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134 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following is FALSE of OCD of the trochlear ridge of the femur?
a) apparent in young animals from 6months to 2years of age b) decreased anterior phase of stride c) medial parellar luxation may occur d) lateral rotation of the stifle may occur |
C
lateral patellar luxation |
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Which of the following is TRUE of OCD of the trochlear ridge of the femur?
a) all cases must undergo surgery b) usually seen in animals 2-4yrs old c) usually no synovial fluid is seen d) management includes restriction of concentrates |
D
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Which of the following is TRUE of subchondral cystic lesions of the medial femoral condyle?
a) articular injections reduce lameness b) synovial effusion is a common sign c) flexion test increases lameness d) soundness is dependent on radiographic evidence of the cyst filling |
C
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In what condition does the medial patellar ligament become fixed proximal to the medial condyle of the femur?
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Upwards fixation of the patellar
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Which of the following is FALSE of upward fixation of the patella?
a) possible hereditary predisposition b) due to trauma with overflexion of limb c) most commonly seen in draft horses d) slight hesitation in the gait seen just after the foot is placed on the ground e) B &D |
E
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Which of the following is NOT a correct way to manage upward fixation of the patella?
a) startle the horse to cause it to jump backwards quickly b) estrogen injection subcutaneously proximal to the patella c) slowly increase exercise with cross country rides d) medial patellar desmotomy |
B
injection should be under the fascia in the quadriceps immediately proximal to the patella and along the length of the medial & middle patellar ligaments |
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Which of the following is FALSE of the a medial patellar desmotomy?
a) stab incision is made just lateral to the medial patellar ligament b) postoperative care includes rest for 6wks following surgery c) may be performed standing with sedation d) tendon of the sartorius muscle is just cranial to the medial patellar ligament |
D
sartorious is caudal |
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Which of the following is TRUE of peroneus tertious rupture?
a) leg will not move backwards b) hock will be overflexed c) there will be a kink in the achielles tendon d) the rupture usually occurs in the most proximal part of the tendon |
C
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Which of the following statements is FALSE of foot trimming in food animals?
a) the toe should be thicker than the quarter or the heel b) nippers should have a cutting edge perpendicular to the heel toe axis of the foot c) the objective of foot trimming is to make the front slightly more concave than the back feet d) a hoof knife is used to remove excess sole |
C
the back feet should be more concave |
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Which of the following is TRUEof screw claws?
a) often occurs in double muscled cattle >5yrs of age b) causes the axis of the foot to rotate abaxially c) can NOT be corrected d) medial claw =back foot lateral claw = front foot |
C
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Which of the following is FALSE of subsolar abscess in cows?
a) tetnus antitoxin is important to give b) bandages may help manage tx c) lameness is not as severe as in the horse d) A & C are false |
A
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Which of the following is NOT done in cattle hoof cracks?
a) use a dremmel tool to removed involved hoof b) lace crack with wire c) apply a wooden blood to affected claw d) use hoof testers |
C
wooden block is applied to unaffected claw |
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Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of foot rot?
a) vitamin A deficiency b) ice accumulation on interdigital skin c) trauma to foot d) genetics |
D
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Which is NOT TRUE of interdigital fibroma?
a) lameness is correlated to the size of the growth b) tx consist of bandaging and wiring toes c) recovery is more rapid if fat pad is not removed d) fat pad should be removed in Zebu cattle |
A
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Which is NOT a effective way to treat osteomyeltitis of the digit?
a) facilitate ankylosis b) amputation of the digit at the most proximal edge of P1 c) debriding of infected bone d) all are effective treatments |
B
amputation should be no more proximal than middle of P1 |
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Which of the following is a FALSE statement about stifle injuries in bulls?
a) rest & splint immobilization are effective txs b) young bulls usually have salter 2 fx c) bulls will commonly injure their stifle d) clinical signs is weight bearing on heal |
D
they bear weight on the toe |
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What breed is predisposed to upward fixation of the patella?
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Brahman breed
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Which of the following is a TRUE statement about long bone fractures in cattle?
a) long bone fractures in cattle & horses are similar b) closed fractures should be immobilized before transport of animal c) humeral fractures require a full limb splint d) walker splint may be used to immobilize a injured stifle |
D
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A kick with considerable muscle damage and no break in the skin is an example of which of the following?
a) puncture wound b) avulsion c) contusion d) abrasion |
C
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A wound in which does NOT extend through the dermis is termed?
a) incision b) abrasion c) laceration d) puncture wound |
B
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Which of the following is FALSE of Tetnus?
a) sheep and goats are moderately susceptible b) 1500units of tetanus toxoid is given to lambs at castration c) tetanus antitoxin & toxoid can be given at the same time to provide immediate & long term protection d) all are true |
D
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Which of the following is TRUE of open wound management?
a) Furacin is used to delay epithelialization b) bandaging the upper leg decreased healing time c) antibiotics should be applied just until infection is gone d) upper extremity wounds require topical medication |
A
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T/F
lower leg wounds respond better if bandaged whereas upper limb wounds respond better with just daily cleanins |
True
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Which of the following is NOT a primary factor in surgical managment of wounds?
a) location of wound b) prognosis c) degree of contamination d) amount of tissue involved |
B
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Skin grafting is primarily for _______wounds
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lower leg
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A skin graft transfered between genetically different animals of the same species is termed?
a) xenograft b) autograft c) allograft d) heterograft |
C
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what is a xenograft
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skin graft transferred between animals of different species
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T/F
the better looking a skin graft the more likely it is to take |
FASLE
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Which statement is FALSE of skin grafts?
a) a pinch, punch, or tunnel graph requires a healthy non infected granulation bed b) the pectoral region is the normal donor site c) All subcutaneous tissue is removed in punch grafts d) tunnel/strip graft are used in areas with considerable motion |
A
require healthy & may have some degree of contamination |
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Which of the following types of grafts prevents serum accumulation?
a) tunnel graft b) mesh graft c) full thickness graft d) pinch graft |
B
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Which of the following is a TRUE statement of joint wounds?
a) 25% Lugol's solution in glycerine should be used for animals returning to athletic competitions b) secondary osteoarthritis is a possible problem c) and negative culture of joint proves that there is no infection d) open infected joints are very painful |
B
-neg culture are of no value -Lugols solution should not be used in athletic horses -leg carrying lameness occurs if infection is present when capsule closes |
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Which of the following is the BEST treatment for Proud Flesh?
a) caustic agents such as copper sulfate b) surgical removal c) panalog ointment d) meat tenderizer e) slints & pressure bandages |
B
although all are effective treatments |
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List the 3 predisposing factors for excessive granulation tissue?
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1) minimal muscle mass
2) limited excess skin 3) continual irritation |
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Which of the following statements is FALSE of phycomycosis?
a) pythiosis sometimes involves the mammary gland b) Immunotherapy is relatively effective against conidiobolomycosis c) histopath/culture is used for definitive diagnosis d) iodide therapy is effective in cases of conidiobolomycosis |
B
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Where do ADULT Draschia megastoma live
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in the granulomas in the stomach wall
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Which of the following is a FALSE statement about summer sores?
a) definitive diagnosis is by biopsy b) topical medication is commonly used c) During the normal life cycle Drashia larvae infect wounds of horses d) Prednisolone may be used to help control summer sores |
C
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Which of the following is NOT done in treatment of wounds involving the periosteum or bone?
a) apply healing powders to bone b) remove bone sequestrums c) estrablish good drainage d) systemic antibiotics |
A
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Which of the following is BEST for the management of wounds involving the coronary band?
a) remove at least 5inch wide segments to encourage regeneration b) apply a normal leg wrap c) apply a snug pressure bandage d) use a caustic agent in the bandage dressings |
C
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T/F
use of caustic to destroy abscess wall may be indicated in cows |
true
not indicated in horses |
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Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of indolent wounds?
a)chronic infection b) poor nutritional state c) over exuberant use of DMSO d) lack of antibiotic use |
D
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a wound that reaches a stage of healing in which they don't get worse but don't heal is termed?
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indolent wound
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Which of the following is FALSE of subcutaneous air?
a) may be caused by IM injections of banamine b) no tx required for wounds or respiratory tract c) wounds in the axilla area are most commonly involved d) all are true |
D
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Which of the following is TRUE of Sarcoids?
a) axial region is most commonly involved b) immune stimulation is the most effective treatment c) similar but not identical lesions have been produced by injecting horses with bovine papilloma virus d)recurrence does not occur with dissection of sarcoid |
C
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What is the best management of squamous cell carcinoma?
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wide surgical excision
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Which of the following is FALSE concerning Melanomas?
a) fast to metastasize b) Arabs & Lipizzan prone to develop melanomas c) cimetidine stops the progression & decreases the size of melanomas d) all are true |
A
slow to metastasize |
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How does verrucous dermatitis differ from Thrush
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Thrush is an erosive condition and verrucous dermatitis is proliferative
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Which of the following is TRUE of verrucous dermatitis?
a) requires radical surgical excision b) only involves the epithelium c) medications can be applied under the bandage d) animal is many times not lame e) all of the above |
ALL are TRUE
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In burned animals topical medication should be used to control _______ infections.
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Pseudomonas
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Which of the following is FALSE of Castration?
a) evisceration in horses is a greater problem in younger animals b) succinylcholine may be used to paralyze horses for castration & also provides pain control c) Ace + Rompun is good for restraining a standing horse for castration d) porcine, ovine & caprine are normally castrated in the 1st 2 wks of life |
B
provides no pain control |
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Which of the following is a BEST way to castrate a mature bull?
a) cast manually & castrate w/out anesthesia b) Pentothal or surital into ear vein c) Na pentobarbital into testicle d) Both B & C |
D
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Describe anesthesia of the spermatic chord in equine castration.
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-Local anesthetic is injected into the parenchyma of the testicle
-the anesthetic is carried to the pampiniform plexus & the nerves which are in close proximity are blocked |
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Which of the following if FALSE of castrations in large animals?
a) surgical prep for bovines for the area is not commonly performed b) during surgical castration of bovines the ventral 1/3 of the scrotum is removed c) use of Henderson Castration Tool causes excessive hemorrhage d) bloodless castration can be done using an Burdizzo emasculatome |
C
minimal hemorrhage is seen with normal drainage |
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T/F
emasculatome & elastrator bands may be used for castration of ovine & caprine |
TRUE
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The _____ is one of the most susceptible species to Tetanus
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horse
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Which of the following is TRUE Of hydroceles caused by castration?
a) greatly minimized by removing & adequate amount of common vaginal tunic b) much more common before the use of anesthetics c) management involves general anesthesia & dissection & removal of excess vaginal tunic d) all of the above |
D
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Ruminants very seldom have testicles retained in the ______ if the testicle is not in the scrotum it is usually ______.
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abdomen
subcutaneous |
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Which of the following is FALSE about equine retained testicles?
a) it is impossible to differ b/t the testicle & the bulb of the gubernaculum in foals b) testicle usually present in scrotum after 4wks c) often considered to be a heritable condition d) horses w/ retained testicle are often more difficult to manage |
B
testicle present in birth |
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Palpation of retained testicles in horses sometimes requires relaxation of the _____muscle
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cremaster
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During rectal palpation of equine retained testicles you are attempting to palpate what structure?
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the vas deferens going through the internal inguinal ring
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Which of the following is FALSE of equine retained testicles?
a) >400pg/ml estrogen indicates testicular tissue is present b) <200pg/ml estrogen indicates no testicular tissue c) animals with testicular tissue have an increase in levels following HCG injection d) the left testicle has a greater chance of being retained e) B & D incorrect |
E
-rt & lt testicle retained w/ equal regularity - <100pg/ml estrogen= no testicule |
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Which of the following is the CORRECT surgical approach for removal of retained testicles if there is a question about the location of a retained testicle?
a) parainguinal b) ventral midline c) inguinal d) flank |
C
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What surgical approach for removal of a retained testicle may be performed on a standing animal?
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Flank approach
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Describe the technique for locating a retained testicle by following the mesorchium.
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identify the mesorchium at the caudal pole of the ipsilateral kidney & follow to retained testicle
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Which of the following is FALSE of acute irreducible hernias in stallions?
a) commonly a post breeding problem b) rectal examination may reveal intestines passing through external inguinal ring c) intestines may be palpated in scrotum d) may present w/ clinical signs similar to GI obstruction |
B
internal inginual ring |
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T/F
congenital scrotal hernia in foals may be self correcting |
TRUE
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Which of the following is TRUE of chronic reducible hernias?
a) There is an immediate danger of strangulation b) retained testicle is a possible differential c) slight rear leg lameness may occur in stallions d) bulls have an equal occurance of lt & rt hernias |
C
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Which of the following is an indication for ischial urethromtomy?
a) management of hemospermia b) correction of phimosis c) managment of penile amputation d) removal of calculi in females |
A
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Which of the following correctly describes the surgical technique for ischial urethrotomy?
a) midline incision just lateral to the anal sphincter b) sharp disscetion b/t the retractor penis muscle c) wound is surtured closed w/ absorbable material d) all are true |
B
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Swelling of the penis & prepuce which causes the penis to be retained outside the preputial orifice is termed?
a) penile paralysis b) phimosis c) paraphimosis d) chronic hernia |
C
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What is phimosis & what species is it common in?
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swelling of the penis & prepuce which causes the penis to be retained inside the preputial orifice
-seldom occurs in stallions, common in bull |
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T/F
indication for reefing includes removal of abnormal growths or scar tissue that extend deeper than the dermis |
FALSE
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What is the indication for the Bolz technique?
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paralysis of the penis after all efforts to stimulate spontaneous retration have been exhausted
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inversion of the lips of the vulva is common found in_____
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fat filly
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Which of the following is a complication of a Caslick surgery is the closure is carried to far ventral?
a) suture sinus b) urine pooling c) inability to breed d) none of the above |
B
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how can a suture sinus (due to caslicks) be eliminated?
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can be eliminated by not going through the vaginal mucosa with the suture
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Which of the following is TRUE of the caslicks procedure?
a) a single interrupted pattern should be used b) it is indicated for correction of poor vaginal conformation c) mares will commonly have to be sutured for the rest of their repro life d) B & C |
D
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describe a variation of the caslick's technique
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removal of the tissue slightly anterior to the mucocutaneous junction (only mucosa removed)
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Mares that are giving birth for the first time are more likely to have which of the following?
a) second degree laceration b) pneumovagina c) third degree laceration d) first degree laceration |
C
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Which of the following is NOT indicated for second degree perineal lacertions?
a) restraint in stocks b) wait 5-10 days for inflammation to subside c) debride area d) dietarty restrictions |
D
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Which of the following is NOT true of 3rd degree perineal lacerations?
a) it is routine to wait 6wks before repair b) dietary management is important in both horses & cows c) evisceration is unlikely d) all are true |
B
only horses need diet management |
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Which of the following is the BEST surgical technique for 3rd degree perineal lacerations that are very shallow?
a) annes' tech b) modified Goetz c) Gadd d) Pull back tech |
D
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pelvic abscess is usually assocated with _____
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persistent tenesmus
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Which of the following statements regarding vaginal injury is CORRECT?
a) varices need to be injected w/ sclerosing agents to prevent continual hemorrhage b) cruciate incision is the tx for 3 dimensional adhesion c) A & B |
A
2 dimesional requires cruiate |
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Which of the following is TRUE of urine pooling?
a) urine present in anterior vagina b) urine inactivates semen c) common in mares that lose perivaginal fat d) A & B e) all of the above |
E
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which of the following urine pooling surgeries is characterised by dividing the urethral orifice so that there is a ventral & dorsal flap of mucosa?
a) McKinnon tech b) Brown Tech c) Shires Tech d) Monin Tech |
B
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Which of the following is TRUE of uterine prolapse?
a) banamine should be given as prophylactic therapy b) vulva should be sutured to prevent recurrence c) ligatures are of little value in endometrium d) A & C e) all of the above |
D
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T/F
cervix lacerations that involve only the mucosa require tx to prevent adhesions |
true
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Which of the following is TRUE of uterine tears in ruminants & mares?
a) uterus twisted on long axis b) mares twist caudal to cervix c) ruminants & horses both have definite asymmetry of vulva d) mares may be rolled in the opposite direction as twist to treat |
D
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What is the most common laparotomy site for a mare cesarean?
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ventral midline
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What is th most most common ovarian neoplasm in mares?
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granulosa cell tumor
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T/F
copotomy may be used in mares to remove an enlarged ovary |
FALSE
acceptable approach to remove normal ovary, doesn't work for enlarged ovary |
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Which of the following is TRUE of nymphomania?
a) usually associated with abnormal ovaries & easily diagnosed b) OVH helps manage the problem c) mares exhibit stallion like behavior d) progesterone may be an effective tx e) C & D |
E
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Which of the following statements is TRUE of male ruminant urogential anatomy?
a) retractor penis muscle originates form 1-2nd cocygeal vertebrae b) artery of penis is continuation of internal pudendal c) all veins draining the CCP are located at the crus d) all of the above |
D
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What vasculature supplies the corpus spongiosum penis in ruminants
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artery of the bulb of the penis
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with urination & ejaculation in the ruminant contraction of the ____ & ____muscle forces blood down the CSP
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urethralis & bulbospongiosus
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____nerve is the source of sensory & motor nerves to the penis
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pudendal
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Which of the following is TRUE of the urethra in ruminants?
a) urethral diverticulum present in all ruminants b) dorsally placed diverticulum c) A & B |
C
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Which of the following is FALSE of hematoma of the penis in bulls?
a) sexual rest gives a 50% heal rate b) preputial prolapse may be the first c/s farmer notices c) tunica albuginea ruptures on the same side as the retractor penis muscle d) all are incorrect |
C
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What is the indication for an episiotomy?
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minimize damage to the perineal body & vulva during delivery
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Which of the following is FALSE of vaginal & cervical prolapse?
a) usually occurs in last trimester of gestation b) ewes with forage high in estrogens are predisposed c) cervical plug is many times compromised or lost in 3rd or 4th degree prolapses d) all of the above |
D
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Which of the following is the best method for retaining a prolapsed cervix/vagina?
a) boot lace tech b) buhner suture c) winkler tech d) minchev procedure |
B
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Which of the following DOES NOT predispose ruminants to uterine prolapse?
a) hypocalcemia b) calving paresis c) hyperkalemia d) uterine inertia |
C
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Squamous cell carcinoma is responsible for ____% of all carcass condemnation at slaughter
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12.5%
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Which of the following is FALSE of the Peterson Nerve block?
a) reccommended for eye removal b) anesthesia deposited in foramen orbitorotundum c) both are true |
A
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describe the land marks for the cornual nerve block
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-just beneath the lateral aspect of the temporal portion of the frontal bone
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T/F
older goats require no local anesthesia for dehorning |
FALSE
may die of shock with no anesthesia |
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Which of the following is FALSE of oral injuries?
a) wounds of the frenulum of the tongue heal spontaneously b) sutures on the ventral surface of the tongue hold better than the dorsal surface c) the hard palate is usually NOT involved in cleft soft palate d) A & C |
B
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What technique provides the best exposure for correction of cleft soft palate?
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mandibular symphysiotomy
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Which of the following layers of the esophagus does not hold sutures well?
a) submucosa b) fibrous c) muscular layer d) mucosa |
C
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What are the 2 most common locations for obstruction of the esphagus?
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-anterior esophagus
-anterior to thoracic inliet |
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water lavage of esophageal obstruction works well except when___?
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the bolus is lush grass
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Which of the following esophageal stricture classifications involves all layers?
a) rings b) mural c) complete d) annular stenosis |
D
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Esophagomytomy is valuable when a stricture is _____
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mural
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Which of the following is FALSE of esophageal fistulas?
a) c/s is food tinged drainage b) surgery should be done immediately c) secondary to esophageal perforation d) will decrease in size over time |
B
-wait several months |
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what surgical technique is indication for esophageal diverticulum?
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mucosal inversion
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What is the preferred approach for surgical exploration of the abdomen?
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ventral midline approach
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What is the treatment option for gastric rupture in the horse?
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euthansia is the only option
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Which of the following is TRUE of gastric ulceration?
a) frequently in the area of the pylorus & anterior duodenum b) foals affected may commonly grind their teeth in pain c) surgical correction involves performance of a gastrojejunostomy d) all of the above |
D
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Which of the following is FALSE of gastric neoplasia?
a) acute abdominal pain is a common clinical sign b) dx is made with the aid of cytology exam performed on gastric washings c) it is usually indicated to surgically remove the neoplastic area d) may be evidence of discomfort soon after eating |
C
b/c of poor surgical accessibility of equine stomach normally not indicated to remove neoplasia |
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simple obstruction of the small intestine is very difficult to differentiate from ________
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ileus (a functional obstruction)
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acarid impaction occurs in what age of animals? why?
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foal & weanling
-adults have normally developed immune response |
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define simple obstruction of the small intestine
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obstruction which does not compromise the blood flow
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Which of the following is NOT TRUE of adnesions?
a) heparin ^ carboxymethylcellulose are treatments b) serosa may be sutured over damaged area to prevent reoccurrance c) intestinal content may be diverted around adhesion d) all are true |
D
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Which of the following is NOT a suggested cause of impaction of the distal ileum?
a) muscular hypertrophy b) lack of proper motility c) coastal hay d) overweight mares |
D
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Describe the surgical technique for anterior enteritis
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divert contents of sm intestine into large bowel so that disease sm intestine can heal
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In what location is intussusception most common?
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ileocecal
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Which of the following is FALSE of internal hernias?
a) abdominocentesis yields abnormal fluid b) enterotomy may be neccessary c) only 5% survival rate d) more common in older horses |
A
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persistence of the omphalomesenteric duct is termed?
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meckel's diverticulum
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persistence of the distal segment of a vitellin artery and the associated mesentery is termed?
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mesodiverticular band
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T/F
there is a greater potential problem for a small hernia to cause an acute abdomen |
TRUE
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What is the primary cause of mesenteric thrombus?
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strongylus vulgaris
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which of the following is FALSE of cecum impaction?
a) horse usually shows intense pain b) result of motility problem c) feces are able to pass d) result of course & poor quality hay |
A
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torsion of the large colon is most common at the _____ & ____ flexures
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diaphragmatic & sternal
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volvulus of the colon & or cecum, bowel is twisted around the ____axis
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mesenteric
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