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KLM OM-A Issue 7 - January 2012

Klm Om-A Issue 7 - January 2012

by jetstar, Jun. 2012

Subjects: bom klm oma questionnaire

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70 Cards in this Set

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	1. (BOM 1.2-1) The authority, duties and responsibilities of all KLM postholders are described in… a. the FSSM. b. the Safety Quality Manual General.	b. the Safety Quality Manual General.
	2. (BOM 1.3) Regarding the responsibilities and duties of Operations Management Personnel, the following is true: a. The Vice President Operational Safety and Quality Assurance is responsible for Crew Safety and Security Training. b. The Vice President Air Traffic Management must ensure an economical fuel management/fuel policy. c. The Vice President of the B747 Unit is also responsible for the training facilities. d. The Vice President of the B777 Unit acts as VP Operations on behalf of Flight Operations during consultation with the ‘VNV’. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	b. The Vice President Air Traffic Management must ensure an economical fuel management/fuel policy. c. The Vice President of the B747 Unit is also responsible for the training facilities. d. The Vice President of the B777 Unit acts as VP Operations on behalf of Flight Operations during consultation with the ‘VNV’.
	3. (BOM 1.3-2.3) The Vice President of the Unit of the applicable aeroplane type is responsible for the contents of the OM Part… a. A and related instructions. b. B and related instructions. c. C and related instructions.	b. B and related instructions.
	4. (BOM 11.1-3.2) If the Cockpit Voice Recorder has been disabled or switched off (not applicable to A330 & 777) a. an ASR must be completed b. an entry in the Aircraft Maintenance Log (AML) – clearly marked as ‘INCIDENT’ – is required. c. the circuit breaker of the CVR must be clipped as soon as possible by maintenance. NOTE: More than one answer correct	a. an ASR must be completed b. an entry in the Aircraft Maintenance Log (AML) – clearly marked as ‘INCIDENT’ – is required. c. the circuit breaker of the CVR must be clipped as soon as possible by maintenance.
	5. (BOM 2.4) The flight dispatcher shall be contacted… a. To advice on any discrepancy related to the flight execution. b. In events that may cause deviation from standard operation and/or flight schedule. c. In case of an accident / incident concerning passengers, crew or aircraft. d. When requested in the briefing package. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. To advice on any discrepancy related to the flight execution. b. In events that may cause deviation from standard operation and/or flight schedule. c. In case of an accident / incident concerning passengers, crew or aircraft. d. When requested in the briefing package.
	6. (BOM 2.4-1) The following remarks concerning Operations Control Advice are true : a. Advice from OCC/LM may be ignored when it is considered in conflict with prescribed operational and/or safety standards. b. In principle, all advice given by OCC/LM will only be implemented in mutual agreement with the commander and the flight dispatcher. c. The commander must, circumstances permitting, inform the flight dispatcher as soon as possible of inflight deviations from the advised instructions. d. The dispatcher should provide the commander with information in relation to the reasoning behind the (commercial) instructions. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. Advice from OCC/LM may be ignored when it is considered in conflict with prescribed operational and/or safety standards. b. In principle, all advice given by OCC/LM will only be implemented in mutual agreement with the commander and the flight dispatcher. c. The commander must, circumstances permitting, inform the flight dispatcher as soon as possible of inflight deviations from the advised instructions. d. The dispatcher should provide the commander with information in relation to the reasoning behind the (commercial) instructions.
	7. (BOM 4.1-2, FSSM 1.5.3) In unforeseen circumstances (incapacitation or non-availability of cabin crew), the number of cabin crew on a passenger-carrying flight may become less than the Required Cabin Crew. With regard to this situation before departure, the following is true: a. An ASR shall be filed. b. Departing with less than the Required Cabin Crew is not allowed. c. Different provisions apply for departures from Schiphol versus outstations. d. Special cabin crew seating priorities may apply according to BOM. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. An ASR shall be filed. c. Different provisions apply for departures from Schiphol versus outstations. d. Special cabin crew seating priorities may apply according to BOM.
	8. (FSSM 1.6.9) With regard to observation flights, the following is true: a. All persons on an observation flight shall travel on an XXSAC-card b. Observation flights are meant for KLM staff and non-KLM staff for gathering operational experience in the cockpit or the cabin, without having a licence or flight safety qualification. c. When wearing an official KLM uniform, this uniform shall be properly disguised when seated in the cabin during take-off and landing. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	b. Observation flights are meant for KLM staff and non-KLM staff for gathering operational experience in the cockpit or the cabin, without having a licence or flight safety qualification. c. When wearing an official KLM uniform, this uniform shall be properly disguised when seated in the cabin during take-off and landing.
	9. (BOM 5.1-2) What is the minimum required recent experience of a pilot, not taking into account possible extensions? a. A Co-pilot may not operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless he has operated as pilot flying during three take-offs and landings in an aircraft or a flight simulator, of the type or variant to be used in the preceding 90 days. b. A pilot may not operate an aircraft as commander unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and landings as pilot flying in an aircraft, or a flight simulator, of the type or variant to be used in the preceding 90 days. c. To operate as a commander or co-pilot one must have carried out at least five take-offs and landings as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator of the type or variant to be used in the preceding 90 days. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. A Co-pilot may not operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless he has operated as pilot flying during three take-offs and landings in an aircraft or a flight simulator, of the type or variant to be used in the preceding 90 days. b. A pilot may not operate an aircraft as commander unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and landings as pilot flying in an aircraft, or a flight simulator, of the type or variant to be used in the preceding 90 days.
	10. (BOM 5.1-2) A Commander … a. may not operate an aircraft unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and landings as pilot flying in an aircraft or a flight simulator of the type or variant to be used in the preceding 90 days. b. may be relieved by a Co-pilot, qualified for the aircraft type and in possession of a valid CPL. c. may delegate his responsibilities. d. shall hold a current ATPL for the aircraft type. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. may not operate an aircraft unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and landings as pilot flying in an aircraft or a flight simulator of the type or variant to be used in the preceding 90 days. d. shall hold a current ATPL for the aircraft type.
	11. BOM 5.1-2.7) What are the requirements for maintaining the qualification for CAT II/III weather minima? a. For Commanders and Copilots per 6 months a minimum of 2 CAT II/III approaches as pilot flying in the simulator, with 1 approach ending in a go-around. Per 6 months one actual or practice CAT II/III approach. b. Per 6 months two actual CAT II/III approaches or two approaches according the automatic crew coordination procedure (ACCP), with the commander as pilot flying, followed by an autoland and using CAT II/III landing minima. c. For Commanders and Copilots, within the validity period of the KLM proficiency, at least two CAT II/III approaches are performed in the simulator. d. During cat II/III operations the commander or commander under supervision shall be pilot flying. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	c. For Commanders and Copilots, within the validity period of the KLM proficiency, at least two CAT II/III approaches are performed in the simulator. d. During cat II/III operations the commander or commander under supervision shall be pilot flying.
	12. (BOM 6) A crewmember shall not…… a. consume alcohol 12 hours prior to commencement of a duty or standby/reserve period until the end of the flight duty or standby/reserve period. b. perform any flying duties whilst in possession of a temporary driving ban (maximum 24 hours) due to driving under the influence of alcohol. c. perform any flying duties whilst under the influence of any (non-) prescription drug that may be capable of affecting his competence in such a manner that it will affect the safety of the flight. d. perform duties on an aircraft following blood donation except when a period of 48 hours has elapsed. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	b. perform any flying duties whilst in possession of a temporary driving ban (maximum 24 hours) due to driving under the influence of alcohol. c. perform any flying duties whilst under the influence of any (non-) prescription drug that may be capable of affecting his competence in such a manner that it will affect the safety of the flight. d. perform duties on an aircraft following blood donation except when a period of 48 hours has elapsed.
	13. (BOM 6.1) A medication has side effects like dizziness and an upset stomach. Is it allowed to perform flight duties while using this drug? a. No b. Yes	a. No
	14. (BOM 6.1) How long before reporting for flight duties must a crewmember stop to consume any alcohol? a. 9 hours b. 10 hours c. 12 hours d. 8 hours	b. 10 hours
	15. (BOM 6.1) When having dinner in New York at 9 PM with American friends. The reporting time for the return flight is 10 AM the next day. Until what time is it allowed to consume some moderate amount of alcohol? a. Until 10 o’clock b. Until midnight c. Until 11 o’clock d. You are not allowed to consume any alcohol at all	b. Until midnight
	16. (BOM 6.1) It is wise to take medication for a cold, when it is impossible to carry out flight duties without this medication. a. No b. Yes	a. No
	17. (BOM 8.1-1.2) If the pressure altimeter, when set to the standard setting of 1013.2 hPa, is used for comparing true altitude with the OFP ‘Route MORA’… a. the altimeter reading shall be corrected for pressure only. b. the altimeter reading shall be corrected for temperature and pressure. c. the altimeter reading shall be corrected for temperature only.	b. the altimeter reading shall be corrected for temperature and pressure.
	18. (BOM 8.1-1) Unless indicated otherwise, the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) printed on an approach chart is valid within a circle centred on a specified navaid, with a radius of… a. 10 NM. b. 20 NM. c. 25 NM. d. 30 NM.	c. 25 NM.
	19. (BOM 8.1.2- 2.1) An adequate aerodrome is… a. a suitable aerodrome with weather conditions forecasted at or above required minima and reports indicating that a safe landing can be accomplished. b. an aerodrome, which is considered to be satisfactory, taking into account applicable performance requirements and runway characteristics and at the expected time of use will be available and equipped with necessary ancillary services. c. only required when at the expected time of use the weather conditions at destination are below required landing minima. d. In addition, it is anticipated that, at the expected time of use, the weather is at or above planning or landing minima at this aerodrome NOTE: More than one answer correct	b. an aerodrome, which is considered to be satisfactory, taking into account applicable performance requirements and runway characteristics and at the expected time of use will be available and equipped with necessary ancillary services. d. In addition, it is anticipated that, at the expected time of use, the weather is at or above planning or landing minima at this aerodrome
	20. (BOM 8.1-2.1) An airport shall not be planned as destination for your aircraft when the RFF category is below… a. 1. b. 5. c. 6. d. 7. e. 8. NOTE: More than one answer correct for 737, A330 and 747.	a. 1. e. 8.
	21. (BOM 8.1-2.3 p5) A second destination alternate is required when… a. forecast weather conditions at destination will be below the applicable minima at ETA +/- 1 hour. b. no en-route alternate is available. c. no meteorological information is available for the destination. d. surface wind forecast for destination exceeds AOM/FCOM cross- or tailwind limitations (excluding gusts). NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. forecast weather conditions at destination will be below the applicable minima at ETA +/- 1 hour. c. no meteorological information is available for the destination. d. surface wind forecast for destination exceeds AOM/FCOM cross- or tailwind limitations (excluding gusts).
	22. (BOM 8.1- 2.3) If it is not possible to return to the departure airport for meteorological or performance reasons a take-off alternate must be specified (non-ETOPS situation). The location of the take-off alternate in relation to the departure airport and additional requirement are: a. Location of take-off alternate within 90 minutes flight time at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed in still air under standard conditions and based on the actual take-off weight. b. Location of take-off alternate within one-hour flight time at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed in still air, under standard conditions and based on the actual take-off weight. c. Location of take-off alternate within two hours flight time at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed in still air, under standard conditions and based on the actual take-off weight. d. One-engine inoperative limitations shall be taken into account. e. The take-off alternate shall specified in the operational flight plan. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	c. Location of take-off alternate within two hours flight time at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed in still air, under standard conditions and based on the actual take-off weight. d. One-engine inoperative limitations shall be taken into account. e. The take-off alternate shall specified in the operational flight plan.
	23. (BOM 8.4-3.2) Low Visibility Procedures must be in force for take-off when RVRs are less than… a. 300 m. b. 400 m. c. 800 m. d. 1200 m.	b. 400 m.
	24. (BOM 8.1-5) Prescribed landing minima for an individual flight are applicable if;… a. prescribed for the aircraft. b. prescribed for the Commander and/or the crew. c. published for the approach procedure and raised (if required) due to local regulations, amended OCA/H, inoperative or restricted ground aids, or below standard OAT. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. prescribed for the aircraft. b. prescribed for the Commander and/or the crew. c. published for the approach procedure and raised (if required) due to local regulations, amended OCA/H, inoperative or restricted ground aids, or below standard OAT.
	25. (BOM 8.1-5) Published minima shall be raised as follows: If an official CAT I/ RNAVAPCH APV (approach procedure with vertical guidance/Baro VNAV) or RNP AR APCH While comparing the revised OCA with the published DA, the following is correct: a. Subtract the aerodrome elevation first. b. The higher will be the new DA. c. If applicable, increase the RVR in accordance with the standard CAT I minima as published in OM Part C2. d. both b & c	d. both b & c
	26. (BOM 8.1-5) NOTAM information shows that CAT II OCH has been raised to a value in excess of 100-ft HAT. A CAT II approach may still be executed… a. to an adjusted DH as published in the OM Part C3. b. to the new OCH. c. to the original DH plus the difference.	a. to an adjusted DH as published in the OM Part C3.
	27. (BOM 8.1-6.3) The planning minima apply to the planning phase and to the in-flight re-planning phase. The criteria for the use of destination and/or alternate airport as indicated below must be adhered to: a. Cross and tailwind must be within AOM/FCOM limits, gusts may be disregarded b. Cross and tailwind must be within AOM/FCOM limits including gusts. c. For application of the weather report and forecast, the time window beginning one hour before and ending one hour after the ETA shall be considered. d. For application of the weather report and forecast, the time window beginning 30 minutes before and ending 30 minutes after the ETA shall be considered. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. Cross and tailwind must be within AOM/FCOM limits, gusts may be disregarded c. For application of the weather report and forecast, the time window beginning one hour before and ending one hour after the ETA shall be considered.
	28. (BOM 8.1-2.3) An airport shall only be selected as take-off alternate if the conditions as indicated below are met: a. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum; (forecasted) ceiling may be ignored. b. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof must indicate that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima; the ceiling must be at or above the HAT/HAA value. c. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum The ceiling must be taken into account when the only approaches available are non-precision and / or circling approaches. d. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof indicates that the weather conditions will be at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima (RVR/VIS and ceiling at or above the HAT/HAA value) plus 1000m/200ft.. e. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed circling minima and the ceiling is at or above the prescribed HAT/HAA value. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum; (forecasted) ceiling may be ignored. c. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum The ceiling must be taken into account when the only approaches available are non-precision and / or circling approaches.
	29. (BOM 8.1-2.3) A destination is considered to be at or above minima if the following conditions are met: a. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum; (forecasted) ceiling may be ignored. b. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof must indicate that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima; the ceiling must be at or above the HAT/HAA value. c. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum and the reported or forecasted ceiling is at or above the prescribed HAT/HAA value. d. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof indicates that the weather conditions will be at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima (RVR/VIS and ceiling at or above the HAT/HAA value) plus 1000m/200ft.. e. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed circling minima and the ceiling is at or above the prescribed HAT/HAA value. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum; (forecasted) ceiling may be ignored. c. For a non-precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum and the reported or forecasted ceiling is at or above the prescribed HAT/HAA value.
	30. (BOM 8.1-2.3) An airport shall only be selected as a destination alternate or an en-route alternate if the conditions as indicated below are met: a. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum; (forecasted) ceiling may be ignored. b. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof must indicate that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima (incl. LLZ); the ceiling must be at or above the HAT/HAA value. c. For a non-precision approach (not being a circling approach) the appropriate weather report or forecast, or a combination thereof, indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed minimum and the reported or forecasted ceiling is at or above the prescribed HAT/HAA value. d. For a non-precision approach (not being a circling approach), the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof indicates that the weather conditions will be at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima(RVR/VIS and ceiling at or above the HAT/HAA value) plus 1000m/200ft.. e. For a non-precision approach (not being a circling approach), the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof indicates that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed circling minima and the ceiling is at or above the prescribed HAT/HAA value. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	b. For a CAT I precision approach the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof must indicate that the applicable RVR/VIS is at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima (incl. LLZ); the ceiling must be at or above the HAT/HAA value. d. For a non-precision approach (not being a circling approach), the appropriate weather report or forecast or combination thereof indicates that the weather conditions will be at or above the prescribed non-precision approach minima(RVR/VIS and ceiling at or above the HAT/HAA value) plus 1000m/200ft.
	31. (BOM 8.1-6.3) The weather forecast for destination reads BECMG 0800 – 0900 from below limits to above limits, with the expected time of use 0830. For flight planning purposes, the destination shall be… a. considered to be above limits. b. considered to be below limits. c. considered to be on limits.	b. considered to be below limits.
	32. (BOM 8.1-6.3) The weather forecast at the expected time of use for destination reads: above limits with a PROB 40 below limits in fog conditions and TEMPO on limits. For flight planning purposes, the destination shall be… a. considered to be above limits. b. considered to be below limits. c. considered to be on limits.	b. considered to be below limits.
	33. (RG 8.1-7.5) At all airports required by legislation in case of (an) engine failure(s) or a loss of pressurisation at the most critical point along the route an estimated minimum arrival fuel quantity is applicable of: a. 15 minutes (holding fuel at 1500 ft HAA). b. 30 minutes (holding fuel at 1500 ft HAA). c. 45 minutes (holding fuel at 1500 ft HAA). d. Legislation does not prescribe a minimum arrival fuel quantity for these airports.	a. 15 minutes (holding fuel at 1500 ft HAA).
	34. (BOM 8.1-7.1; RG 8.1-7.3) Indicate which statements are correct: a. Taxi-out fuel is a quantity of fuel to cover APU consumption, engine start and ground manoeuvres prior to take-off. b. The amount of taxi-out fuel will provide at least 70% statistical coverage per airport. c. The commander may increase or decrease the taxi-out fuel, depending on expected local conditions. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. Taxi-out fuel is a quantity of fuel to cover APU consumption, engine start and ground manoeuvres prior to take-off. b. The amount of taxi-out fuel will provide at least 70% statistical coverage per airport. c. The commander may increase or decrease the taxi-out fuel, depending on expected local conditions.
	35. (BOM 8.1-7.1; RG 8.1-7.2) What is the meaning of 90% coverage with respect to Contingency Fuel (CONT)? a. The flight, which takes the corresponding CONT, has a chance of 1% to enter the abnormal phase. b. The flight, which takes the corresponding CONT, has a chance of 10% to use part of the CONT fuel. c. The flight, which takes the corresponding CONT, has a chance of 10% to enter the abnormal phase.	c. The flight, which takes the corresponding CONT, has a chance of 10% to enter the abnormal phase.
	36. (BOM 8.1-7.2) Indicate which statements are correct regarding Contingency Fuel (CONT): a. The applicable CONT coverage is determined via a decision tree. b. The CONT for a specific flight number is based on data of flights of the same type, stretch and arrival time. c. The coverage is expressed in minutes holding fuel at 1500 ft HAA, at planned landing weight and under standard meteorological conditions. d. When insufficient data are available, the CONT will be 5% of the trip fuel, resp. 3% of the trip fuel in case an en-route alternate is available. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. The applicable CONT coverage is determined via a decision tree. b. The CONT for a specific flight number is based on data of flights of the same type, stretch and arrival time. c. The coverage is expressed in minutes holding fuel at 1500 ft HAA, at planned landing weight and under standard meteorological conditions. d. When insufficient data are available, the CONT will be 5% of the trip fuel, resp. 3% of the trip fuel in case an en-route alternate is available.
	37. (BOM 8.1-7.2) What conditions are required to enable CONT to be based on 90% coverage? a. At least one runway available usable from both sides and visibility forecast at least 3000 meters at destination and an en-route alternate available. b. More than one usable runway and visibility forecast at least 1200 meters at destination and an enroute alternate available. c. More than one usable runway and visibility forecast at least 3000 meters at destination and an enroute alternate available.	c. More than one usable runway and visibility forecast at least 3000 meters at destination and an enroute alternate available.
	38. (BOM 8.1-7.1) With regard to specifying additional and extra fuel the following is true….. a. Extra fuel is specified by the commander and the main reason for extra fuel must be indicated on the OFP. b. The commander can order additional fuel. c. Additional fuel is specified by the dispatcher. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. Extra fuel is specified by the commander and the main reason for extra fuel must be indicated on the OFP. c. Additional fuel is specified by the dispatcher.
	39. (BOM 8.1-8.8) By signing his acceptance of the load sheet, the commander confirms… a. he has accepted the load sheet. b. the cabin security check is performed. c. the flight deck security check is performed. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. he has accepted the load sheet. b. the cabin security check is performed. c. the flight deck security check is performed.
	40. (BOM 8.1-9) When operating on an individual ATS flight plan… a. and experiencing a delay of 30 minutes or more the ATS flight plan should be amended, or a new flight plan submitted (except for flow control delays). b. ATM Dispatch is responsible to ensure that the filed ATS flight plan is in conformity with the current operational flight plan accepted by the commander. c. it is mandatory for the crew to check a copy of the filed ATS flight plan against the operational flight plan with regard to aircraft type, route, flight level and alternates. NOTE: More than one answer correct.	a. and experiencing a delay of 30 minutes or more the ATS flight plan should be amended, or a new flight plan submitted (except for flow control delays). b. ATM Dispatch is responsible to ensure that the filed ATS flight plan is in conformity with the current operational flight plan accepted by the commander.

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