Ksurgery 500-600

Front 1

Q500. Patient hurts his knee, causing him the ability to bend his leg inward to a greater extent then normally possible. What structure is damaged?

Back 1

A500. Lateral Collateral Ligament; (Varus test)

Front 2

Q501. Patient hurts his knee, causing him the ability to bend his leg outward to a greater extent then normally possible. What structure is damaged?

Back 2

A501. Medial Collateral Ligament; (Valgus test)

Front 3

Q502. Patient hurts his knee, causing him to feel loose intra- articular bodies and a locking of the knee. What structure is damaged?

Back 3

A502. Medial Meniscus

Front 4

Q503. What is the first step in the evaluation of a palpable thyroid nodule?

Back 4

A503. Ultrasound

Front 5

Q504. A front-seat passenger in a car involved in a head-on collision relates that he hit the dashboard with his knees, however, he is specifically complaining of severe pain in his right hip, rather than knee pain. He lies in the stretcher in the emergency department with the right lower extremity shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. What is the most likely injury?

Back 5

A504. Posterior dislocation of the hip; (not fracture of the femoral neck)

Front 6

Q505. A 25-year-old man is shot with a .22 caliber revolver. The entrance wound is in the anteromedial aspect of his upper thigh, and the exit wound is about 3 inches lower, in the posterolateral aspect of the thigh. He has a large, expanding hematoma in the upper inner thigh. There are no palpable pulses in the foot. The bone is intact by physical examination and x-ray films. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Back 6

A505. Surgical Exploration; (Arteriograms are very often used in vascular trauma, but are not needed here. We would use an arteriogram if the anatomic location of the injury suggested vascular involvement, but the clinical signs did not confirm such suspicion. Arteriograms are also used when the specific surgical approach is dictated by precise knowledge of the site of extravasation, a situation that does not apply here)

Front 7

Q506. A 7-year-old boy passes a large, bloody bowel movement. He is hemodynamically stable, and he has a hemoglobin of 14 g/dL. Nasogastric aspiration yields clear, greenish fluid. Physical examination, including anoscopy, is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic test?

Back 7

A506. Radioactively labeled Technetium Scan; (In this age group, with no obvious anal pathology and negative gastric aspirate, the leading cause of gastrointestinal bleeding is Meckel's diverticulum. The specific source is ulceration of the normal ileal mucosa by acid produced by gastric mucosa in the diverticulum. The technetium scan identifies that ectopic gastric mucosa. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy would have been appropriate if the gastric aspirate had produced blood)

Front 8

Q507. An 81-year-old man with Alzheimer disease who lives in a nursing home undergoes surgery for a fractured femoral neck. On the 5th postoperative day, it is noted that his abdomen is grossly distended and tense, but not tender; no evidence of occult blood. X-ray films show a few distended loops of small bowel and the gas pattern of distention extends throughout the entire large bowel, including the sigmoid and rectum. No stool is seen in the films. Otherwise he does not appear to be ill. Vital signs are normal for his age. What is the most likely diagnosis?; Diagnostic test?; Tx?

Back 8

A507. Dx: Ogilvie Syndrome; (a type of colonic dysfunction often seen in elderly patients who are not too active to begin with and are then further immobilized by extra-abdominal surgery); Diagnostic test: Colonoscopy; (rules out obstructing cancer, which is always a consideration in this age group, and allows the gas to be sucked out as the instrument advances); Tx: A long tube is then left in place

Front 9

Q508. A 42-year-old, right-handed man has had a history of progressive speech difficulties and right hemiparesis for 5 months. He has had progressively severe headaches for the past 2 months, which are worse in the mornings. At the time of admission, he is confused and vomiting, and has blurred vision, papilledema, and diplopia. Shortly thereafter, his blood pressure increases to 190/110 mm Hg, and he develops bradycardia. What is most likely the significance of the hypertension and the bradycardia?

Back 9

A508. There is a near-terminal increase in intracranial pressure; (the development of hypertension and bradycardia (Cushing's reflex) signifies that the brain has run out of compensatory mechanisms to minimize the intracranial pressure elevation generated by increased intracranial volume. When that point is reached, brain perfusion suffers and death is imminent)

Front 10

Q509. On the 5th postoperative day, it is noticed that large amounts of clear, pink, salmon-colored fluid are soaking the wound dressings. The incision appears intact and not particularly red or inflamed, but there are indeed traces of the clear pink fluid on his skin. He has no specific complaints. He is still NPO and on IV fluids, but has already been passing gas per rectum, and plans had been made to feed him today. The abdomen is not distended, and he has normal bowel sounds. He is afebrile. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Back 10

A509. Tape the wound securely, bind the abdomen, and avoid events that would suddenly increase his intra-abdominal pressure; (The situation described is that of a wound dehiscence that has not yet progressed to a wound evisceration. The former can be dealt with at leisure, if the latter is avoided. He will eventually require re-closure, but it can be done whenever it is most convenient. Remember: Pink fluid on an abdominal surgical wound is a leak of intra-abdominal fluid)

Front 11

Q510. A 24-year-old woman sustains multiple injuries in a car accident, including a pelvic fracture. She is hemodynamically stable. Initial assessment shows no vaginal or rectal injuries; however, when a Foley catheter is inserted, bloody urine is recovered. What would be the best way to evaluate her urologic injury?

Back 11

A510. Retrograde cystogram including post-void films; (it is important to include post-void films because extravasation at the bladder neck can be obscured by the dye that is filling the bladder)

Front 12

Q511. A 62-year-old woman has a 4-cm, hard mass under the nipple and areola of her rather small left breast. The mass occupies most of the breast, but the breast is freely movable from the chest wall. There is no dimpling or ulceration of the skin over the mass, and careful palpation of the axilla is completely negative. A core biopsy of the breast mass has established a diagnosis of infiltrating ductal carcinoma, and the mammogram showed no other lesions in that breast or the other one. A chest x-ray film and liver function tests are normal. She has no symptoms suggestive of brain or bone metastasis. What Tx should be offered to this woman?

Back 12

A511. Modified Radical Mastectomy including axillary sampling; (Lumpectomy, axillary sampling, and post-op radiation would have been the correct answer for a smaller tumor in a larger breast)

Front 13

Q512. A 49-yo obese man presents with a serum calcium of 14. He has uncontrolled DM and bipolar disorder (for which he takes lithium). What is the most likely cause of the calcium elevation?

Back 13

A512. Parathyroid Hyperplasia secondary to Renal Failure from the uncontrolled DM; (when the kidney loses its ability to reabsorb calcium and Vit D, hypocalcemia triggers the parathyroid gland to increase their production of parathyroid hormone)

Front 14

Q513. A 5-yo boy is brought to the ER after ingesting a half-bottle of liquid drain cleaner. What is the next step?

Back 14

A513. Tracheostomy; (even though the step doesn’t state a breathing problem, airway edema, stridor and difficulty breathing is likely)

Front 15

Q514. A 46-yo woman presents to the ER with RUQ pain and fever. She has scleral icterus. There are no peritoneal signs; bowel sounds are present. Dx?; What is the best initial Tx?; If that doesn’t work?

Back 15

A514. Dx: Acute Cholangitis; First: Antibiotics and fluid resuscitation; Next: Percutaneous Transhepatic Drainage

Front 16

Q515. What is the best Diagnostic test for a Breast mass in a younger woman?

Back 16

A515. Ultrasound

Front 17

Q516. What is the treatment post-operative for a premenopausal woman who had a modified radical mastectomy for a 3cm mass with negative LN?

Back 17

A516. Chemotherapy

Front 18

Q517. A 63-yo man is disease-free after BCG therapy for CIS bladder cancer. In addition to a physical exam, cystoscopy and urinary cytology, what should be done?

Back 18

A517. IVP (to rule-out upper tract tumors)

Front 19

Q518. A 78-yo man presents with RUQ pain, N/V and a 30lb weight loss over the past 3 months. He has scleral icterus and asymmetric thickening of the gallbladder. Dx?

Back 19

A518. Adenocarcinoma of the GB

Front 20

Q519. A 10-yo boy presents with persistent hoarseness that worsens with singing. There are multiple lesions on his true vocal cords. Dx?

Back 20

A519. Laryngeal Papilloma; (benign and located on the true vocal cords. In kids they present as multiple lesions and are caused by HPV)

Front 21

Q520. What is the best Diagnostic test to define an enlarged Parathyroid gland?

Back 21

A520. Ultrasound

Front 22

Q521. A 52-yo female has melanotic pigmentation of her buccal mucosa and hamartomas throughout her GI tract. What other cancer is assoc with this condition?

Back 22

A521. Ovarian CA

Front 23

Q522. What is the medical treatment for Carcinoid syndrome? (2) What is the drug class of these drugs?

Back 23

A522. Octreotide, a Somatostatin analogue;; Cyproheptadine, a Serotonin antagonist

Front 24

Q523. A 53-yo woman presents with 12 mo History of neck pain, 15lb weight gain and malaise. Dx?

Back 24

A523. Hashimoto Thyroiditis

Front 25

Q524. A 41-yo woman complains of tenderness in her right knee for the past 3 weeks. A synovial aspiration reveals no evidence of bacteria or crystals. Dx?

Back 25

A524. Bursitis

Front 26

Q525. What nerve is affected in a mid humeral fracture?

Back 26

A525. Radial; (wrist extension and sensory to back of hand)

Front 27

Q526. What nerve is affected in an elbow dislocation?

Back 27

A526. Ulnar; (finger abduction and sensory to last 2 digits)

Front 28

Q527. What type of orthopedic problem is assoc with a patient who has DM or syphilis (causing peripheral neuropathy to the extreme of not feeling a fracture) leads to gradual arthritis and joint deformity?

Back 28

A527. Charcot Joint

Front 29

Q528. MCC of bacterial osteomyelitis?

Back 29

A528. Staph Aureus

Front 30

Q529. What diagnostic test do you order in a patient who has a posterior knee dislocation?

Back 30

A529. Angiogram

Front 31

Q530. What are the MC Hip problems in the following ages:; 1. Newborn; 2. Toddler; (also diagnostic test); 3. 6 - 9 yo; 4. 9 - 14 yo

Back 31

A530. Newborn = Congenital Hip Dysplasia; Toddler = Septic Hip; (Tx: Aspiration under anesthesia); 6 - 9 yo = Avascular Necrosis; 9 - 14 yo = Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

Front 32

Q531. MC place of an Intracerebral hemorrhage? Cause?

Back 32

A531. Basal Ganglia (due to HTN)

Front 33

Q532. A patient is found on the side of the road with bruising of the head, increased BP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities. Dx?

Back 33

A532. Increased Intracranial Pressure; (do not treat HTN initially…it is body’s way of trying to increase cerebral perfusion)

Front 34

Q533. What is the usual cause of sudden deafness?

Back 34

A533. Viral; (mumps, measles, chickenpox, influenza, or adenovirus)

Front 35

Q534. MCC of acquired hearing loss in children?

Back 35

A534. Bacterial Meningitis

Front 36

Q535. A child has a fever and has a lateral neck mass. Dx?

Back 36

A535. Branchial Cleft cyst

Front 37

Q536. A child has a midline neck mass and it elevates with tongue protrusion. Dx?

Back 37

A536. Thyroglossal Duct cyst

Front 38

Q537. (3) MCC of Otitis Media. Tx?

Back 38

A537. Strep Pneumonia, H. Influenza, Moraxella;; Tx: Amoxicillin

Front 39

Q538. A child has inflammation of the tympanic membrane which has vesicles on its surface. Dx?; Tx?

Back 39

A538. Dx: Infectious Myringitis (inflammation of TM); Tx: Erythromycin or Clarithromycin

Front 40

Q539. A patient presents with hearing loss on the right side. A Weber test for hearing loss is performed and a tuning fork is placed on the head. What would signal a Conductive problem?; Sensorineural problem?

Back 40

A539. Conductive: Sound is heard louder in affected ear (right); Sensorineural: Sound is hear louder in unaffected ear (left)

Front 41

Q540. A patient presents with hearing loss on the right side. A Rinne test for hearing loss is performed and a tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process. It stays there until the patient can’t hear it anymore, then it is placed by the same ear. What would signal a Conductive problem?; Sensorineural problem?

Back 41

A540. Conductive: Cannot hear the continuing sound of the fork when placed next to the ear;; Sensorineural: Can hear the continuing sound of the fork when placed next to the ear.

Front 42

Q541. A male patient complains of transient pain in the buttocks, buttock atrophy and impotence. What is the problem?; Tx?

Back 42

A541. Aortoiliac Occlusive Dz; (Leriche’s syndrome); Tx: Aortoiliac bypass graft

Front 43

Q542. A patient presents with sudden onset of unilateral blindness like “a shade is pulled over his eye”; Dx?; Diagnostic test?; Tx? (2 possible)

Back 43

A542. Dx: TIA secondary to Carotid Stenosis; Diagnostic test: Ultrasound of Carotid; Tx:; if >70% stenosis: Carotidendarterectomy;; If <70% stenosis: daily Aspirin

Front 44

Q543. A patient presents with abdominal tenderness, bloody diarrhea and “thumbprinting” on abdominal x-ray. Dx?

Back 44

A543. Acute Bowel Infarction

Front 45

Q544. A patient presents with a history of varicose veins and has localized leg pain with cord-like induration, reddish discoloration and mild fever. Dx?; Tx?

Back 45

A544. Dx: Thrombophlebitis; Tx: NSAIDs and warm compresses

Front 46

Q545. A patient presents with syncope, vertigo, confusion and upper extremity claudication during exercise. Dx?

Back 46

A545. Subclavian Steal Syndrome; (left subclavian artery obstruction proximal to vertebral artery)

Front 47

Q546. A patient presents with upper extremity paresthesias, weakness, cold temperature, edema and venous distention. Dx?

Back 47

A546. Cervical rib; (compromising subclavian vessel blood flow; no neuro problems help distinguish it from SSS)

Front 48

Q547. What (2) Dx cause Uric Acid kidney stones?

Back 48

A547. Gout or Leukemia

Front 49

Q548. What causes a Struvite renal stone?

Back 49

A548. UTI

Front 50

Q549. What are the (2) biggest concerns with electrical burns?

Back 50

A549. Cardiac Arrhythmias;; Renal Failure; (from muscle necroisis leading to myoglobinuria and acidosis; maintaining high urine output with fluids helps prevent this)

Front 51

Q550. What is the classic cardiac sign with Hypothermia?

Back 51

A550. J-wave; (a small positive deflection following QRS complex)

Front 52

Q551. If a patient with hyperthermia begins to have convulsions, what do you do?

Back 52

A551. Give Diazepam

Front 53

Q552. Where are the MEN-1 tumors located?

Back 53

A552. All start with “P”:; Pituitary,; Pancreas,; Parathyroid

Front 54

Q553. What are the tumors in MEN-2 vs MEN-3?

Back 54

A553. MEN-2 (MPP):; Medullary Thyroid CA,; Pheochromocytoma,; Parathyroid;; MEN-3 (MPM):; Medullary Thyroid CA,; Pheochromocytoma,; Mucosal Neuromas

Front 55

Q554. What is the difference b/t Mallory-Weiss syndrome and Boerhaave syndrome on exam?

Back 55

A554. Boerhaave syndrome presents with mediastinal emphysema

Front 56

Q555. What is the type of esophageal divertivcula most commonly requiring surgery?; Where is it located?

Back 56

A555. Zenker’s diverticulum; location: Pharyngoesophageal area

Front 57

Q556. A 52-yo woman presents due to 3 months of early satiety, weight loss and non-bilious vomiting. Dx?

Back 57

A556. Gastric Outlet Obstruction

Front 58

Q557. A 25-yo develops weight loss, night sweats and a fistula draining from his RLQ s/p appendectomy. Dx?; Tx?

Back 58

A557. Dx: Post-op Actinomycosis infection; Tx: Penicillin (or Tetracycline)

Front 59

Q558. A 70-yo man with a History of HTN develops cramping lower abdominal pain 2 days s/p AAA repair. A few hours later he develops bloody diarrhea. Dx?

Back 59

A558. Ischemic Colitis; (suspected and time patient develops acute abdominal pain followed by rectal bleeding and is common post AAA)

Front 60

Q559. Which is massive lower GI bleeding more common with: Diverticulosis or Diverticulitis?; Tx for each?

Back 60

A559. Diverticulosis; Tx: high fiber diet, stool softeners; (Diverticulitis Tx is Antibiotics, analgesics and clear liquid diet if mild; resection if severe)

Front 61

Q560. What is Jaundice without scelral icterus or increased bilirubin?; Cause?

Back 61

A560. Pseudojaundice; Caused by increased ingestion of foods rich in beta- carotene

Front 62

Q561. What liver tumor is treated by cessation of OCPs?; What is this patient at risk for if she wants a large family?

Back 62

A561. Hepatocellular Adenomas;; Risk: if treated by cessation of OCP rather then tumor resection, she is at risk for rupture and hemorrhage during future pregnancies

Front 63

Q562. MC clinical finding in Portal HTN

Back 63

A562. Splenomegaly

Front 64

Q563. MCC of Portal HTN inside the USA?; Outside the USA?

Back 64

A563. In USA: Alcoholism; Outside USA: Schistosomiasis

Front 65

Q564. Aside from US, what is the diagnostic test of Acute Cholecystitis?

Back 65

A564. HIDA scan; (if the GB is not seen within 1 hour post Technetium injection, it is diagnostic for acute cholecystitis)

Front 66

Q565. What is the Dx of an ERCP that shows “beads on a string” in the bile ducts? Tx? (2 depending on severity and place)

Back 66

A565. Dx: Sclerosing Cholangitis;; Tx:; 1. Pallitive Tx: Balloon dilation with stent placement;; 2. Extrahepatic stricture: Removal of ducts with T-tube placement;; Intrahepatic stricture: Liver Transplant

Front 67

Q566. Dx: Anti-mitochondrial Ab

Back 67

A566. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

Front 68

Q567. Dx: Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Ab

Back 68

A567. Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

Front 69

Q568. A 32-yo male who underwent a laparotomy for a GSW to the abdomen 2 days ago is found to have a tender belly without rebound and is leaning forward on his stretcher breathing at a rate of 28/min. Dx?

Back 69

A568. Pancreatitis; (Tachypnea is one of the presenting signs)

Front 70

Q569. When is the only time a Direct inguinal hernia is more common?

Back 70

A569. In patients > 50yo

Front 71

Q570. What are the boundaries of Hesselbach’s Triangle?

Back 71

A570. Inferior border: Inguinal Ligament; Medial border: Rectus Abdominis; Lateral border: Inferior Epigastric vessels

Front 72

Q571. How is each type of Hiatal Hernia corrected?

Back 72

A571. Sliding: usu Antacids and head elevation; (15% require a Nissen Fundoplication); Paraexophageal: Surgery

Front 73

Q572. After an URI a child presents with a painless, soft mobile mass in the neck that transilluminates. Dx?; Diagnostic test?; Tx?

Back 73

A572. Dx: Cystic Hygroma; Diagnostic test: CT scan; Tx: Surgical excision

Front 74

Q573. MC congenital lung lesion

Back 74

A573. Lobar Emphysema; (presents with mediastinal shift)

Front 75

Q574. How can you tell the difference b/t Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia or Congenital Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation?

Back 75

A574. Placement of the NG tip:; In Thorax: CDH; In Abdomen: CCAM

Front 76

Q575. A premature infant born at 33 weeks gestation now at 1 week of age has developed feeding intolerance, is febrile, and has hematochezia and a distended belly. Dx?

Back 76

A575. Necrotizing Enterocolitis; (presents in premature births and is similar to sepsis with feeding intolerance, apneic spells, bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain)

Front 77

Q576. What is the order of structures transversed with the spinal anesthesia after the Sub-Q layer? (6)

Back 77

A576. SILEDS:; Supraspinous ligament,; Interspinous ligament,; Ligamentum flavum,; Epidural space,; Dura mater,; Subarachnoid space

Front 78

Q577. What (2) serological markers are monitored for Pineal tumors?

Back 78

A577. AFP and beta-HCG

Front 79

Q578. A kidney transplant recipient is seen in the ER for nausea and abdominal pain, fever and elevated creatinine. Dx?; Diagnostic test?; Tx?

Back 79

A578. Dx: Acute Rejection; Diagnostic test: Ultrasound-guided Biopsy; Tx: Pulse Steroid treatment (or OKT3) is 90% effective

Front 80

Q579. MC infection after Pancreas transplant

Back 80

A579. UTI

Front 81

Q580. MC post-transplant problem in a Pancreas transplant?; Tx?

Back 81

A580. Post-op Metabolic Acidosis; (due to excessive loss of bicarb in urine); Tx: Oral replacement

Front 82

Q581. A 53-yo woman who is s/p liver transplant calls you asking what she can take for some musculoskeletal pain. Dx?; What can you give her?

Back 82

A581. Dx: AE of Tacrolimus meds; (can ultimately lead to renal failure); Give her Acetaminophen; (new liver will be able to tolerate it)

Front 83

Q582. MC infection post heart transplant?; Tx?

Back 83

A582. CMV (a trigger for graft-related atherosclerosis); Tx: Ganciclovir

Front 84

Q583. How will a flexor tendon injury of the hand present?

Back 84

A583. With a Straight finger; (due to unapposed Extensors)

Front 85

Q584. A patient is in the hospital with pneumonia and a lung abscess. His morning labs show low sodium, chloride and serum osmolarity with an increased urine osmolarity. Dx?; Tx?

Back 85

A584. Dx: SIADH; Tx: Water Restriction (and treat primary cause)

Front 86

Q585. what is a decrease in the release of ADH called?; Tx?

Back 86

A585. Diabetes Insipidus (Decreased = Diabetes); Tx: Vasopressin

Front 87

Q586. `What test should be performed before inserting an Arterial Line or obtaining a blood gas?; Describe

Back 87

A586. Allen Test; (measures adequate collateral blood flow to hand via the ulnar artery. Patient makes fist, then both ulnar and radial artery are occluded; patient then opens blanched hand. The ulnar artery is released and if the patient has a strong blush to the hand, the ulnar artery is adequate)

Front 88

Q587. A post-operative patient has a new onset of CHF, dyspnea and a dysrhythmia. Dx?; Tx?

Back 88

A587. Myocardial Infarct; (often post-op they don't present with chest pain); Tx: Be MONA (no heparin): Beta blocker; Morphine; Oxygen; Nitrates; Aspirin

Front 89

Q588. What is FENa? Equation?

Back 89

A588. Fractional Excretion of Na (sodium); Equation: YOU NEED PEE; (Una x Pcr)/(Pna x Ucr) x 100

Front 90

Q589. What is the value for a Pre-Renal FENA vs a Renal FENA?

Back 90

A589. Pre-Renal: < 1; Renal: > 1

Front 91

Q590. What is a common anesthesia used for children and burn victims?

Back 91

A590. Ketamine

Front 92

Q591. What are the contraindications for the depolarizing agent Succinylcholine? (4); Why?

Back 92

A591. Patients with:; Burns,; Increased ICP,; Neuromuscular Dz,; Eye trauma; Reason: causes Hyperkalemia (and increased intraocular pressure)

Front 93

Q592. What is the Tx of life-threatening respiratory depression with morphine or Demerol?

Back 93

A592. Narcan (Naloxone)

Front 94

Q593. Main side effect of epidural anesthesia?

Back 94

A593. Orthostatic Hypotension

Front 95

Q594. Main side effect of Spinal anesthesia?

Back 95

A594. Urinary retention

Front 96

Q595. Which hernia type involves only one side wall of the bowel?

Back 96

A595. Richter hernia

Front 97

Q596. Which hernia sac exists as both a direct and indirect hernia?

Back 97

A596. Pantaloon hernia (like pant legs)

Front 98

Q597. in a trauma patient if oral and nasal endotrachial intubation is contraindicated, what is the best way to get an airway?

Back 98

A597. Cricothyroidotomy; (not tracheostomy...that is only in OR)

Front 99

Q598. What is the Glascow Coma Score for Eye opening?

Back 99

A598. Eye opening ("four eyes"):; 4: Opens spontaneously; 3: Opens to Voice; 2: Opens to Pain; 1: Does Not open

Front 100

Q599. What is the Glascow Coma Score for Motor response?

Back 100

A599. Motor response ("6-cylinder motor"):; 6: Obeys Commands; 5: Localizes Pain stimulus; 4: Withdrawls from pain; 3: Decorticate Posture; 2: Decerebrate posture; 1: No movement

Front 101

Q600. What is the Glascow Coma Score for Verbal response?

Back 101

A600. Verbal response ("Jackson 5"):; 5: Appropriate and oriented; 4: Confused; 3: Inappropriate words; 2: Incomprehensible sounds; 1: No sounds