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456 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Q001. Down syndrome is associated with:
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A001. ALL
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Q002. Xeroderma pigmentosum, albinism is associated with:
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A002. Melanoma and basal; squamous cell carcinoma
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Q003. chronic atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia, postsrurg gastric remnants is associated with:
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A003. gastric adenocarcinoma
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Q004. tuberous sclerosis (facial angiofibroma, seizures, MR) is associated with:
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A004. astrocytoma; cardiac rhabdomyoma
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Q005. Actinic keratosis is associated with:
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A005. Squamous cell carcinoma
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Q006. barretts esophagus is associated with:
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A006. esophageal adenocarcinoma
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Q007. Plummer Vinson sydrome (atrophic glossitis, esophageal webs, anemia, all due to Fe def) is associated with:
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A007. squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus
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Q008. cirrhosis (alcoholic, hep B or C) is associated with:
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A008. hepatocellular carcinoma
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Q009. ulcerative colitis (Crohns) is associated with:
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A009. colonic adenocarcinoma
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Q010. Pagets disease of bone is associated with:
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A010. secondary osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma
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Q011. Immunodef states is associated with:
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A011. malignant lymphomas
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Q012. AIDS is associated with:
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A012. aggressive malignant lyphomas (NHL) and Kaposis
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Q013. AI disease (Hashimotos, MG) is associated with:
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A013. benign and malignant thymomas
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Q014. Acanthosis nigricans (hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening) is associated with:
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A014. visceral malignancy
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Q015. dysplastic nevus is associated with:
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A015. malignant melanoma
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Q016. achalasia is associated with:
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A016. squamous esophageal carcinoma
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Q017. sjogrens is associated with:
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A017. B cell lymphoma
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Q018. abl gene is associated with:
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A018. CML
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Q019. c-myc gene is associated with:
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A019. Burkitts lymphoma
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Q020. bcl-2 is associated with:
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A020. follicular and undifferentiated lymphoma
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Q021. erb-B2 is associated with:
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A021. breast, ovarian, gastric carcinoma
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Q022. ras is associated with:
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A022. colon carcinoma
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Q023. L-myc is associated with:
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A023. lung tumor
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Q024. N-myc is associated with:
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A024. neuroblastoma
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Q025. ret is associated with:
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A025. MEN II and III
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Q026. Rb is associated with:
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A026. retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma
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Q027. BRCA 1 and 2 is associated with:
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A027. breast and ovarian cancer
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Q028. p53 is associated with:
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A028. most human cancers, Li Fraumeni syndrome
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Q029. p16 is associated with:
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A029. melanoma
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Q030. APC is associated with:
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A030. colorectal cancer
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Q031. WT1 is associated with:
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A031. wilms tumor
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Q032. NF1 is associated with:
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A032. neurofibromatosis 1
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Q033. NF2 is associated with:
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A033. neurofibromatosis 2
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Q034. DPC is associated with:
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A034. pancreatic cancer
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Q035. DCC is associated with:
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A035. colon cancer
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Q036. PSA is the blood marker of:
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A036. prostate cancer; used for screening but increased with any prostate pathology
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Q037. CEA is the blood marker of:
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A037. carcinoembryonic antigen- colorectal, pancreatic, gastric, breast
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Q038. AFP is the blood marker of:
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A038. hepatocellular carcinoma, yolk sac tumor (germ cell tumor of testis)
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Q039. B HCG is the blood marker of:
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A039. hydatiform moles,; choriocarcinoma,; gestational trophoblastic tumor
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Q040. CA-125 is the blood marker of:
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A040. ovarian, malignant epithelial tumors
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Q041. S-100 is the blood marker of:
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A041. melanoma,; neural tumors,; astrocytomas
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Q042. Alk phos is the blood marker of:
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A042. metastasis to bone,; obstructive biliary disease,; Pagets
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Q043. bombesin is the blood marker of:
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A043. neuroblastoma,; lung and gastric cancer
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Q044. TRAP is the blood marker of:
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A044. hairy cell leukemia
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Q045. CA-19-9 is the blood marker of:
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A045. pancreatic adenocarcinoma
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Q046. MTX mechanism
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A046. folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in decreased DNA and protein synthesis
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Q047. clinical use MTX
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A047. leukemias,; lymphomas,; choriocarcinoma,; sarcomas,; abortions, ectopic pregnancy,; RA,; psoriasis
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Q048. MTX tox
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A048. myelosuppression reversible with leucovorin (folinic acid),; macrovesicular fatty change in liver,; neural tube defects,; lung problems
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Q049. 5FU mechanism
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A049. pyrimidine analog inhibits thymidylate synthase
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Q050. 5FU use
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A050. colon cancer and other solid tumors,; basal cell carcinoma,; synergy with MTX (actinic keratoses); similar to flucytosine
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Q051. 5FU tox
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A051. myelosuppression which is not reversible with leucovorin, photosensitivity;; rescue with thymidine
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Q052. 6MP mechanism
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A052. blocks de novo purine synthesis by inhibiting PRPP synthetase,; activated by HGPRTase
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Q053. 6MP use
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A053. leukemias,; lymphomas
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Q054. 6MP toxicity
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A054. bone marrow, GI, liver; metabolized by xanthine ox so increased tox with allopurinol
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Q055. ara-C
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A055. inhibits DNA polymerase (just like acyclovir, foscarnet, and rifampin); used in AML; toxicity: leukopenia, TCP, megalo anemia
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Q056. cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide
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A056. alkylating agent- x link interstrand DNA, requires bioactivation by liver; used for NHL, breast/ovarian carcinoma, immunosupressant; toxicity: myelosuppression, hemorrhagic cystitis
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Q057. nitrosureas
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A057. "Mustines"; alkylate DNA, require bioactivation; cross BBB - use for brain cancers; toxicity: CNS problems
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Q058. cisplatin, carboplatin
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A058. alkylating agent; used for testicular, bladder, ovary and lung cancer; toxicity: nephrotoxic and acoustic nerve damage
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Q059. busulfan
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A059. alkylates DNA, used in CML, toxicity: pulm fibrosis, hyperpigmentation
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Q060. doxorubicin, daunorubicin mechanism
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A060. generate free radicals and noncovalent intercalate DNA (creating breaks in DNA); used for hodkins, myelomas, sarcomas, and solid tumors
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Q061. doxorubin and daunorubicin toxicity
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A061. cardiotoxicity
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Q062. dactinomycin
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A062. intercalates DNA; use: Wilms tumor, Ewings sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma; toxicity: myelosuppression
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Q063. bleomycin
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A063. induces formation of free radicals which cause breaks in DNA strands; used for testicular cancer, lymphomas; toxicity: pulmonary fibrosis, skin changes
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Q064. etoposide
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A064. inhibits topoisomerase II and increases DNA degradation; used in small cell carcinoma of lung, prostate and testicular carcinoma
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Q065. prednisone tox
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A065. Cushing like symtoms, immunosuppression, cataracts, acne, osteoporosis, hypertension, peptic ulcers, hyperglycemia, psychosis
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Q066. predisone use
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A066. CLL, Hodgkins lymphoma, AI disease
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Q067. tamoxifen, raloxifene
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A067. receptor antagonists in breast, agonists in bone; block binding of estrogen to estrogen receptor positive cells; use: breast cancer
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Q068. SERM toxicity
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A068. may increase risk of endomitrial carcinoma, hot flashes; raloxifene will not cause endomitral carcinoma because it is an antagonist at the uterus; can be used in breast cancer prevention
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Q069. trastuzumab
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A069. helps kill breast cancer cells that overexpress HER2, cardiotoxic
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Q070. Imatinib
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A070. philadelphia chromosome brc-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor; CML, GI stromal tumors
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Q071. paclitaxel, taxols
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A071. bind to tubulin and hyperstabilize polymerized microtubules so that mitotic spindle cannot break down; used in ovarian and breast carcinoma
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Q072. vincristine, vinblastine
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A072. bind to tubulin and block polymerization of MT so that mitotic spindle cannot form; used for lymphoma, Wilms, choriocarcinoma; vincristine- neurotox, paralytic ileus; vinblastine- blasts bone marrow (suppression)
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Q073. What age patients most commonly get ALL
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A073. Children. Peak age is 3-5 year olds.
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Q074. Trigger words for ALL
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A074. Pancytopenia (bleeding, fever, anemia),; radiation therapy,; Down syndrome
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Q075. What age patients usually get AML?
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A075. >30 year olds
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Q076. Trigger words for AML
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A076. Pancytopenia (bleeding, fever, anemia),; Auer rods,; DIC
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Q077. What age patients usually get CML?
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A077. 30-50 year olds
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Q078. Trigger words for CML?
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A078. White blood cell count >50,000,; Philadelphia chromosome,; blast crisis,; splenomegaly.
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Q079. What age patient usually get CLL?
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A079. >50 year olds
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Q080. Trigger words for CLL?
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A080. Male sex,; lymphadenopathy,; lymphocytosis,; infections,; smudge cells,; splenomegaly
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Q081. What age patient usually get hairy cell leukemia?
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A081. Adults
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Q082. Trigger words for Hairy cell leukemia?
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A082. Hair-like projections, splenomegaly
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Q083. What age patients usually get Mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome?
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A083. >50 year olds
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Q084. Trigger words for mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome
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A084. plaque-like, itchy skin rash that does not improve with treatment,; blood smear (cerebriform nuclei known as "butt cells"),; Pautrier's abscesses in epidermis.
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Q085. What are "butt cells"
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A085. cells with cerebriform nuclei found in mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome
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Q086. Define Pautrier's abscesses
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A086. Microabscesses found in the epidermis in patients with mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome.
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Q087. What age patients usually get Burkitt's lymphoma?
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A087. Children
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Q088. What virus is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma?
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A088. Epstein-Barr virus (in Africa)
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Q089. What age patients usually get CNS B cell lymphoma?
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A089. Adults
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Q090. Trigger words for CNS B cell lymphoma
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A090. HIV positive patients, AIDS
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Q091. What age patients usually get Hodgkin's disease?
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A091. 15-34 year olds
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Q092. Trigger words for Hodgkin's disease?
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A092. Reed-Sternberg cells, cervical lymphadenopathy, night sweats
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Q093. What age patients usually get T cell leukemia?
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A093. Adults
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Q094. What virus causes T cell leukemia?
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A094. HTLV-1
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Q095. Which type of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma has best prognosis?
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A095. Small follicular type
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Q096. What type of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma has worst prognosis?
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A096. large diffuse type
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Q097. What percent of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is found in GI tract?
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A097. 0.2
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Q098. What age patients usually get myelodyplasia/myelofibrosis?
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A098. >50 year olds
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Q099. trigger words for myelodysplasia/myelofibrosis?
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A099. Anemia,; teardrop cells,; "dry tap" on bone marrow biopsy,; high MCV and RDW,; associated with CML
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Q100. What leukemia is associated with myelofibrosis/myelodysplasia?
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A100. CML
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Q101. What age patients usually get multiple myeloma?
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A101. >40 year olds
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Q102. Trigger words for multiple myeloma
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A102. Bence-Jones proteins,; osteolytic lesions,; high calcium
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Q103. What type of antibodies are Bence-Jones proteins?
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A103. 50% are IgG, 25% are IgA
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Q104. What age patients usually get Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia?
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A104. > 40 year olds
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Q105. Trigger words for Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
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A105. hyperviscosity,; IgM spike,; cold agglutinins,; Raynaud's phenomenon with cold
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Q106. Which cancer is associated with Down Syndrome?
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A106. ALL
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Q107. What age patients usually get Polycythemia rubra vera?
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A107. >40 year olds
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Q108. Trigger words for polycythemia rubra vera
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A108. high hematocrit,; pruritus (esp after shower)
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Q109. Treatment for polycythemia rubra vera
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A109. phlebotomy
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Q110. What age patients usually get primary thrombocythemia?
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A110. >50 year olds
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Q111. what is the platelet count usually in primary thrombocythemia?
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A111. >1,000,000
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Q112. Si/Sx of primary thrombocythemia
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A112. may have bleeding or thrombosis
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Q113. Which blood dyscrasia is assoc with cold agglutinins?
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A113. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
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Q114. What are the three cancers with the highest incidence in men? (list in order)
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A114. 1. Prostate; 2. Lung; 3. Colon
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Q115. What are the three cancers with the highest incidence in women? (list in order)
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A115. 1. Breast; 2. Lung; 3. Colon
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Q116. What are the three cancers with the highest mortality in men? (list in order)
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A116. 1. Lung; 2. Prostate; 3. Colon
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Q117. What are the three cancers with the highest mortality in women? (list in order)
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A117. 1. Lung; 2. Breast; 3. Colon
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Q118. What are the most common types of cancer in children and young adults (<30 years)?
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A118. Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Q119. What is the major risk factor for cancer?
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A119. Age (incidence roughly doubles every 5 years after 25 years of age)
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Q120. What is the major modifiable risk factor for cancer?
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A120. Smoking
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Q121. What is the most common cancer in most organs?
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A121. Metastatic cancer
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Q122. Metastatic cancer to the spine can cause spinal cord compression. How do you recognize and treat this medical emergency?
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A122. Spinal cord compression causes local spinal pain and neuro si/sx (reflex changes, weakness, sensory loss, paralysis). It's rarely the first sign of malignancy. First step--start high dose corticosteroids, then order an MRI. Next, treat with radiation. Surgical decompression is used if radiation doesn't help or if the tumor is known to not be radiosensitive. Prompt intervention is essential. Outcome is closely related to pretreatment function.
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Q123. Mode of inheritance of retinoblastoma?
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A123. Autosomal dominant
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Q124. Mode of inheritance of MEN syndromes?
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A124. Autosomal dominant
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Q125. Mode of inheritance of Familial polyposis coli?
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A125. Autosomal dominant
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Q126. Mode of inheritance of Gardner's syndrome
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A126. Autosomal dominant
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Q127. Mode of inheritance of Turcot's syndrome
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A127. Autosomal dominant
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Q128. Mode of inheritance of Peutz-Jegher's syndrome?
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A128. Autosomal dominant
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Q129. What is the mode of inheritance of Neurofibromatosis type 1?
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A129. Autosomal dominant
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Q130. What is the mode of inheritance of neurofibromatosis type 2?
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A130. Autosomal dominant
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Q131. What is the mode of inheritance of tuberous sclerosis?
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A131. Autosomal dominant
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Q132. What is the mode of inheritance of von-hippel-lindau disease?
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A132. Autosomal dominant
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Q133. What is the mode of inheritance of xeroderma pigmentosa?
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A133. Autosomal recessive
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Q134. What is the mode of inheritance of albinism?
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A134. Autosomal recessive
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Q135. What is the mode of inheritance of down syndrome?
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A135. Trisomy 21, most commonly caused by maternal non- disjunction
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Q136. Type of cancer assoc with retinoblastoma?
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A136. retinoblastoma, osteogenic sarcoma later in life
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Q137. Type of cancer assoc with MEN type 1
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A137. Parathyroid adenoma, pituitary adenoma, pancreatic islet cell tumors
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Q138. Type of cancer assoc with MEN type 2A?
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A138. Parathyroid adenoma, Pheochromocytoma, Medullary thyroid cancer
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Q139. Type of cancer assoc with MEN type 2B?
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A139. Medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas
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Q140. Type of cancer assoc with familial polyposis coli?
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A140. Colon cancer (these polyps always turn into cancer)
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Q141. Type of cancer assoc with Gardner's syndrome?
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A141. familial polyposis, osteomas, soft tissue tumors
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Q142. Type of cancer assoc with Turcot's syndrome?
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A142. familial polyposis, CNS tumors
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Q143. Type of cancer assoc with peutz-jeghers syndrome?
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A143. increased incidence of non-colon cancer (stomach, breast, ovaries), although they have GI polyps, they don't have increase incidence of colon cancer
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Q144. Type of tumors assoc with neurofibromatosis type 1?
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A144. multiple neurofibromas,; increased incidence of pheochromocytomas,; bone cysts,; Wilm's tumors,; leukemia
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Q145. Type of tumors assoc with neurofibromatosis type 2?
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A145. bilateral acoustic neuromas
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Q146. Type of tumors assoc with tuberous sclerosis?
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A146. adenoma sebaceum,; glial nodules in the brain,; renal angiomyolipomas,; cardiac rhabdomyosarcomas
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Q147. Type of tumors assoc with von-hippel-lindau?
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A147. hemangioblastomas in cerebellum,; renal cell cancer,; cysts in liver and kidney
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Q148. Type of tumors assoc with xerderma pigmentosa?
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A148. skin cancer
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Q149. Type of tumors assoc with albinism?
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A149. skin cancer
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Q150. Type of cancer associated with Down Syndrome?
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A150. ALL
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Q151. What risk factors are associated with lung cancer?
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A151. smoking, asbestos; (also nickel, radon, coal, arsenic, chromium, uranium)
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Q152. What risk factors are associated with mesothelioma?
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A152. asbestos
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Q153. What risk factors are associated with leukemia?
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A153. chemotherapy/radiotherapy,; other immunosuppressive drugs,; benzene
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Q154. What risk factors are associated with bladder cancer?
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A154. Smoking,; aniline dye,; schistosomiasis
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Q155. What risk factors are associated with skin cancer?
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A155. UV light,; coal tar,; arsenic
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Q156. What risk factors are associated with liver cancer?
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A156. alcohol,; vinyl chloride,; aflatoxins
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Q157. What risk factors are associated with cancer of the oral cavity?
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A157. smoking, alcohol
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Q158. What risk factors are associated with pharyngeal/laryngeal cancer?
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A158. smoking, alcohol
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Q159. What risk factors are associated with esophageal cancer?
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A159. smoking, alcohol
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Q160. What risk factors are associated with pancreatic cancer?
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A160. Smoking
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Q161. What risk factors are associated with renal cell cancer?
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A161. smoking
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Q162. What risk factors are associated with stomach cancer?
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A162. alcohol, nitrosamines/nitrites,
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Q163. What risk factors are associated with clear cell cancer?
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A163. in utero exposure to DES (diethylstilbestrol)
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Q164. What risk factors are associated with colon/rectal cancer?
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A164. Age (peak in 60-75),; family history,; inflammatory bowel disease (UC > crohn's,; high fat and low fiber diet
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Q165. What risk factors are associated with breast cancer?
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A165. Personal hx of breast cancer,; family history in 1st degree relativek age >40,; early menarche,; late menopause,; late first pregnancy,; nulliparity,; atypical hyperplasia of the breast,; radiation exposure before age 30,; prolong use of OCP (possibly),; high fat and low fiber diet
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Q166. What risk factors are associated with cervical cancer?
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A166. HPV,; age less than 20 at first coitus,; multiple sexual partners,; smoking,; high parity (protects against endometrial and breast),; coitus with promiscuous partner,; low SES
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Q167. What risk factors are associated with thyroid cancer?
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A167. childhood neck or chest irradiation
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Q168. What risk factors are associated with endometrial cancer?
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A168. unopposed estrogen stimulation,; obesity,; nulliparity,; late menopause,; diabetes,; HTN,; PCOS,; estrogen secreting neoplasm (granulosa/theca cell)
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Q169. What risk factors are associated with all cancers overall?
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A169. smoking (number two is alcohol)
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Q170. What clinical vignette should make you suspect lung cancer?
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A170. a change in the chronic cough of a smoker, high pack years of smoker, also hemoptysis, pneumonia, and weight loss. Chest x-ray may show a mass or pleural effusion. Put a needle in this fluid to examine cells.
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Q171. How do you diagnose and treat lung cancer?
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A171. As with all cancer, you need a tissue biopsy (via bronchoscopy, CT guided biopsy, open lung biopsy) to confirm malignancy and to determine histiologic type. Non small cell lung cancer can be treated with surgery if the cancer remains in the lung parenchyma (without involvement of the opposite lung, pleura, chest wall, spine, or mediastinal structures). Early metastases of small cell lung cancer make surgery innapropriate. Both can be treated with chemotherapy with or without radiation. Usually a platinum containing chemo regimen is used (cisplatin).
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Q172. What can result from an apical (Pancoast) lung cancer?
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A172. Horner's syndrome--from invasion and cervical sympathetic chain. Look for unilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis; Superior vena cava syndrome--compression causes impaired venous drainage. Look for edema and redness of neck and face and CNS sx like HA, visual sx, altered MS. Unilateral diaphragm paralysis--from phrenic nerve involvement; Hoarseness--from recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement
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Q173. Define paraneoplastic syndrome
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A173. condition caused by a malignancy but not due directly to destruction or invasion by the tumor
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Q174. What types of paraneoplastic syndromes can be caused by small cell lung cancer?
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A174. Cushing's syndrome--from ACTH; SIADH--ADH; Eaton-Lambert syndrome
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Q175. Define Eaton-Lambert syndrome
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A175. Myasthenia gravis-like disease that spares occular muscles. Muscles become stronger with repeated stimulation.
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Q176. What types of paraneoplastic syndromes can be caused by squamous cell lung cancer?
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A176. hypercalcemia--from parathyroid-like hormone
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Q177. How do you manage a patient with a solitary pulmonary nodule on chest x-ray?
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A177. 1st compare with previous cxr's. If it's the same size for >2 years, it is very unlikely to be a cancer. If no old films are available and the patient is a smoker for more than 5 years or is over 35 years old, get a CT (and possibly a PET). If these are not definitely benign, get a biopsy of the nodule. If the patient is younger than 35 or is a non-smoker, the cause is most likely infection, hamartoma, or collagen vascular disease. The patient should ahve CT and careful observation with follow-up imaging in 3-6 months.
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Q178. How many women in the U.S. will develop breast cancer?
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A178. 1 in 8
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Q179. What classic si/sx indicate that a breast mass is cancer until proven otherwise?
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A179. Fixation of breast mass to the chest wall or overlying skin. Satellite nodules or ulcers on the skin. Lymphedema (peau d'orange); Matted or fixed axillary lymph nodes. Inflammatory skin changes (peau d'orange); Prolonged unilateral scaling erosion of the nipple with or without discharge (may be Paget's disease of the nipple); Microcalcifications on mammography; ANY NEW BREAST MASS IN POSTMENOPAUSAL WOMAN.
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Q180. What is the conservative approach to ensure that you don't miss a breast cancer?
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A180. when in doubt, bx every breast mass in women over 35 that is not clearly a cyst (ultrasound needed), especially if risk factors present. If the step 2 question doesn't want you to biopsy the mass it will give definite cles that the mass is not a cancer (e.g., bilateral lumpy breasts that become symptomatic with every menses and have no dominant mass, patient younger than 30)
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Q181. What should you do with a breast mass in a patient younger than 30?
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A181. Breast cancer is rare here. With a discrete mass, think fibroadenoma. Get ultrasound of the breast and observe the patient over a few menstrual cycles before considering biopsy (unless ultrasound is suspicious).
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Q182. What suggests breast fibroadenoma?
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A182. Round, rubbery, freely movable mass.
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Q183. What suggests fibrocystic changes.
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A183. bilateral lumpy breasts that become symptomatic with every menses and have no dominant mass, patient younger than 30
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Q184. What is the most common histiologic type of breast cancer?
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A184. Invasive ductal carcinoma
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Q185. What is the role of mammography in deciding whether or not to biopsy a breast mass?
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A185. When a palpable breast mass is detected, the decision to biopsy is made on clinical grounds. A mammogram that looks benign should not deter you from biopsy if you're clinically suspicious.
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Q186. True or false--a mmamogram should not be done in women under age 30
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A186. True in most cases. The breast tissue is too dense for current techniques to be of value. Mammograms in women under age 30 are rarely helpful.
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Q187. How does tamoxifen affect breast cancer?
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A187. It improves survival if the breast cancer has estrogen receptors and even more so if the tumor cells also express progesteroen receptors.
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Q188. True or false--mastectomy and breast conserving surgery with radiation are considered equal in efficacy.
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A188. True. In either case, do an axillary node dissection or sentinel node biopsy. If nodes are positive, give chemotherapy.
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Q189. What are the two main risk factors for prostate cancer?
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A189. Age--it's not seen in patients <40 years old. 60% of men older than 80 years have prostate cancer. Race--black>white>asian
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Q190. How do you recognize prostate cancer on step 2?
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A190. Usually older than 50, usually present late, look for sx of BPH with hematuria and/or elevated PSA or acid phosphatase. Because acid phosphatase is only elevated when cancer breaks through the capsule, it has been replaced with PSA. Look for irregularities on rectal exam. Patients may have back pain from vertebral metastases, which are osteoBlastic.
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Q191. How is prostate cancer treated?
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A191. Prostatectomy or local radiation. With metastases, the patient has several options for hormonal therapy: orchiectomy, GRH agonist (leuprolide), androgen receptor antagonist (flutamide), estrogen and others. Radiation therapy is used for local disease or pain from metastases, standard chemo is usually ineffective.
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Q192. How does colon cancer present?
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A192. asymptomatic blood in stool, anemia, change in stool caliber, or frequency, large bowel obstruction, weight loss
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Q193. How do you rule out colon cancer on a patient over 40 with occult blood in stool?
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A193. Do a flexible sigmoidoscopy and barium enema OR total colonoscopy. If you see lesions on flex sig and barium enema, you have to follow up with colonoscopy to remove and examine polyps. This is why most docs start with colonoscopy.
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Q194. How is colon cancer treated?
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A194. Surgery, adjuvant chemo is sometimes given (5-FU and levamisole or leucovorin) for lymph node involvement. Distant metastases frequently go to the liver first. Surgical resection of a liver metastasis is often attempted. With metastases elsewhere, chemo is the only option, and prognosis is poor.
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Q195. What is the tumor marker for colon cancer?
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A195. CEA, if it's elevated before surgery, it should return to normal after surgery and monitored periodically. It is NOT a screening tool.
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Q196. Classic presentation for pancreatic cancer?
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A196. A smoker age 40-80 who has lost weight and is jaundiced. Also, can be depressed, have epigastric pain, migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau's sign), and palpable nontender gallbladder (Courvoisier's). More common in men than women, and in diabetics, and in blacks.
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Q197. Treatment for pancreatic cancer?
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A197. Surgery (Whipple) rarely successful, chemo isn't either.
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Q198. What is the cell of origin of pancreatic cancer?
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A198. ductal epithelium
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Q199. What is the most common islet cell tumor of the pancreas?
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A199. Insulinomas (beta cell tumor).
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Q200. What are the findings with insulinomas?
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A200. Whipple's triad--patient has 2/3 of the triad: hypoglycemia and CNS sx from hypoglycemia. The Doc provides the last 1/3 by giving glucose and relieving sx.
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Q201. Are insulinomas malignant or benign?
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A201. 90% are benign, curable with resection.
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Q202. What test should you order in a patient you think has an insulinoma?
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A202. C-peptide level, to make sure that the patient isn't diabetic and accidentally taking too much insulin or factitious. It will be high in insulinomas and low otherwise.
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Q203. Define Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
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A203. Gastrinoma, caused acid secretion and peptic ulcer disease. Ulcers are resistant to therapy and multiple.
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Q204. Are gastrinomas malignant or benign?
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A204. 50% are malignant
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Q205. What are the findings with glucagonomas?
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A205. alpha cell tumor causes hyperglycemia and migratory necrotizing skin erythema
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Q206. What are the findings with VIPomas?
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A206. watery diarrhea,; hypokalemia,; achlorhydria.
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Q207. How does ovarian cancer typically present?
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A207. usually late presentation,; weight loss,; pelvic mass,; ascites,; and/or bowel obstruction.
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Q208. What test do you order for an ovarian lesion?
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A208. ultrasound
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Q209. How is ovarian cancer treated?
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A209. debulking surgery and chemotherapy.
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Q210. What is the cell of origin in ovarian cancer?
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A210. most are from ovarian epithelium.
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Q211. What is the most common type of ovarian cancer?
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A211. Serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinomas are common too.
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Q212. What is the classic finding on microscope of serous cystadenocarcinoma?
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A212. Psammoma bodies
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Q213. Name three common germ cell tumors
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A213. 1. Teratoma; 2. Sertoli/Leydig cell; 3. Granulosa/theca cell
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Q214. What's the most common germ cell tumor?
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A214. Teratoma
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Q215. Sx of sertoli/leydig cell tumor?
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A215. virilization (hirsutism, receding hairline, deepening voice, clitoromegaly)
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Q216. Sx of granulosa/theca cell tumors?
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A216. feminization, precocious puberty, patients are usually under age 30.
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Q217. What is Meig's syndrome?
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A217. Ovarian fibroma, causes ascites and right hydrothorax.
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Q218. What is a Krukenberg tumor?
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A218. A stomach cancer (or other GI malignancy) with metastases to ovaries.
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Q219. What medicine reduces the risk of ovarian cancer?
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A219. OCPs
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Q220. What is the best test to screen for cervical cancer?
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A220. Pap test, give all females a pap smear if they're due, even if they present for a totally unrelated complaint
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Q221. What do you do if Pap is abnormal?
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A221. Colposcopy, directed biopsies, endocervical curettage. If pap shows microinvasive cancer, proceed to conization. If cancer is frankly invasive, give hysterectomy and/or radiation.
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Q222. Where does cervical cancer begin?
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A222. in the transformation zone,
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Q223. Sx of cervical cancer?
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A223. postcoital bleeding,; intermenstrual spotting,; abnormal menstrual bleeding
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Q224. tx of cervical cancer?
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A224. surgery and/or radiation
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Q225. What do you do for postmenopausal bleeding?
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A225. order an endometrial biopsy,; pap smear,; and endocervical curettage
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Q226. What's the most common type of endometrial cancer?
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A226. adenocarcinomas
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Q227. Tx of endometrial cancer?
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A227. Surgery and radiation
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Q228. What medicine prevents endometrial cancer?
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A228. OCPs
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Q229. How do brain tumors usually present?
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A229. new onset seizures,; neuro deficits,; headache,; blurred vision,; papilledema,; nausea,; projectile vomiting,; in children look for hydrocephalus and ataxia
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Q230. What is the most common histiologic type of brain tumor in children?
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A230. 1. cerebellar astrocytoma (benign pilocytic astrocytoma); 2. medulloblastoma; 3. ependymoma
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Q231. What is the most common histiologic type of brain tumor in adults?
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A231. 1. Glioma (usually astrocytoma); 2. Meningioma
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Q232. Which cancers tend to metastasize to the brain?
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A232. "Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia"; Lung Breast Skin Kidney GI
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Q233. Presentation of pseudotumor cerebri?
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A233. young obese woman with headaches,; papilledema,; vomiting,; negative CT/MRI
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Q234. What causes pseudotumor cerebri?
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A234. increased intracranial pressure (there's no tumor)
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Q235. tx of pseudotumor cerebri?
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A235. weight loss,; repeated lumbar punctures,; CSF shunt may need to be placed to prevent vision loss.
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Q236. sx of craniopharyngioma?
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A236. usually in children,; calcifications of skull radiographs,
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Q237. Risk factors for testicular cancer?
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A237. cryptorchidism,
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Q238. How do you evaluate a testicular mass?
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A238. transilluminationa and ultrasound
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Q239. how do you tell a hydrocele from a testicular cancer?
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A239. hydroceles transilluminate, cancers do not
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Q240. Most common type of testicular cancer?
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A240. seminoma
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Q241. tx for seminoma
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A241. radiation,; highly curable
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Q242. what is a "bunch of grapes" coming out of the vagina
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A242. sarcoma botryoides(embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma) usually seen in children
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Q243. Sx of pituitary tumor?
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A243. bitemporal hemianopsia,; increased ICP,
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Q244. most common type of pituitary tumor?
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A244. prolactinoma
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Q245. sx of prolactinoma?
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A245. galactorrhea,; menstrual or sexual dysfunction
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Q246. What do you order on a patient with bitemporal hemianopsia?
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A246. brain MRI
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Q247. Describe nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
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A247. usually seen in asians,; assoc with Epstein-Barr virus.
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Q248. classic presentation of esophageal cancer?
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A248. smoker,; drinker,; 40-60 years old,; blacks>whites,; weight loss,; anemia,; "my food is sticking," which progresses to dysphagia for liquids,
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Q249. what's the most common type of esophageal cancer?
|
A249. adenocarcinoma--due to malignant degeneration of Barrett's esophagus
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Q250. Define Barrett's esophagus
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A250. columnar metaplasia of esophageal squamous epithelium due to acid reflux
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Q251. What makes you think thyroid cancer?
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A251. single, stony hard nodule or mass in the thyroid gland,; may be rapidly enlarging,; "cold" on nuclear scan,; worrisome findings include hoarseness,; increased calcitonin level,; history of radiation to the neck
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Q252. How do you evaluate a thyroid nodule?
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A252. TSH, then nuclear medicine, then ultrasound, then biopsy. If clinically suspicious, still get a biopsy if all tests are negative.
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Q253. Sx of bladder cancer
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A253. persistent painless hematuria,; older than 40,; smoker,; worker in rubber or dye industry (aniline dye),; history of shistosomiasis
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Q254. How do you evaluate for bladder cancer?
|
A254. CT, or cystoscopy
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Q255. Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma
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A255. alcohol,; chronic hepatitis (C more than B),; hemochromatosis,
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Q256. Tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma?
|
A256. AFP, measured to detect recurrences after surgery and used to screen high risk populations (cirrhotics)
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Q257. Sx of hepatocellular carcinoma?
|
A257. Usually in the presence of cirrhosis,; patients have weight loss, right upper quadrant pain, enlarged liver.
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Q258. tx for hepatocellular carcinoma?
|
A258. Surgery, prognosis is poor.
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Q259. Most common primary tumor of liver?
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A259. Hemangioma
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Q260. tx for liver hemangioma?
|
A260. leave it alone,; only operate if sx (pain, bleeding)
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Q261. what's the liver tumor in patients on birth control?
|
A261. hepatic adenoma,
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Q262. tx for hepatic adenoma?
|
A262. stop OCPs, if tumor doesn't regress, surgery is needed to prevent hemorrhage and the rare malignant transformation.
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Q263. Risk factors for cholangiosarcoma
|
A263. ulcerative colitis,; liver flukes (clonorchis)
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Q264. What's the liver cancer associated with vinyl chloride?
|
A264. Angiosarcoma, these are malignant
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Q265. What's the liver cancer found in children?
|
A265. Hepatoblastoma, these are malignant
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Q266. Sx of stomach cancer?
|
A266. Weight loss,; anemia,; early satiety,; abdominal pain,; nonhealing gastric ulcer
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Q267. workup for gastric ulcer?
|
A267. biopsy all gastric ulcers, follow with barium x-ray to document healing.
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Q268. Define Virchow's node
|
A268. left supraclavicular node enlargement due to the spread of visceral cancer (usually stomach)
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Q269. Where are osteosarcomas usually found?
|
A269. around the knee in children, around long standing Paget's disease or osteomyelitis in adults.
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Q270. Sx of carcinoid tumors?
|
A270. only symptomatic if metastasized to the liver,; sx are flushing, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, right sided heart valve damage
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Q271. where is the most common location for carcinoid tumors?
|
A271. small bowel, but remember that they're the most common tumor found in the appendix
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Q272. what do you order if you're suspicious for carcinoid tumor?
|
A272. 5-HIAA
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Q273. How do you spot a Kaposi's sarcoma?
|
A273. a rash that doesn't respond to multiple treatments in an HIV- positive patient; It's usually on the upper body, and can be in the mouth
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Q274. what virus is associated with Kaposi's sarcoma?
|
A274. human herpesvirus 8
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Q275. Explain ABCD's of melanoma
|
A275. A--Asymmetry; B--Border irregularity; C--Color change or multicolor; D--Diameter increase
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Q276. what do you do for a suspected melanoma?
|
A276. excisional biopsy because of early metastasis
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Q277. how do you evaluate the risk for metastasis in a melanoma?
|
A277. Brewlow depth of invasion
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Q278. how do you spot a basal cell skin cancer?
|
A278. pearly umbilicated nodule with telangiestasias
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Q279. What do you do for all lesions suspicious for skin cancer?
|
A279. excisional biopsy
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Q280. How do you differentiate a wilm's tumor from a neuroblastoma in kids?
|
A280. both a flank masses. Neuroblastomas often contain calcifications,; wilm's rarely calcify.
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Q281. What is the typical appearance of oral cancer?
|
A281. lesions begin as leukoplakia (white patch), or malakoplakia (red patch)
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Q282. What does hairy oral leukoplakia look like?
|
A282. looks like leukoplakia on the sides of the tongue,; affects HIV pts,; assoc with Epstein Barr virus
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Q283. What cytologic clues make you think histiocytosis?
|
A283. CD1 positive cells and Birbeck granules (intracytoplasmic inclusions that look like tennis rackets)
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Q284. Define unicameral bone cyst, where is it usually found?
|
A284. expansile, lytic, well-demarcated benign,; usually in the proximal portion of humerus in children and adolescents
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Q285. Are unicameral bone cysts malignant or benign?
|
A285. benign, but can weaken the bone enough to produce a pathologic fracture.
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Q286. How does retinoblastoma present?
|
A286. usually in a child less than 3 years old,; leukocoria,; unilateral exopthalmos,; can be bilateral in inherited form
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Q287. True or false--all patients with metastatic cancer should be encouraged to receive chemo
|
A287. false,; risks may outweigh benefits
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|
Q288. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker AFP?
|
A288. hepatocellular carcinoma,; yolk-sac tumors
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Q289. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker CEA?
|
A289. colon cancer,; pancreas,; other GI tumors
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Q290. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker PSA?
|
A290. prostate
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Q291. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker acid phosphatase?
|
A291. prostate (if extended through capsule)
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Q292. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker hCG?
|
A292. hydatiform moles, choriocarcinoma
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Q293. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker CA-125?
|
A293. Ovary
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Q294. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker S-100?
|
A294. melanoma
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Q295. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker CA 19- 9?
|
A295. Pancreas; (you better party like it's 19-9-ty nine because you don't have much time left)
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Q296. what cancers are associated with the tumor marker 27-29?
|
A296. Breast
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Q297. What diseases is alpha fetoprotein associated with?
|
A297. AFP is associated wiht the development of:; 1) hepatocellular carcinoma; 2) ovarian cancer; 3) non-seminomatous germ cell tumors
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Q298. When do you answer AFP?
|
A298. Answer AFP when you see a patient with alcoholic cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis B or C. AFP together with radiologic imaging is used to screen for hepatocellular carcinoma.
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|
Q299. What is carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)?
|
A299. CEA is a protein that is elevated in teh serum in a variety of cancers, including colorecttal cancer (CRC).
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Q300. For which disease does CEA have prognostic value?
|
A300. Serum levels of CEA have prognostic value in patients with newly diagnosed CRC. Those with higher levels have a worse prognosis than those with lower levels.
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Q301. When do you answer CEA?
|
A301. Answer CEA level to monitor colon cancer patients after surgical resection. This determines the presence of persistent, recurrent, or metatatic disease.
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Q302. When do you answer CEA as a screening test?
|
A302. CEA levels are never the right answer as a screening test for colon cancer.
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Q303. What is colposcopy?
|
A303. A colposcopy is the direct visualization of the cervix by placing a magnifying scope with a lamp into the vagina.
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Q304. What must be visualized for a sufficient study?
|
A304. The transition zone must be visualized to ensure an adequate colposcopy. This is the border between squamous and columnar epithelium.
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Q305. When is colposcopy the answer?
|
A305. Answer colposcopy when the case describes a patient with an abnormal Pap smear. The following findings on Pap smear necessitate colposcopy:; 1) Atypical squamous cells - cannot exclude high grade lesion (ASC-H); 2) Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL); 3) High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL); 4) Atypical sqamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) if HPV DNA testing is positive.
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Q306. What are estrogen and progesterone receptor tests?
|
A306. Estrogen and progesterone receptors should be done on all patients with breast cancer in order to determine who should receive hormone receptor therapy.
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Q307. What is the therapy for breast cancer?
|
A307. Therapy with either tamoxifen or raloxifene should be added for any patient wiht positive receptors. This is either for estrogen or progesterone positiveity alone or in combination. The response to tamoxifen is better if both receptors are positive.
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Q308. When do you answer mammogram?
|
A308. Screening mammogram should begin at age 40 and should be performed every 1-2 years. Screening after age 50 is yearly.
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Q309. When there is an abnormality what is the next best step?
|
A309. When the mammogram shows abnormalities, a core biopsy including sentinel node biopsy is the next best test. Carcinomas of the breast are associated with clustered polymorphic microcalcifications. Mammography is also used when a breast mass is found on exam to locate additional lesions in the same breast or bilateral disease.
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Q310. When does screening lower mortality the most?
|
A310. Screening lowers mortality most after age 50, and the decrease is greater than that with colonoscopy or Pap smear.
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|
Q311. What is Papanicolaou (Pap) Smear?
|
A311. The Pap smear is a test that examines the cells of the cervix. it is a screening method to find cancerous or precancerous cervical lesions. Pap smear does derease mortality in screened populations.
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|
Q312. When is Pap smear the answer?
|
A312. Pap smear should be started at age 21 or within 3 years of the onset of sexual activity, whichever is earlier. The test should be done every 2-3 years and can be stopped at age 65.
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Q313. If results are positive, what is the next best test?
|
A313. Abnormalities on Pap smear are evaluated with colposcopy in order to biopsy the cervix.
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|
Q314. What is PET Scanning?
|
A314. PET means "positron emission tomography."; The measures teh metabolic activity of a lesion seen on a CT or MRI scan. It is based on the ability of most cancers and some infections to have the increased uptake of 18- fluorodeoxyglucose. It is a noninvasive test of the actual function of a mass lesion, not just its size and location.
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Q315. What makes PET Scanning abnormal?
|
A315. Most cancers and some infections have an increased uptake of the tagged glucose.
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Q316. When is PET Scanning the answer?
|
A316. A PET scan can tell if a lesion, such as a lung mass, that might otherwise look malignant, really is malignant. For instance, if you are shown a case of a localized lung cancer diagnosed wit biopsy, you can use the PET scan to see if there are metastases. If there is a mass in the contralateral chest that is malignant, it makes the patient ineligible for surgery with curative intent. If the PET scn shows a low uptake of the tagged glucose, then the lesion is likely benign and you should proceed wiht the surgery to remove the primary tumor site.
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|
Q317. What is PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)?
|
A317. PSA increases can occur in prostatitis, BPH, prostate cancer, and prostate biopsies. Levels are undetectable after total resection of the prostate.
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|
Q318. When should PSA be done?
|
A318. PSA testing is extremely controversial. There is no evidence that PSA testing lowers mortality when used as a routine screening test. If the question says the patient is requesting teh test, then you should do it.
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|
Q319. What is the most accurate test for prostate cancer?
|
A319. Biopsy of the prostate is the most accurate diagnostic test.
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|
Q320. When test is done next if the PSA is positive?
|
A320. If the PSA is elevated, a digital rectal exam is performed to palpate a lesion. If a lesion is found, it should be biopsied. If no lesion is found, a trans-rectal US should be performed to find a lesion to biopsy. If no lesion can be found, then "blind biopsies" should occur.
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Q321. What is the sentinal node evaluation?
|
A321. The sentinel node biopsy is used in the evaluation of breast cancer.
|
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|
Q322. How si sentinel node evaluation done?
|
A322. A sentinel node biopsy is when dye is introduced into the operative field. The first node it goes to it the "sentinel" node. If it has cancer, you dissect the axilla. If it is negative, you do not need to do an axillary lymph node dissection.
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Q323. When is sentinel ode evaluation the answer?
|
A323. Look for a patient with an abnormal mammogram in whom the biopsy shows cancer. The answer sentinel node biopsy. Sentinel node biopsy is the best test to do after the initial diagnosis of breast cancer has been made with either a needle or excisional biopsy. Sentinel node biopsy can eliminate the need for axillary lymph node dissection.
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Q324. What neoplasms are associated with:; Down's syndrome
|
A324. ALL & AML
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|
Q325. What neoplasms are associated with:; Xeroderma pigmentosum
|
A325. Melanoma, Basal cell carcinoma & Squamous cell carcinoma
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Q326. What neoplasms are associated with:; Chronic gastritis, Pernicious anemia & postsurgical gastric remnants
|
A326. Gastric adenocarcinoma
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Q327. What neoplasms are associated with:; Tuberous Sclerosis
|
A327. Astrocytoma & cardiac rhabdomyoma
|
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Q328. What neoplasms are associated with:; Actinic keratosis
|
A328. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
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Q329. What neoplasms are associated with:; Barrett's esophagus
|
A329. Esophageal adenocarcinoma
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Q330. What neoplasms are associated with:; Plummer-Vinson syndrome
|
A330. Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagous
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Q331. What neoplasms are associated with:; Liver cirrhosis
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A331. Hepatocellular carcinoma
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Q332. What neoplasms are associated with:; Ulcerative colitis
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A332. Colonic adenocarcinoma
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Q333. What neoplasms are associated with:; Paget's disease of bone
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A333. Secondary osteosarcoma & fibrosarcoma
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Q334. What neoplasms are associated with:; Immunodeficiency states
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A334. Malignant lymphomas
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Q335. What neoplasms are associated with:; AIDS
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A335. Aggresive malignant lymphomas(non-hodgkins) & Kaposi's sarcoma
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Q336. What neoplasms are associated with:; Autoimmune disease
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A336. Benign & malignant thymomas
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Q337. What neoplasms are associated with:; Acanthosis nigricans
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A337. Visceral malignancy (stomach, breast, lungs)
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Q338. What neoplasms are associated with:; Dysplastic nevus
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A338. Malignant melanoma
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Q339. What is the following gene:; abl
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A339. Oncogene; associated with CML
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Q340. What is the following gene:; c-myc
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A340. Oncogene; associated with Burkitt's lymphoma
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Q341. What is the following gene:; bcl-2
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A341. Oncogene; associated with Follicular & undifferentiated lymphomas
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Q342. What is the following gene:; erb-B2
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A342. Oncogene; associated with Breast, ovarian & gastric carcinoma
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Q343. What is the following gene:; ras
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A343. Oncogene; associated with Colon carcinoma
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Q344. What is the following gene:; L-myc
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A344. Oncogene; associated with Lung tumor
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Q345. What is the following gene:; N-myc
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A345. Oncogene; associated with Neuroblastoma
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Q346. What is the following gene:; ret
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A346. Oncogene; associated with MEN types II & III
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Q347. What is the following gene:; Rb
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A347. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Retinoblastoma & Osteosarcoma; chrom 13q
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Q348. What is the following gene:; BRCA 1 & 2
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A348. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Breast & Ovarian cancer; chrom 17q & 13q
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Q349. What is the following gene:; p53
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A349. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Most human cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome; chrom 17p
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Q350. What is the following gene:; p16
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A350. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Melanoma; chrom 9p
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Q351. What is the following gene:; APC
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A351. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Colorectal cancer; chrom 5q
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Q352. What is the following gene:; WT1
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A352. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Wilm's tumor; chrom 11q
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Q353. What is the following gene:; NF1
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A353. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Neurofibromatosis type I; chrom 17q
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Q354. What is the following gene:; NF2
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A354. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Neurofibromatosis type 2; chrom 22q
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Q355. What is the following gene:; DPC
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A355. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Pancreatic cancer; chrom 18q
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Q356. What is the following gene:; DCC
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A356. Tumor suppressor gene; associated with Colon cancer; chrom 18q
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Q357. Tumor marker for what?; PSA
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A357. Prostatic carcinoma
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Q358. Tumor marker for what?; CEA
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A358. Nonspecific; Produced by 70% of colorectal & pancreatic cancers; Also produced by gastric & breast carcinomas
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Q359. Tumor marker for what?; alpha-fetoprotein
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A359. Hepatocellular carcinoma & nonseminomatous germ cell tumors of the testes(e.g yolk sac tumor)
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Q360. Tumor marker for what?; beta-hCG
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A360. Hydatidiform moles, Choriocarcinomas & Gestational trophoblastic tumors
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Q361. Tumor marker for what?; CA-125
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A361. Ovarian tumors & Malignant epithelial tumors
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Q362. Tumor marker for what?; S-100
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A362. Melanoma, neural tumors & astrocytoma
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Q363. Tumor marker for what?; Alkaline phosphatase
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A363. Metastases to bone(blastic),; Obstruuctive biliary disease; Paget's disease of bone
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Q364. Tumor marker for what?; Bombesin
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A364. Neuroblastoma,; Lung cancer,; Gastric cancer
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Q365. Tumor marker for what?; TRAP
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A365. Hairy cell leukemia(B-cell neoplasm)
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Q366. Tumor marker for what?; CA-19-9
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A366. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
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Q367. What cancer can be caused by:; HTLV-1
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A367. Adult T-cell leukemia
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Q368. What cancer can be caused by:; HBV & HCV
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A368. Hepatocellular carcinoma
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Q369. What cancer can be caused by:; EBV
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A369. Burkitt's lymphoma & nasopharyngeal carcinoma
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Q370. What cancer can be caused by:; HPV
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A370. Cervical carcinoma & Penile/anal carcinomas; from types 16 & 18
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Q371. What cancer can be caused by:; HHV-8
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A371. Kaposi's sarcoma & Body cavity fluid B-cell lymphoma
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Q372. Carcinogenic affect of:; Aflatoxin
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A372. Hepatocellular carcinoma
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Q373. Carcinogenic affect of:; Vinyl chloride
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A373. Angiosarcoma of liver
|
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Q374. Carcinogenic affect of:; CCl4
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A374. Centrilobular necrosis & fatty change in liver
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Q375. Carcinogenic affect of:; Nitrosamines
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A375. Affects esophagus & stomach
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Q376. Carcinogenic affect of:; Cigarete smoke
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A376. Affects larynx & lungs
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Q377. Carcinogenic affect of:; Asbestos
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A377. Mesothelioma & bronchogenic carcinoma of the lung
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Q378. Carcinogenic affect of:; Arsenic
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A378. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
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Q379. Carcinogenic affect of:; Naphthalene(aniline) dyes
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A379. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
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Q380. Carcinogenic affect of:; Alkylating agents
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A380. Leukemia
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Q381. Most common cancer to metastasize to liver?
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A381. Colon cancer
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Q382. 2nd most common cancer to metastasize to liver?
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A382. Stomach
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Q383. Most common metastases to bone?
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A383. Breast & Prostate cancers
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Q384. Lytic or blastic?; Lung metastases to bone
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A384. Lytic
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Q385. Lytic or blastic?; Prostate metastases to bone
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A385. Blastic
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Q386. Lytic or blastic?; Breast metastases to bone
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A386. Both lytic & blastic
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Q387. Most common cancer in males?
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A387. Prostate (32%)
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Q388. 2nd most common cancer in males?
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A388. Lung (16%)
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Q389. 3rd most common cancer in males?
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A389. Colorectal (12%)
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Q390. Most common cancer in females?
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A390. Breast (32%)
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Q391. 2nd most common cancer in females?
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A391. Lung (13%)
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Q392. 3rd most common cancer in females?
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A392. Colorectal (13%)
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Q393. Most common cancer death in males?
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A393. Lung (33%)
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Q394. 2nd most common cancer death in males?
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A394. Prostate (13%)
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Q395. Most common cancer death in females?
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A395. Lung (23%)
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Q396. 2nd most common cancer death in females?
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A396. Breast (18%)
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Q397. "Starry-sky" appearance
|
A397. Burkitt's Lymphoma
|
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Q398. t(14;18)
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A398. Follicular Lymphoma
|
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Q399. t(9;22)
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A399. CML
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Q400. c-myc gene translocation
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A400. Burkitt's Lymphoma
|
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Q401. bcl-2 activation
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A401. Follicular Lymphoma
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Q402. Bence Jones protein
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A402. Multiple Myeloma
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Q403. Leukemia that may spread to CNS and testes
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A403. ALL
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Q404. associated with EBV
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A404. Hodgkin's Lymphoma & Burkitt's Lymphoma
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Q405. Leukemia in children
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A405. ALL
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Q406. Hodgkin's Lymphoma- More common in men or women overall?
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A406. Men
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Q407. Erythroblastic AML
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A407. M6
|
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Q408. bcr-abl hybrid
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A408. CML
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Q409. Type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma w/ the worst prognosis
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A409. Lymphocyte depleted type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
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Q410. Monoclonal Immunoglobulin spike of IgG or IgA
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A410. M protein- associated with Multiple Myeloma
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Q411. Reed-Sternberg Cells
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A411. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
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Q412. Leukemia that is most responsive to therapy
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A412. ALL
|
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Q413. Promyelocytic AML
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A413. M3
|
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Q414. Monoblastic AML
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A414. M5
|
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Q415. t(11;22)
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A415. Ewing's Sarcoma
|
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Q416. t(8;14)
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A416. Burkitt's Lymphoma; c-myc & Ig heavy chain
|
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Q417. Megakaryoblastic AML
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A417. M7
|
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Q418. "Fried Egg" Plasma Cells
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A418. Multiple Myeloma
|
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Q419. Leukemia in older adults
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A419. CLL
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Q420. Type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma w/ highest level of Reed- Sternberg cells
|
A420. Mixed Cellularity type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
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Q421. Type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma that is more common in women
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A421. Nodular Sclerosing type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
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Q422. Lymphoma associated with jaw lesions in the endemic form in Africa
|
A422. Burkitt's Lymphoma
|
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|
Q423. aggresive T-cell lymphoma in children
|
A423. Lymphoblastic Lymphoma
|
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Q424. CD30+ and CD15+ B-cells
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A424. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
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Q425. 3rd most common type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
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A425. Lymphocyte Predominant type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
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Q426. CD5+ B Cells
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A426. Mantle Cell Lymphoma
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Q427. Most common type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
A427. Nodular Sclerosing type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
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Q428. Undifferentiated AML
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A428. M0
|
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Q429. Philadelphia Chromosome
|
A429. CML
|
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Q430. t(15;17)
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A430. M3 type of AML
|
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Q431. t(11:14)
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A431. Mantle cell Lymphoma
|
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Q432. Monoclonal Immunoglobulin spike of IgM
|
A432. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
|
|
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Q433. Myeloblastic AML
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A433. M1
|
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Q434. High RBC count w/ low or normal serum EPO
|
A434. Polycythemia Vera
|
|
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Q435. Myeloproliferative Disorder associated with pruritis
|
A435. Polycythemia Vera
|
|
|
Q436. Myelomonoblastic AML
|
A436. M4
|
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Q437. Myeloblastic with differentiation AML
|
A437. M2
|
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|
Q438. 2nd most common type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
A438. Mixed Cellularity type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
|
|
Q439. Neutrophilic Leukocytosis w/ a left shift
|
A439. CML
|
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|
Q440. Punched-out lytic bone lesions
|
A440. Multiple Myeloma
|
|
|
Q441. Least common type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
A441. Lymphocyte Depleted type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
|
|
Q442. Most common Lymphoma in children
|
A442. Burkitt's Lymphoma
|
|
|
Q443. Lymphoma that resembles CLL
|
A443. Small lymphocytic Lymphoma
|
|
|
Q444. Increased Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphate
|
A444. Leukemoid Reaction; Resembles CML but can be differentiated based on high LAP
|
|
|
Q445. Rouleau formation
|
A445. RBC's stacked like poker chips on Blood smear; associated with Multiple Myeloma
|
|
|
Q446. Ig light chains in urine
|
A446. Bence Jones protein; associated with Multiple Myeloma
|
|
|
Q447. "Blast Crisis"
|
A447. CML; Occurs when the CML accelerates to AML
|
|
|
Q448. Lacunar Cells
|
A448. type of Reed-Sternberg Cell; associated with Nodular Sclerosing type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
|
|
Q449. Decreased Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphate
|
A449. CML; Very low LAP helps differentiate CML from leukemoid reaction (which has a high LAP)
|
|
|
Q450. Bilobed Tumor Giant Cell that looks like "owl's eyes"
|
A450. Reed-Sternberg Cells; associated with Hodgkin's Lymphoma
|
|
|
Q451. Auer Rods
|
A451. AML (Primarily seen in M3); Auer Rods- Peroxidase(+) cytoplasmic inclusions in granulocytes and myeloblasts
|
|
|
Q452. Leukemia w/ peak incidence from 35-50 years old
|
A452. CML
|
|
|
Q453. Leukemia that most commonly occurs in people older than 60
|
A453. CLL
|
|
|
Q454. Leukemia that most commonly affects children
|
A454. ALL
|
|
|
Q455. t(8;22)
|
A455. Burkitt's Lymphoma; c-myc & lambda light chain; This translocation is not as common as t(8;14)
|
|
|
Q456. t(2;8)
|
A456. Burkitt's Lymphoma; c-myc & kappa light chain; This translocation is not as common as t(8;14)
|
