonic phase?
Stiff, Rigid, LOC
What is the clonic phase?
Jerky Uncontrolled Movements of extremities, biting down, sometimes incontinence
What is the post-ictal phase?
Lethargy Phase after seizure. May Last Up To 2 Hours, Do Not Wake The Pt, Allow Them To Wake Up On Their Own!
What sometimes happens right before a seizure?
Person will feel an aura or sensation that something is about to happen
Absent (Petite Mal) seizure
Mostly Children _x000D_
Day-Dreamers_x000D_
Short Seizure Activity_x000D_
Blank Stare Brief Loss Of Consciousness Automatisms→Lip Smacking, Picking At Clothing_x000D_
Abrupt Return To Baseline_x000D_
_x000D_
(generalized-both hemi)
Automatisms
Lip Smacking, Picking At Clothing
Why does it sometimes take a long time for absent seizures to be diagnosed in children?
This can take a long time to be diagnosed because parents think their kids just dayderam, the longer it goes on the more and more it can happen and can start to interfere of their activities and daily lives
What can happen if absent seizures are left untreated?
If Untreated May Result In Learning Disabilites And Problems In School
Myoclonic seizures
(generalized-both hemi)_x000D_
_x000D_
Short In Duration seconds to minutes_x000D_
Jerky/Stiff/Rigid Movements of extremities_x000D_
Unilateral and/or Bilateral_x000D_
_x000D_
(generalized-both hemi)
Atonic seizure
Rapid Loss Of Muscle Tone_x000D_
Pt Loses Consciousness_x000D_
Post-ictal Confusion Upon Awakening_x000D_
_x000D_
(generalized-both hemi)
What is the biggest danger of atonic seizures?
Injury! They have falls
Partial seizures affect how many hemispheres?
1
Are partial seizures common in adults or children?
adults
Are partial seizures more responsive or less responsive to treatment?
Less responsive
Types of partial seizures?
Complex Partial_x000D_
_x000D_
Simple Partial
Complex Partial seizure
1-3 Minutes In Duration_x000D_
Loss Of Consciousness_x000D_
Amnesia Afterwards_x000D_
Automatisms
Simple Partial Seizure
1-2 minutes (+ or-)_x000D_
Aura beforehand_x000D_
Unilateral Movement Of Extremity_x000D_
Pt Is Conscious_x000D_
Weird Sensations- Metallic Taste, Pain, Offensive Smells_x000D_
Memory intact afterward
Standard Seizure precautions
Pad The Side Rails (Side Rails Up X 4)_x000D_
Have O2 w/ face mask ready_x000D_
IV access Ready to go_x000D_
Suction ready to go_x000D_
Remove Restrictive Clothing
What to do for pt during seizure?
Do Not Restrict Their Movements_x000D_
Turn Pt On Side_x000D_
Time The Seizure_x000D_
Notice Characteristics
What to do immediately after a seizure?
Supplemental O2 Via Mask, Not Nasal Cannula_x000D_
Suction After The Pt Is Done Seizing
Why do we NOT put anything in persons mouth during a seizure?
Chipped Teeth→Airway Obstruction
What to do with family during their loved ones seizure?
If Family Is Present→ Keep Them Busy With Helpful Jobs, “Hold My Pen”, “Please Time The Seizure”, “Sit And Relax, Talk To Your Family Member In Postictal Period”
Status Epilepticus
Seizure Activity Lasting Longer Than 5 Minutes Or Recurring Seizures Lasting Longer Than 30 Minutes
Is Status Epilepticus serious?
Yes! This Is A Medical Emergency_x000D_
Medications Are Required
What meds to give in status epileptics?
Benzos (Short Acting)_x000D_
Dilantin_x000D_
Tegretal/Depakote
Meds used to treat seizures?
Dilantin_x000D_
Benzos_x000D_
Tegretal_x000D_
Valporic Acid (Depakote/Depakene)
What is one of the oldest drugs used to treat seizures?
Dilantin
Which seizures is Dilantin useful for?
Status epilepticus and tonic-clonic (grand mal)
What drug classification is Dilantin (phenytoin)?
Anti-epileptic- HYDANTOINS the toins""
What is the action of Dilantin?
Controls seizures by reducing the amount of sodium influx into the cells. This causes decreased Depolarization and activity of the cells to fire
How long does Dilantin take to take effect?
Long Half Life 7-10 Days To Trake Effect
If Dilantin given PO...
TAKE WITH MEALS
If Dilantin given NGT
Dilute
If Dilantin given IV/IVP...
Give SLOWLY!!! Can Cause Cardiovascular Collapse!!!!! Give 50mg/Min
What rate to give Dilantin IV/IVP?
50mg/Min
What drugs does Dilantin interact with?
ETOH, Benzos, Ibuprofen_x000D_
Barbiturates_x000D_
Acetaminophen
What is the effect if Dilantin interacts with ETOH, Benzos, Ibuprofen?
Inhibit The Metabolism Of Dilantin=Drug Toxicity
What is the effect if Dilantin interacts with Barbiturates?
Inhibit Absorption Of Dilantin=Decreased Effects
What is the effect if Dilantin interacts with Acetaminophen?
Accelerates The Metab Of Aceta. Causing Decreased Analgesic Effects Of Acetaminophen and more Aceta circulating so more liver damage potential
Dilantin most common A/E?
Nausea, Dizziness, Blurred Vision, Ataxia
Dilantin most SERIOUS A/E?
Cardiovascular Collapse
Can Dilantin and Benzos be given in the same IV line?
No- they will precipitate
What medications can be used to ABORT a seizure?
Dilantin_x000D_
Benzos_x000D_
Tegretal_x000D_
Valporic Acid (Depakote/Depakene)
Examples of Benzos?
Valium/Ativan/Lorazepam
How do Benzos work to stop seizures?
They increase the effect of the neuro-inhibitor GABA
What is GABA?
inhibitory neurotransmittor that works in opposition to glutamate
Benzos action
Keep Chloride Channels Open Longer→ Raises Cells Threshold To Fire→Produces Inhibitory Effect Decreasing Electrical Activity In The Brain
In what case is Benzo the first choice when having to do with seizures?
In status epilepticus they are the first choice before any other seizure aborting drug
Are the Benzos given over long periods of time for seizures?
No- they are on the BEERs criteris of meds to watch out for- they have a very high addictive rate, so only used short term
What drugs to avoid when giving benzos?
Any other sedative drugs- ETOH and CNS depressants!
What to closely monitor with Benzos?
ABGs
A/E of benzos?
Cann
How does Tegretal (Carbamazipine) work to control seizures?
Reduces Influx Of Na Ions, Thus Decreases Cells Ability To Fire
What is important to monitor when ot taking Tegretal?
Monitor Blood Levels 2-4mcg/Ml,
When is Tegretal used for seizures?
When other meds are ineffective
How does Valporic Acid (Depakote/Depakene) work to reduce seizures? (Action)
Reduces Influx Of Na Ions, Thus Decreases Cells Ability To Fire
What is important to monitor for in pts taking Valporic Acid?
Monitor Blood Levels 50-150mcg/Ml, Monitor Liver (Hepatotoxic Alt, Ast) And Renal Function Tests)
A/E of Valporic Acid?
Sedation, Dizziness, Agitation
What should nurses teach pts that have seizures... a good way to document for complete hx?
Patients Should Keep A Seizure Diary (Characteristics, Triggers, Reactions To Meds)
If pts miss a dose of their seizure meds, can they double up the next time?
NO
Should seizure pts wear anything special on a day to day basis?
Wear a medic alert bracelet
What is the antidote to Heparin (and should be on hand during dialysis?)
Protamine Sulfate
MG
Myasthenia Gravis “Grave Muscle Weakness"_x000D_
What type of disease?"
What happens in Myasthenia gravis?
Skeletal/voluntary muscles cannot hold a contraction.
What happens at the cellular level in Myasthenia gravis?
• Normally ACh is the neurotransmitter that causes muscles to contract, Cholinesterase comes in to break down Ach in the synapse, causing muscles to contract._x000D_
• In the case of MG there is an autoantibody attack on the Ach receptors in muscle end plate membranes, limiting the number of receptors, and so those nerve impulses are not transmitted to the muscles.
Causes of Myasthenia gravis?
o Over growth (hyperplasia) of the Thymus Gland_x000D_
o Thymoma (encapsulated thymus gland tumor)_x000D_
o Strong relationship with hyperthyroidism
Myasthenia gravis symptoms?
o Weakness and fatigue (esp. muscles that are innervated by cranial nerves, skeletal, and respiratory muscles)_x000D_
o Ocular muscles affected- Ptosis (drooping eyelids- like Sleepy), diplopia- dbl vision_x000D_
o Bulbar involvement (muscles used for facial expression)_x000D_
o Chewing, swallowing, speech difficulty_x000D_
o Muscle weakness that increases w/ exertion and improves with rest
What is a blood test looking for in Myasthenia Gravis?
To detect Ach receptor antibodies- will be increased
What pharmacology test is used to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis?
Tensilon Test (Challenge)-
Why is the Tensilon Test (Challenge)- used to help diagnose Myasthenia Gravis?
It is a Cholinesterase inhibitor and within minutes with will temporarily increase levels of ACh and relieve weakness- this tells us that there is a problem with ACh and it is MG
What is the antidote to Tensilon?
Atropine
What diagnostic tests are used to help diagnose MG?
EMG_x000D_
CT_x000D_
PFT
What will EMG tests show in cases of MG?
nerve conduction study which tests for specific muscle “fatigue” be repetitive nerve stimulation- shows muscles decreased response to repetitive stimulation
What will CT tests show in cases of MG?
Abnormal thymus gland- useful to identify if there is any thymus gland present or a thymoma
What will PFT tests show in cases of MG?
measure breathing strength- helps predict whether respiratory system may fail and lead to myasthenic crisis
What two Anticholinesterase/ cholinesterase hinibitor/ cholinergic agonist drugs are used to treat Myasthenia Gravis?
neostigmine (Prostigmin)_x000D_
and_x000D_
pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
What is the drug of choice for Mysathenia Gravis?
pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
Ho do the anticholinesterase drugs work to treat MG?
ONLY FOR SYMPTOMS_x000D_
increases amount of Ach available at the receptor site- resulting in enhanced muscle contraction.
Most common A/E of the Anticholinesterase drugs?
N/V/D, bradycardia, miosis, diaphoresis
Most serious A/E of the Anticholinesterase drugs?
cholinergic crisis
How to admin Anticholinesterase drugs?
PO- Admin with small amount of food to minimize GI effects- 45 min to 1 hr after taking med to prevent aspiration
What other drugs to avoid while pt is on Anticholinesterase drugs?
Mg, morphine, hypnotics, etc. should be avoided- they may increase pts weakness
What is the antidote to the Anticholinesterase drugs?
Atropine
How does the dosing of Pyridostigmine (Mestonin) work?
the dose depends on that say’s symptoms- like a sliding scale. Given PO. A/E and antidote same as Neostigmine
Why are Corticosteroid Meds given to treat Myasthenia Gravis?
• Used to induce remission_x000D_
• Immunosuppression _x000D_
• Used if pt doesn’t respond well to Anticholinesterase drugs
Why are Immunosuppression Meds (Imuran, Cytoxin) given to treat Myasthenia Gravis?
Used to induce remission
How do immunosuppression meds improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis?
• Improves muscle strength by suppressing the production of abnormal antibodies
Major side effects of Immunosuppressant Meds (Imuran, Cytoxin)?
• Infection_x000D_
• Leukocytosis (Low WBC count)_x000D_
• Liver Dysfunction (Monitor LFTs- AST/ALT)_x000D_
• Hair loss
What medications are used to induce remission in Myasthenia Gravis?
Corticosteroids_x000D_
and _x000D_
Immunosuppressants
What medications are used to relieve symptoms in Myasthenia Gravis?
the anticholinesterase drugs
What surgeries have been helpful in treating myasthenia gravis?
Thymectomy
How does the Thymectomy help with Myasthenia Gravis?
removing the thymus in order to (hopefully) rebalance the immune system- takes about 2 year post op to be effective
What is important nursing care post op thymectomy?
• Post op- pay extra attention to pulmonary hygiene (suction PRN)_x000D_
• Provide chest tube care_x000D_
• Sterile technique for wound care_x000D_
• Observe for s/s pneumothorax or hemothorax (Major Complications!)
What are s/s pneumothorax or hemothorax?
• Chest pain, SOB, dim chest wall expansion, dim breath sounds, change in V/S
What to do if nurse suspects pneumothorax or hemothorax?
• Call surgeon STAT, Provide O2, raise HOB 45 degrees
How does plasmaphoresis helpin Myasthenia Gravis?
• Plasma taken out and replaced. Done to DECREASE the amount of Ach ANTIBODIES
How long does plasmaphoresis relieve Myasthenia Gravis symptoms?
only lasts a couple months if treatment done alone- that is why thymectomy is usually done after this
What is a Myasthenic Crisis
• Sudden worsening of symptoms
What causes a myasthenic crisis?
TOO LITTLE cholinesterase inhibitor drugs
S/S Myasthenic crisis?
• Increase HR, BP, absence of cough, swallow reflex absent or decreased
Nursing focus during myasthenic crisis?
• Treatment- focus on respiratory support. Most pts on mechanical vent
Do we give more cholinesterase drugs during myasthenic crisis?
• Even though this is due to too little cholinesterase drugs, we still do not want to increase drugs during crisis because it would cause an increase in secretions and the pt is already having respiratory problems.
What is a Cholinergic Crisis
• Acute exacerbation of symptoms
What causes a Cholinergic Crisis
TOO MUCH cholinesterase inhibitor drugs
S/S Cholinergic Crisis
• Increase in weakness, Twitching especially around the eyes, general facial weakness_x000D_
• Inability to clear secretions, swallow, or breathe adequately
Do we give more cholinesterase drugs during Cholinergic Crisis?
we do not want to increase drugs during crisis because it would cause an increase in secretions and the pt is already having respiratory problems.
What to do during a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis??
Do not give MG Drugs- Monitor Respiratory Status- Call DR, going to so the Tensilon Test
How to distinguish between myasthenic or cholinergic crisis
Tensilon Test
What will the Tessilon test show if it is myasthenic crisis?
a TEMPORARY IMPROVEMENT of symptoms in Myasthenic crisis
What will the Tessilon test show if it is Cholinergic crisis?
NO IMPROVEMENT of symptoms in Cholinergic Crisis
What nursing interventions if tensilon tests shows that it is myasthenic crisis?
• Monitor Resp status, mech vent possibly, drugs w/held, takes few days to recover
What nursing interventions if tensilon tests shows that it is cholinergic crisis?
• Give antidote- Atropine 1mg IV, repeat if necessary_x000D_
• Monitor airway- secretions can thicken_x000D_
• Improves rapidly after antidote is given
What is the overall goal for Myasthena Gravis?
Goal: Maintain muscle strength!
When should meds be given to Myasthenia Gravis pts?
Give meds before eating to prevent aspiration, but because some meds should be given with food to prevent GI upset, provide meal as soon as medication kicks in
When should myasthenia gravis pts expect peak activity?
peak activity in the morning- Weakness will increase throughout the day
Pt teaching for myasthenia gravis?
Teach that disease has exacerbations and remissions_x000D_
Things that may cause exacerbation_x000D_
Take drugs at same time to maintain therapeutic level
Things that may cause exacerbation of myasthenia gravis
fever, stress, infection, surgery, exercise, extreme heat/weather change, change in sleep habits (sedatives)- any sudden change in body
Is there a cure for MG... Can MG pts live long lives?
NO CURE FOR MG BUT LONG TERM REMISSION IS POSSIBLE, they can still live normal or near normal lives
What are the cranial nerve diseases?
Trigeminal _x000D_
Bell’s Palsy
What is Trigeminal Nerve Disease?
“tic douloureux”- PAINFUL TWITCH_x000D_
_x000D_
Unilateral, sudden, intense facial spasms
What facial nerve is affected in Trigeminal Nerve Disease?
affects Cranial Nerve 5- Trigeminal Nerve
What is the likely cause of trigeminal verve disease?
Cause is uncertain but most likely due to vascular compression.
Clinical Manfiestatios of Trigeminal Nerve Diasease
• unilateral sudden onset intense facial spasms _x000D_
• sharp, shooting, piercing, burning pain
What usually brings the onset of painful facial twitch?
provoked by stimulation at trigger zone_x000D_
pt usually aware of what causes pain
How long does the painful twitch last in Trigeminal nerve disease?
may go on for weeks to months- then no pain for a period of time
Trigeminal Nerve Disease- does it ever go away?
rarely does it go away forever
Medications to manage Trigeminal Nerve Disease?
Antiseizure Meds and_x000D_
Pain Meds
What antiseizure meds to help with Trigeminal Nerve Disease?
carbamazepine (Tegretol), phenytoin (Dilantin)_x000D_
meds decrease nerve transmission_x000D_
TAKE WITH MEALS
A/E of carbamazepine (Tegretol), phenytoin (Dilantin)
Adverse Effects: dizzy, drowsy
What types of pain medications are used for trigeminal nerve disease?
gabapentin ( Neurontin)_x000D_
lidocaine- numbs pain _x000D_
calcitonin intranasal spray- temporary relief
Are opioids effective for nerve pain?
No
How can Microvascular Decompression work to relieve trigeminal nerve disease?
posterior craniotomy done microscopically_x000D_
artery pressing is lifted to relieve pressure by use of a small prosthetic device
How can Radiofrequency Thermal Regulation work to relieve trigeminal nerve disease?
small heat lesions made in nerve to stop conduction of pain; affected side will be permanently unresponsive to pain
How can Balloon Microcompression work to relieve trigeminal nerve disease?
balloon compresses the nerve root and vascular structures
For balloon microcompression- what nursing int pre op
no eating hot or cold foods or washing face with hot or cold water which can trigger pain
For balloon microcompression- what nursing int post op
CN ASSESMENT- ALL CRANIAL NERVES_x000D_
ice pack to site – monitor closely d/t decreased sensations_x000D_
prevent chewing, rubbing eyes on affected side- can bite through tongue, can injure eye_x000D_
regular dental visits d/t absence of pain
What is Bell’s Palsy
A Cranial Nerve Disease that causes Facial Paralysis
How does Bells Palsy Manifest?
unilateral paralysis of Cranial Nerve VII- Facial Nerve, can also affect Cranial Nerve V(Facial)
Which cranial nerve is affected in Bells Palsy?
7- facial Nerve (can also affect 5)
Bells Palsy is caused by __________ which weakens or paralyzes facial muscles on affected side
inflammation
What can trigger Bells Palsy?
inflammation process may be triggered by herpes simplex virus (HSV-1)
Clinical Manifestations of Bells Palsy
• pain: face, ear, eye_x000D_
• quick onset of paralysis- full extent within 2-5days_x000D_
• distorted face- cannot move anything on affected side, increased tearing, speech and eating affected
Do pts ever recover from Bells Palsy?
MOST recover completely with no residual effects_x000D_
80% fully recover within a few weeks to months
What part of face is important to protect in cases of Bells Palsy?
protection of eye- artificial tears, taped or shield at bedtime, goggles or sunglasses to protect from debris and sunburn
What nsg interventions in regard to facial muscles for bells palsy?
eat and drink on unaffected side to reduce injury- small meals are easier to tolerate_x000D_
prevent facial muscle atrophy- massage, facila exercises_x000D_
facial exercises: wrinkling forehead, blowing out cheeks, whistling
Glasgow coma scale (GCS)
tool used to help describe the patient’s level of consciousness. It has been shown to be very reliable for most patients
What do the scores of Glasgow Come Scale mean?
A score of 15 means the patient has normal neurologic function, where a score of 7 means the patient is comatose. The lower the score, the lower the patient’s level of consciousness.
The GCS establishes baseline data in each of these areas (3):
• Eye opening_x000D_
• Motor response_x000D_
• Verbal response
Definition of a stroke (Brain Attack)?
Infarction of brain cells caused by a reduction in cerebral blood flow & oxygen
What does complete recovery depend on after a stroke- what is the time frame for optimal results and treatment options?
circulation returning to normal, 3 hour window
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) and s/s?
a brief period of neurological deficit (visual loss, hemiparesis, slurred speech, aphasia, &vertigo)
How long do transient ischemic attacks last?
30 seconds to 24 hours (w/ complete resolution of symptoms)--> but generally a warning sign of a stroke in near future
List the three common causes of a stroke (brain attack)?
Thrombosis, embolus, hemorrhage
What is the most common cause of a brain attack (stroke)?
Thrombosis (60-80%) due to atherosclerosis
What causes an embolus, that causes a stroke?
clot of: fat, air tumor, or bacteria that occludes blood vessels in the brain
Who is at risk for a stroke caused by an embolus?
a-fib, orthopedic surgery pts
The third common cause of a stroke is hemorrhage rt what?
sudden rupture of a cerebral blood vessel from chronic HTN or aneurysm.
What are the modifiable risk factors for a stroke?
1. HTN (3/4 rt HTN)_x000D_
2. BMI >30, increased ab fat_x000D_
3. A-Fib (5X greater risk, causes stasis)
What are the main non-modifiable risk for having a stroke?
1. age_x000D_
2. race (African, Hispanic, Indian)
List Subjective Clinical manifestations:
syncope, changes in LOC, TIAs, HA, mood swings
Objective, hemiplegia?
paralysis; on side opposite lesion _x000D_
(initially flaccid)
Objective, hemiparesis?
muscular weakness on one side of body
Objective, dysphagia?
impaired swallowing_x000D_
(aspiration, PNA, NPO, until gag reflex assessed, speech therapy)
Objective, _x000D_
alexia?_x000D_
dyslexia?_x000D_
agraphia?
1. inability to comprehend written words_x000D_
2. inability to read written words_x000D_
3. loss of ability to write
Objective, _x000D_
expressive aphasia?_x000D_
receptive aphasia?_x000D_
expressive-receptive aphasia?
1. difficulty making thoughts known to others, speak & write incorrect words_x000D_
2. DIFFICULTY UNDERSTANDING what others communicate_x000D_
3. equal difficult speaking, writing, interpretting speech or reading
Objective, dysarthia?
paralysis of facial muscles, difficulty speaking
Objective, homonymous hemianopia?
loss of half of visual field, affected side of vision corresponds to the paralyzed side of body.
Objective, _x000D_
diplopia?_x000D_
ptosis?
1. double vision_x000D_
2. drooping eyelids (same side as lesion)
Objective, sensory changes, proprioception?
impairment of touch, awareness of body position in space, spatial/ balance difficulties
Objective, alternation in reflexes?
initially pt may be flaccid/paralysis or loss of deep tended reflexes. Reflexes reappear by 48 hours accompained by increased tone & spasticity
Objective, cognitive?
loss of memory, poor judgement, decrease in attention span
Objective, emotional deficits?
frustration, anger, confusion, depression, w/drawal, feeling of isolation
What does the extent of injury depend on with a stroke pt?
artery location
Explain the thrombolytic therapy, rtPA?
Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator dramatically improves the chances of survival. Must be administered w/in 3 hours of s/s. (need Ct or MRI scan)
What are the contraindications of using rtPA?
1. s/s longer than 3 hours_x000D_
2. active hx. of bleeding_x000D_
3. low platelet count_x000D_
4. taking anticoagulatnts
Antiplatelet agents (ASA) are used for tx of?
non cardioembolics causes of TIA & carotid stenosis
The main medical interventions are based on what care plan theories?
maintaining life, reducing ICP, limiting extension of stroke, preventing complications
The acute phase 48-72 hours for a stroke pt is the same as?
caring for an unconscious client
Explain the main neuro assessment for a stroke pt?
ICP, GCS, facial symmetry, arm drift
Why is it so important for speech therapy to assess gag reflex?
PNA aspiration
Name the nursing interventions when it comes to nutrition for a stroke victim?
1. place food in unaffected side of mouth_x000D_
2. semi-solid foods _x000D_
3. offer solids & liquids at diff times_x000D_
4. High Fowlers_x000D_
5. keep pt in upright pos. for 45 to 60 min
Where should pts belongings be placed?
on unaffected side. Always approach on unaffected side.
What should we teach pts about SAFETY?
to compensate by scanning (turning head to see things on affected side)
List for nursing interventions used to increase mobility?
1. proper pos. to prevent deformities (support with pillow or sling)_x000D_
2. elevate extremities to prevent edema_x000D_
3. ROM Q4, use of muscles may return if complications involving muscoskeletal system have been prevented_x000D_
4. REHABILITATION SHOULD BEGIN ON DAY 1. PT, OT, ST, SW, NURSING WORK TOGETHER
What should be considered for bowel & bladder control for a stroke pt?
adequate fluids, diet w/ roughage, monitor for fecal impaction
For emotional lability what should be done for stroke pts?
maintain quiet, restful environment, Cal, non-threatening manner
Nursing interventions for pt with expressive aphasia?
associate words with physical objects, anticipate pts need to express helplessness
Nursing interventions for pt with receptive aphasia?
slow directions, allow adequate time, nonverbal techniques of communication
Why is anticoagulant therapy used in brain attack medical interventions?
used if atrial fib present though research doesn't show benefit
Describe the implications thrombolytic therapy rtPA as a medical intervention for stroke victims?
Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator dramatically improves chances of survival. Must be given w/in 3 hours of s/s (need MRI or CT scan)
What are the contraindications of using rtPA (tissue plasminogen activator)?
active/ hx of bleeding, low platelet count, already taking anticoagulatns
When is ASA (antiplatelet agents) used?
tx for non-caridoembolic of TIA & carotid stenosis
Medical interventions are guided by what 4 implications when txing stroke victims?
maintaining life_x000D_
reducing ICP_x000D_
limiting extension of stroke_x000D_
preventing complications
The nursing interventions for a stroke victim in the acute phase is the same as?
caring for the unconscious client_x000D_
(Neuro checks, s/s of I ICP, facial symmetry, arm drift, GCS)
Why is it so important to evaluate swallowing and gag reflexes?
risk for aspiration PNA
Who evaluates gag reflex?
speech therapy
Nutrition education for a stroke victim?
1. place food in unaffected side of mouth_x000D_
2. semi-solid foods are best_x000D_
3. offer solid/ liquids at diff times_x000D_
4. high fowlers for eating_x000D_
5. upright for 45 after eating
Safety implications for stroke patients include?
organize enviornemnt, place items where they can be reached, unclutter environment
Do to homonymous hemianopia where should patient personal belongings be placed?
on unaffected side, approach on unaffected side. TEACH pt to compensate by scanning room
Do to homonymous hemianopia where should patient personal belongings be placed?
on unaffected side, approach on unaffected side. TEACH pt to compensate by scanning room
Define Peripheral Vascular Disease?
Progressive narrowing & degeneratie dz of the blood vessels in peripheral circulation (thick arteries).
Describe patho of PAD/ PVD?
occluded arterial blodo flow due to atherosclerosis, thrombus, embolus
Leading cause of PAD?
atherosclerosis, diabetes, obesity, smoking
List common s/s of PVD?
1. intermittent claudation, pain described as burning, achy, cramps_x000D_
2. skin smooth, shinny w/ hair loss_x000D_
3. nails thicken_x000D_
4. no edema present_x000D_
5. skin cool, pale, cyanotic, ulcerated, gangreen_x000D_
6. D peripheral pulses
How are diabetic and PVD ulcers different?
PVD on surface, diabetic on pressure points
#1 predisposing factor for PVD?
HTN
How does ankle brachial pressure index help identify severity of occlusive dz?
BP in lower extremeties should be higher than upper
Why should legs be kept level w/ heart but not above with arterial problems?
bc legs will completely loose blood flow
Foot care and well footed shoes help reduce injury in PVD pts, should ted hose be used?
NO
In what kind of leg problems should legs be elevated and ted hose be used?
Venous ulcers
Describe proper exercise in pvd pts?
walk 34 to 45 min, stop at onset of claudication, resting until the symptoms resolve
What has been reported to decrease progression of atherosclerosis in pts w peripheral arterial occlusive dz?
antiplatelet agents: _x000D_
plavix & aspirin
Describe proper exercise in pvd pts?
walk 34 to 45 min, stop at onset of claudication, resting until the symptoms resolve
What has been reported to decrease progression of atherosclerosis in pts w peripheral arterial occlusive dz?
antiplatelet agents: _x000D_
plavix & aspirin
Define Raynaud's Dz?
vasospasms fo digital arteries
Individuals w/ Raynaud's dz may later develop what dz?
connective tissue
Precipitaiton factors for Raynaud's?
cold, stress, smoking
How does Nifedipine help Raynaud's?
helps w/ arterial vasodilation
Patho of DVT?
Superficial thrombophlebitis begins w/ localized inflammation alone; inflammatory process causes thrombus formation. PLATELETS, RBC, FIBRIN form a clot in vein
Causes & incidence of DVT?
stasis, vascular damage & hypercoagulability = VIRCHOW'S TRIAD
Causes of venous stasis that may lead to DVT?
a-fib_x000D_
orthopedic surgery_x000D_
prolonged immobility
What can lead to hypercoagulability contributing to DVT?
smoking, pregnancy, estrogen therapy, sepsis
S/S of DVT only when clot completely obstructs blood flow?
1. swelling/ edema_x000D_
2. muscle tenderness_x000D_
3. warmth on affected side_x000D_
4. pain (calf, when ankle is bent dorsiflexion- Homan's)_x000D_
5. malaise & fever_x000D_
6. 50% have no s/s--> unexplained tachycardia, tachypnea, anxiety, hypoxia
Posts-thrombotic syndrome develops in 40-60% of pts w/ DVT and is characterized by?
skin changes, ankle reddish-brown dicoloration, ulceration, chronic, hard to heal
Name the diagnostic tools used for DVT?
Venous ultrasonography_x000D_
Homan's sign_x000D_
D-Dimer (thrombotic process)
Prevention of PE is most important reason for treating DVT, how is this accomplished?
1. anticoagulants (heparin, lovenox, coumadin)
Name the low-molecular weight heparin therapy that has a lower half life which makes monitoring CBC and platelet count easier?
Lovenox_x000D_
(small purple hemorrhage area on upper abdomen)
Why is it important to overlap heparin tx with Coumadin for at least 4 to 5 days?
Full effect of coumadin is delayed. Coumadin blocks prothrombin synthesis by interfering w/ Vit K. Pts need to monitor Vit K rich foods * have their INR checked every 4-6 weeks. Pts should avoid invasive procedures & surgery while on Coumadin
How does elevating the DVT involved extremity help?
I venous return & D edema
What labs should be monitored for:_x000D_
Heparin:_x000D_
Coumadin:_x000D_
Lovenox:
1. PT & PTT (kept at 1.5-2.5 > N)_x000D_
2. INR_x000D_
3. CBC, platelets
Antidotes for:_x000D_
Heparin:_x000D_
Coumadin:
1. Protamine Sulfate_x000D_
2. Vit. K
What is HIT?
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia: 50% decrease in plateletes
S/s of PE?
pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, anxiety
How surgery is used to tx emboli's?
vena cava surgery is done (insertion of umbrella filter cap)
Label as R-apid, S-hort, I-termed, or L-ong acting:_x000D_
_x000D_
Aspart_x000D_
Detemir_x000D_
Glargine_x000D_
Humulin NPH_x000D_
Novolin NPH_x000D_
Novolin R_x000D_
Glulisine_x000D_
Humulin R_x000D_
Lispro
Aspart - R = 5-15m_x000D_
Detemir - L = 20-24h_x000D_
Glargine - L_x000D_
Humulin NPH - I = 4-14_x000D_
Novolin NPH - I_x000D_
Novolin Reg - S = 2-4h_x000D_
Glulisine - R_x000D_
Humulin Reg - S_x000D_
Lispro - R
How long do these last in hours?_x000D_
_x000D_
Rapid_x000D_
Short_x000D_
Intermed_x000D_
Long
Rapid 5-15h_x000D_
Short 1-4h_x000D_
Intermed 4-12h_x000D_
Long 20-24h
Which insulin type can't you mix?
long acting = detemir, glargine
Which insulin type is cloudy?
NPH's = novolin and humulin
Take glargine ____x000D_
when converting NPH → glargine_x000D_
↓ dose by ____%
qhs_x000D_
20%
____ binds to albumin_x000D_
daily - BID_x000D_
NPH → _____x000D_
unit to unit
detemir
admin ____ qhs,_x000D_
acB and acD
NPH's, humulin NPH, novolin NPH
Admin ____ 30 min b4 meal_x000D_
BID - TID_x000D_
can mix ____ w/ NPH
Regulars_x000D_
Humulin-R_x000D_
Novolin-R
Admin ____ w/in 15 min b4 meal or w 1st bite of food_x000D_
can mix ____ w/ NPH (protoamine)
Rapid acting insulins:_x000D_
aspart, lispro, glulisine
Peak times for: _x000D_
_x000D_
R_x000D_
S_x000D_
I_x000D_
L
R = 0.5-2h_x000D_
S = 5-8h (double DoA)_x000D_
I = 10-16L = NONE NONE NONE_x000D_
_x000D_
Rapid Short Inter_x000D_
0.5, 5, 10_x000D_
2h 8h 16h
The pH reqd by glargine is ___
4
Goals per Dr. Foepple_x000D_
_x000D_
Fasting (also pre-meals) = ____ mg/dL*_x000D_
2 hours post-prandial <____ mg/dL*_x000D_
Bedtime <____mg/dL_x000D_
Lower limit? ~____mg/dL
Fasting (also pre-meals) = 70-130 mg/dL*_x000D_
2 hours post-prandial <180 mg/dL*_x000D_
Bedtime <150 mg/dL_x000D_
Lower limit? ~110 mg/dL_x000D_
_x000D_
it goes up 50 from fasting to meals, then drops 30 before bed
Goals per Dr. Vo for inpatient care_x000D_
_x000D_
Critically ill patients:_x000D_
Maintain BG between ____ mg/dL_x000D_
_x000D_
BG between ____mg/dL is acceptable_x000D_
< ___ or ___ 180 is not recommended
140-180_x000D_
110-140_x000D_
<110 or >180 mg/dL
Goals per Dr. Vo for inpatient pt_x000D_
_x000D_
Pre-meals BG < ____mg/dL_x000D_
Random BG < ____mg/dL
140 mg/dL_x000D_
180 mg/dL
Which medications should be discontinued when insulin is started?
Base decision on medication MOA_x000D_
Continue insulin sensitizers_x000D_
Discontinue insulin secretagogues
Example treatment algorithm:
Lifestyle / Dietary changes _x000D_
Add metformin _x000D_
Add sulfonylurea_x000D_
Add thiazoladinedione_x000D_
Add DPP4 or other options_x000D_
Add once daily basal insulin_x000D_
Add multiple daily prandial insulin
Usual starting basal dose for type 2 DM = _____x000D_
Consider ____ for elderly.
10 units_x000D_
5 units
Possible basal regimens for_x000D_
NPH, Glargine_x000D_
_x000D_
Continue to increase basal insulin until....
NPH at dinner or bedtime_x000D_
Glargine or detemir at bedtime _x000D_
_x000D_
FBG AT GOAL
When do you consider use of prandials?
Once FBGs at goal, consider prandial coverage if needed
Typical prandial starting dose: ____ units with meals
5 units
Describe insulin dosing:_x000D_
_x000D_
Average daily insulin requirement = ____ units/kg_x000D_
_x000D_
Total daily insulin requirement (in units of insulin) = <eqn>_x000D_
_x000D_
Basal dose = <eqn>_x000D_
_x000D_
FIXED Preprandial dose = <eqn>_x000D_
_x000D_
FLEXIBLE Preprandial dose = rule of ____ =
0.5-1 units/kg_x000D_
_x000D_
= 0.5(TBW in kg)_x000D_
_x000D_
= rule of 500 = 500/total daily dose = 1 unit of insulin will cover __g of carbs eaten"
High blood glucose correction factor (aka insulin sensitivity factor, Rule of ____ or ____)
Rule of 1500 or 1800 for high BG Correction factor
Rule of 1800 = use if patient is taking _____x000D_
_x000D_
Rule of 1500 = use if patient is taking ____
1800 : rapid acting insulin_x000D_
1500 : regular insulin_x000D_
_x000D_
= 1800/total daily insulin dose = _x__x000D_
_x000D_
“1 unit of aspart will reduce blood glucose by _x_ mg/dL”
Insulin dosing wrap up:_x000D_
_x000D_
daily = wt_kg (0.5) units_x000D_
1/2 basal_x000D_
1/2 preprandial _x000D_
fixed = divided amongst meals_x000D_
flexible = 500/daily insulin dose per gram carbs_x000D_
_x000D_
high BG_x000D_
--rapid acting = 1800/total daily dose_x000D_
--regular = 1500/total daily dose
na
When do these insulins peak and how long do they last?_x000D_
_x000D_
R_x000D_
S_x000D_
I_x000D_
L
When do these insulins peak and how long do they last?_x000D_
_x000D_
onset peak doa dirctions_x000D_
R 5-15m 0.5-2h 3-5h 15m b4 meal or 1st bite_x000D_
S 30-60m 2-4h 5-8h 30m b4 meal, avail OTC_x000D_
I 1-2h 4-12h 10-16h avail OTC, CLOUDY_x000D_
L 1-2h no pk 20-24 can't mix
how to convert NPH -> Glargine_x000D_
_x000D_
How often is Glarg dosed?_x000D_
_x000D_
What's special about its solubility?
decr. NPH by 20%_x000D_
_x000D_
qday_x000D_
_x000D_
completely soluble in pH4, but tissue is 7.4 = slow release throughout day
What type of insulin is highly protein bou
Detemir
Detemir DoA_x000D_
_x000D_
Conversion from NPH?
20h max, may be dosed 2x daily_x000D_
_x000D_
same, unit to unit
Adverse effects of insulin
Hypoglycemia (see later slides)_x000D_
_x000D_
Injection site pain_x000D_
Possibly less if insulin is warmed to room temp_x000D_
_x000D_
Lipohypertrophy_x000D_
Decrease risk by rotating injection sites_x000D_
_x000D_
Weight gain_x000D_
Encourage lifestyle changes
How to Pick a syringe
30-31 gauge preferred_x000D_
1 cc syringes for doses > 10 units_x000D_
--Small lines = 2 units_x000D_
0.5 cc syringes for doses < 10 units
when do insulin vials expire?
28 days
method for injection
. Pick a syringe_x000D_
30-31 gauge preferred_x000D_
1 cc syringes for doses > 10 units_x000D_
Small lines = 2 units_x000D_
0.5 cc syringes for doses < 10 units_x000D_
2. Date insulin vial after opening_x000D_
Most insulin vials expire after 28 days_x000D_
Expiration date for pens tend to be shorter_x000D_
3. Alcohol swab the top of the bottle each time_x000D_
No need for alcohol on skin if clean_x000D_
4. Draw back syringe to correct dose_x000D_
Pinch a fold of skin for SC administration_x000D_
6. Insert needle in skin and inject_x000D_
---Syringe at 90 degrees if plump_x000D_
---Syringe at 45 degrees if lean_x000D_
7. Count to 5 slowly then pull needle straight out_x000D_
8. Dispose of syringe in sharps container_x000D_
9. Use the same injection technique for pens. You may need to prime (dial up to 2 units, then waste), then dial to correct dose
mj diff betw inj w/need vs pens?
pens may need priming
Fastest site of injection is:
gut,/waist > upper arm > anywhere else
How can one increase rate of abs of insulin?
exercise_x000D_
heat or massage
Mixed preparations_x000D_
L/S = NPH / Regular_x000D_
L/R = Long actin / Lispro or aspart_x000D_
_x000D_
Choose between:_x000D_
70/30, 75/25, 50/50
NPH/Regular = 70/30, 50/50_x000D_
Intermed/short_x000D_
_x000D_
aspart protamine / aspart = 70/30, 75/25, 50/50,
is aspart protamine rapid or intermed, or long acting?
protamine = intermediate
Insulin Pumps_x000D_
_x000D_
what type of insulin_x000D_
infusion rate_x000D_
bolus avail?
RAPID ACTING_x000D_
every 5 min_x000D_
bolus based on carb ration and correction factor
use _x000D_
Rule of 1800 = _x000D_
Rule of 1500 = _x000D_
_x000D_
should this amt BE ADDED TO MEAL INSULIN (fixed dose/rule of 500?)
Rule of 1800 = use if patient is taking rapid acting insulin_x000D_
Rule of 1500 = use if patient is taking regular insulin_x000D_
_x000D_
YES MUST BE ADDED TO MEAL TIME INSULIN_x000D_
_x000D_
SO, Type1 60kg = 30units/day_x000D_
15 basal_x000D_
15 prandial = 5U / meal_x000D_
...now add rule of 1800 for fast acting = 1800/30 = 6units_x000D_
total = 5U (meal) + 6U (rapid) = 11U
Usual starting basal dose for type 2 DM = _x000D_
_x000D_
Typical prandial starting dose: ____ with meals
10 units _x000D_
5 units
We usually give detemir at ____._x000D_
_x000D_
Glargine can be given at _____ or _____
bedtime_x000D_
bedtime or morning
How do we treat (strat) DM2 w/insulin?
1. Get FBG (basal) to goal_x000D_
2. Consider prandial
Keep total daily insulin adjustment to ≤____ units at any one time
5-8 units at a time
Some patients taking ≥ ____ units may tolerate a 10-20% change in dose
100
BG Goals:_x000D_
Fasting (also pre-meals) =_x000D_
2 hours post-prandial =_x000D_
Bedtime =
FBG (incl pre-meal) = 70-130 mg/dL*_x000D_
<180 mg/dL_x000D_
110-150 mg/dL
Dawn phenomenon_x000D_
Describe._x000D_
How does it work?_x000D_
How to manage it?
Caused by nocturnal surges of growth hormone, cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine_x000D_
Results in transient hyperglycemia – since no insulin to counter the effects of counterregulatory hormones_x000D_
_x000D_
viz graph_x000D_
starts low at pm, slowly ramps to hyperG but still LOW at 2-3am_x000D_
_x000D_
increase PM BASAL insulin
Somogyi effect_x000D_
Describe._x000D_
How does it work?_x000D_
How to manage it?
REBOUND HYPERG_x000D_
_x000D_
Caused by overcompensation _x000D_
of nocturnal hypoglycemia_x000D_
_x000D_
viz graph_x000D_
starts low at pm, FAST RAMP to hyperG and HIGH at 2-3am_x000D_
_x000D_
REDUCE PM BASAL insulin
What to look for when identifying Somogyi/Dawn effects
Excessive night time carb intake_x000D_
Low night BG --> High morning_x000D_
Sxs of HYPOglycemia at night_x000D_
-dizzi_x000D_
-nausea_x000D_
-sweating_x000D_
-polyuria
TX of _x000D_
Dawn =_x000D_
Somogyi =
incr bedtime basal _x000D_
reduce bedtime basal_x000D_
_x000D_
DAWN = SUN RISES FAST!
If you saw low BG at night but high a.m. =_x000D_
_x000D_
high BG at night and high in a.m. =
somogyi (rebound)_x000D_
_x000D_
dawn
Signs and Symptoms of Hypoglycemia_x000D_
<3 stages>
First stage_x000D_
Adrenergic system – catecholamine release_x000D_
_x000D_
Anxiety_x000D_
Shakiness_x000D_
Sweating_x000D_
Hunger tremors_x000D_
Tachycardia_x000D_
_x000D_
Second stage_x000D_
Neuroglycopenic – CNS response to lack of glucose supply_x000D_
Confusion_x000D_
Irritability_x000D_
Headache_x000D_
Impaired mental function_x000D_
Impaired vision_x000D_
Motor in-coordination_x000D_
Convulsion_x000D_
Coma_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Nocturnal hypoglycemia_x000D_
Usually because of excess insulin therapy_x000D_
Symptoms usually do not awaken the patient_x000D_
Night sweats_x000D_
Nightmares_x000D_
Morning headaches_x000D_
Difficulty in awakening_x000D_
Restless during sleep
Hypoglycemia Treatment Approach _x000D_
_x000D_
conscious:_x000D_
how soon after do you test?_x000D_
_x000D_
When call 911?_x000D_
_x000D_
What if not sched to eat in next hr?
CONSCIOUS:_x000D_
Eat or drink 10 to 15 g of glucose or carbohydrate-containing foods or beverages _x000D_
May need 20 to 30 g if blood glucose level < 50 mg/dL_x000D_
_x000D_
15m_x000D_
_x000D_
Call 911 if blood glucose not back to normal after 3 treatments_x000D_
_x000D_
If not scheduled to eat within the next hour, pt should be cautious about additional hypoglycemia _x000D_
Strongly consider protein+carb snack (i.e. PB&J sandwich)
HypoG tx_x000D_
_x000D_
how many Gluc tabs?_x000D_
gel?_x000D_
juice and soda?_x000D_
milk?
3-4 gluc tabs_x000D_
1 tube gluc gel_x000D_
1/2 cup_x000D_
1 cup
When use glucagon injection?
Use when patient cannot take oral fluids, is unconscious, or is seizing
Glucagon Injection Instructions
Inject entire liquid contents of syringe into the glucagon bottle_x000D_
Swirl contents until mixture is fully dissolved_x000D_
Using the same syringe, withdraw the contents from the bottle_x000D_
Turn the individual onto their side_x000D_
Inject glucagon into arm, leg, or buttock_x000D_
1 mg for adults_x000D_
0.5 mg for children weighing <44 lbs (though there is no danger of overdose)_x000D_
Feed patient as soon as they awaken and can swallow
Antidepressants_x000D_
General
therapetuci resposne may take weeks_x000D_
no therapeutic diff between classes
Antidepressants_x000D_
Main Indications_x000D_
4
MDD_x000D_
bipolar_x000D_
anxiety - SSRI, SNRI (long term)_x000D_
post traumatic stress - not benzos_x000D_
OCD - not benzos_x000D_
neuropathic pain SNRI
Antidepressants_x000D_
Other Indications
smoking - Bupropion_x000D_
premenstrual dysphoric disorder - SSRI_x000D_
ADHD - TCA_x000D_
bulimia - fluoxetine
Antidepressants_x000D_
Mech
all inc levels of NE and 5-HT_x000D_
monoamine hypothesis - block neuronal pre--jxnal membrane transport into NE and 5-Ht
Antidepressants_x000D_
monoamine hypothesis -
block neuronal pre--jxnal membrane transport into NE and 5-Ht
Antidepressants_x000D_
neurotrophic hypothesis
brain derived neurotrophic factors inc neurogenesisi and plasticity_x000D_
in depression vol loss and decreased BDNF
SSRI_x000D_
Mech
block serotonin reuptake
SSRI_x000D_
Advantage
minimal sedation/hypotension/anticholinergic effects_x000D_
no cardiotoxicity or lethality with overdose
SSRI_x000D_
Side E
headache_x000D_
sex dysfxn!_x000D_
wt changes_x000D_
anxiety_x000D_
rebound effect (shorter half life more likely, paroxetine)
SSRI_x000D_
Toxicity
Sertonin syndrome - severe agitation; sweating, diarrhea, hyperpyrexia, coma/death_x000D_
inc risk with MAOI or another agent
SSRI_x000D_
Fluoxetine
least specific_x000D_
long half life of metabolite (norfluoxetine, 14 days)_x000D_
inhibit liver microsomal enz
SSRI_x000D_
drugs
Fluoxetine_x000D_
Seratraline_x000D_
Paroxetine
Atypical Antidepressants_x000D_
Hypericum (St. John's Wort)3_x000D_
features
treats mild depression_x000D_
affects liver metab of other drugs for HD, depression, seizures
Atypical Antidepressants_x000D_
Amoxapine (TCA)_x000D_
Features
blocks DA, _x000D_
hyperprolactinemia, EPS
Serotonin 5TH2 antagonists_x000D_
Drugs
Trazodone_x000D_
nefazodone
Serotonin 5TH2 antagonists_x000D_
nefazodone
moderate sedation_x000D_
liver failure
Serotonin 5TH2 antagonists_x000D_
Trazodone
severe sedation
Serotonin 5TH2 antagonists_x000D_
Trazodone_x000D_
nefazodone_x000D_
Side E
nausea/vomiting_x000D_
priapism_x000D_
hypotension
Serotonin 5TH2 antagonists_x000D_
Trazodone_x000D_
nefazodone_x000D_
ADV
mild hypotensive_x000D_
mild GI/sexual_x000D_
safter than TCA in overdose
Serotonin NE RI (SNRIs)_x000D_
Drugs
Venlafaxine_x000D_
Duloxetine
Serotonin NE RI (SNRIs)_x000D_
Venlafaxine_x000D_
Duloxetine_x000D_
indication
MDD when SSRIs don't work_x000D_
neuropathic pain/fibromyalgia
Serotonin NE RI (SNRIs)_x000D_
Venlafaxine_x000D_
Duloxetine_x000D_
Side E
seizures;more than SSRI
AD_x000D_
Bupropion_x000D_
Features
less side E; (sedation, hypotensive, sexual, antiach)_x000D_
smoking cessation_x000D_
lowers seizure threshold
AD_x000D_
Bupropion_x000D_
Side E
agitation/insomnea_x000D_
seizures
AD_x000D_
Maprotiline_x000D_
Mech
Blocks NE uptake_x000D_
no adv over TCA
AD_x000D_
Maprotiline_x000D_
Side E
wt gain_x000D_
seizures_x000D_
lethal in overdose
AD_x000D_
Mirtazapine_x000D_
mech
blocks prejxnal alpha 2 receptors thus inc NE and 5-HT_x000D_
blocks serotonin receptors
AD_x000D_
Mirtazapine_x000D_
Side E
fewer than SSRIs_x000D_
sedation and wt gain main ones_x000D_
minimal sexual
AD _x000D_
Clomipramine_x000D_
Features
OCD_x000D_
moderate Side E_x000D_
hihg seizures
TCA_x000D_
Mech
block reuptake of catacholamines into prejxnal endings
TCA_x000D_
Properties
lipid sol. with long half life (days)_x000D_
2 rings - 2ndary or tertiary amine side chains_x000D_
metabolized by ring hydroxylation and glucuronide conjgation_x000D_
can be made into active metabolite
TCA_x000D_
Side E - general
antagonit at alpha, M, and H receptors
TCA_x000D_
Side E_x000D_
CNS
sedation - H_x000D_
confusion/delirium - cholinoceptor block_x000D_
seizure; mania_x000D_
tremor - propranolol_x000D_
amoxapine - movement (EPS) (dopamine antag)
TCA_x000D_
Side E_x000D_
CV
post hypoT - alpha1_x000D_
tachycardia
TCA_x000D_
Side E_x000D_
Periph activity
dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention
TCA_x000D_
Side E_x000D_
Others_x000D_
3
Wt gain_x000D_
sexual dysfxn_x000D_
rebound
TCA_x000D_
Overdose
M and alpha antag. activity_x000D_
excitement, seizures_x000D_
slowed conduction (quinidine-like effect)_x000D_
supportive treatment - respiration_x000D_
benzos for seizures
TCA_x000D_
Drug Interactions
alcohol_x000D_
block antihypertensive (clonidine)_x000D_
block antihistamines_x000D_
MAOIs - serotonin syndrome
TCA_x000D_
Drugs
Imipramine_x000D_
Amitriptyline_x000D_
Nortriptyline_x000D_
Desipramine
MAOI_x000D_
Phenelzine_x000D_
Mech
inhib MAO A and B_x000D_
suicide inhib; knocks enz out until more is made - weeks_x000D_
actaully has short half life but works for longer
MAOI_x000D_
Phenelzine_x000D_
Indications
no response to TCAs and SSRI
MAOI_x000D_
Phenelzine_x000D_
Side E
hypotension_x000D_
headache, dry mouth sex, wt gain_x000D_
CNS stim
MAOI_x000D_
Phenelzine_x000D_
Interactions
serotonin syndrome_x000D_
CNS depressant, sympathomimetic amine
MAOI_x000D_
Phenelzine_x000D_
Interactions_x000D_
Tyramine
Tyr releases NE_x000D_
is in many foods_x000D_
typically broken down but when MAO is deficient, leads to nausea and vomiting_x000D_
leads to inc in NE release = arrhythmias, HTN crisis, subarachnoid bleeding, stroke
Lithium_x000D_
Indications
mania or bipolar_x000D_
onset is 2-3 weeks
Lithium_x000D_
Mech
pict. in notes_x000D_
inhib phospholipid turnover, and therefore lowers amt PIP2, IP3 and DAG
Lithium_x000D_
excretion
amt in blood determine efficacy_x000D_
elminated unchanged by kidney, 80% reab in prox tubule_x000D_
competes with tubule_x000D_
low TI
Lithium_x000D_
Side E
low plasma levels .5-.9 normal_x000D_
0.9-2.5 more severe_x000D_
nausea, fine tremore, polyuria,polydipsia_x000D_
wt gain/ rash/thyroid_x000D_
fetal malformation
Lithium_x000D_
Side E - high dose
confusion first sign of toxicity_x000D_
collapse coma_x000D_
treat with hemodialysis and anticonvulsants
Lithium_x000D_
Interactions
sodium depletion (thiazide diuretics)_x000D_
renal clearance dec by NSAIDs - not aspirin or acetaminophen
Valproic acid_x000D_
Carbamazepine
treat mania and bipolar with or without lithium
Special Dietary Considerations: Pancreatitis
Avoid Alcohol
Bland Foods
Small, frequent meals
Decrease Fat
Special Dietary Considerations: Cholecystitis
• Decrease Fat
• small, frequent meals
Special Dietary Considerations: Hepatitis
• NPO initially
• low Fat
• High protein/carbohydrates
Special Dietary Considerations: Cirrhosis
Small, frequent meals
Low sodium/protein
Special Dietary Considerations: Diaphragmatic Hernia
• Decrease portion sizes
• Decrease Fat
• increase frequency of meals
• increase protein
Special Dietary Considerations: Dumping Syndrome
• increase fat/protein/fiber
• increase frequency of meals
• Decrease portion size/fluid with meals
• Decrease carbohydrate intake
Special Dietary Considerations: Diverticulosis
• NPO initially
• increase fluids
• Bland/soft foods
• High-fiber foods, but avoid foods that are difficult to digest such as corn, seeds, and nuts
Special Dietary Considerations: Ulcerative Colitis
• AVOID coarse, high-fiber, raw fruits/veggies,
cold beverages
• increase bland foods
• increase protein
• increase calories
Special Dietary Considerations: Celiac Disease
No gluten
increase calories
increase protein
Special Dietary Considerations: Renal failure (Acute)
increase carbohydrates
limit protein (good rule ol thumb for anyone
with kidney failure until otherwise specified
by physician)
Decrease sodium
Fluid restriction
Special Dietary Considerations: Renal failure (Chronic)
Avoid high potassium foods
Low sodium
High iron
High calcium, vitamins B, C, D
Special Dietary Considerations: Cushing’ Syndrome
Increase Protein
Increase Potassium
Decrease Sodium
Decrease calories
Special Dietary Considerations: Addison’s Disease
Increase Sodium
Low Potassium
Special Dietary Considerations: Meniere’s Disease
No alcohol
Low Sodium
Special Dietary Considerations: Heart Failure
Low sodium
Low fat
Fluid restriction in some patients