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143 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Qualifications of the PJ
Graduate of USA AAS Jumpmaster course

Graduate of another recognized Jumpmaster course and succesful completion of the USA AAS Jumpmaster refresher course

SSG or above ( SGT Senior rated)
Qualifications of the AJ
Same as the primary jumpmaster

SGT or above
Qualifications of the Safety
Graduate of the USA AAS Jumpmaster course

Graduate of another jumpmaster course and succesful completion of USA AAS Jumpmaster refresher course

SGT or above
How many times must a safety pull safety duties before he can perform as an Assistant Jumpmaster
Twice
How long and what are the requirements for new graduates to become current
within 180 days new graduates must perform two safety duties and one assistant jumpmaster duty.
how long and what are the requirments for jump master refresher graduates to become current
within 180 days JMR graduates must safet once and assist once
in order to perform primary jumpmaster duties what are the duty requirements
must safety twice and assist twice
where are the jumpmaster team duty areas
Unit Area
Departure Airfield
During Flight
what are the safety duty areas
Unit Area
Departure Airfield
During Flight
After Flight
When does the jumpmaster teams duties begin
immediatly upon notification
The Jumpmaster can delegate "blank" but not "blank"
Authority and responsibility
Who attends the S-3 Air Briefing
entire JM team and the airborne commander
What is the airborne commander responsible for
tactical cross load plan
what is the airborne timeline for the JM Team Rehearsal
NLT ST -3:15
what is the airborne timeline for the Manifest call
NLT ST -3:00
what does the jumpmaster do at manifest call
verify manifest
align personnel in chalk order.
mark personnel with colored tape on upper right arm.
what are the colors for the following personnel

JM Team
Key Leaders
Current JMS
Bump Personnel
Medics
Red
Green
Yellow
White
Red Cross Brassard
what does the safety do at manifest call
inspect jumpers advanced combat helmets, id cards, id tags.

number jumpers for easy identification

assist the JMS
what is the airborne timeline for sustained airborne training/prejump
NLT ST- 2:45
what does the jumpmaster do at sustained airborne training/ prejump
conduct sustained airborne training in accordance with 82nd ABN DIV ASOP, chapter 13
what does the safety do at sustained airborne training/prejump
inspect all equipment for proper rigging IAW with 82nd DIV ASOP, chapters 9 and 10

make 7 complete copies of the manifest

assist the JMS
what is the earliest sustained airborne training can be conducted
within 48 hours of drop time
duties of the jumpmaster at the departure airfield
Rehearse proper loading of aircraft

ensure all personnel are present to include safeties and key leaders

discuss SARJE

discuss ADEPT

practice a minimum one mass exit

ensure jumper adherance to airborne procedures

rehearseexiting a-series containers/ special items of equipment
when does the jumpmaster conduct mock door training
NLT ST - 1:30
what is SARJE
Static line control, Acitivation of the reserve parachute, Red/ Amber light procedures, Jump refusal, exiting procedures
can mock door training be conducted in the unit area
yes as long as proper training aids are available
what does the safety do during mock door training
aggresively enforce standards
make on the spot corrections during mock door training
assist the JMS
who are the seven copies of the manifest distributed too
Primary Jumpmaster
NCOIC of parachute issue
Unit File (S-3 Air)
A/DACG
DACO
Air Force Guide
LoadMaster

4 copies will be given to the A/DACG
when is Parachute Issue
NLT ST -1:15
what does the jumpmaster do during parachute issue
supervise issuing of the parachutes

draw your own main and reserve parachutes
what does the safety do during parachute issue
ensure adequate expendable items and water is available
how many reserve parachutes per aircraft and how many aviators kit bag for how many jumpers
2 extra reserve parachutes per aircraft and 1 aviators kit bag per 15 jumpers
in what areas are parachute issue located
Pax Shed Issue
Ramp Side Issue
Plane Side Issue
When is donning of parachutes
NLT ST -1:00
what is the responsibilty of the jumpmaster during donning of parachutes
give a buddy ridding talk thru to all jumpers iaw the 82nd abn div asop chapter 13

supervise all rigging
can you rig without a rigger present?
no
what does the safety do during the donning of parachutes
the safety inspects the aircraft in accordance with chapter 13 of the div asop
when is JMPI conducted
NLT ST -50
what does the jumpmaster do during JMPI
the PJM will supervise all JM's conducting JMPI and only assist if neccesary to meet ST
establish a minimum of 4 JMPI stations and 1 correction station

ensure everyone is JMPI'd prior to ST
what does the safety do during JMPI
assist in the JMPI
assist the JM's
when is Load tim
NLT ST - 15
what will the jumpmaster do at load time
conduct JM/Pilot brief

ensure loading and the tactical cross load plan is in tact

discuss safety briefing with the load master
what does the safety do at Load time
this is the latest time the aircraft can be inspected

load and seat each jumper ensuring the appropriate adjustable leg strap is secured
when is station time
normally 35 minutes prior to take off
what do the jump master and safety do during station time
ensure jumpers are seated and secured with seat belts

all jumpers are awake and alert

remove any markings on arms or helmets

hearing protection and motion sickness bags are passed out

safeties are passing out water to keep jumpers hydrated
when do jumpers have to put their helmets back on during an air force operation
the need to be on at least 5 minutes prior to take off
what does the jumpmaster do at the 20 minute time warning
issue the 20 minute time warning to all jumpers

ensure everyone is awake and alert with helmets secured

supervise the safety
what does the safety do at the 20 minute time warning
attach and inspect all special items of equipment

don their BA-18/ BA-22 parachute prior to the 10 minute time warning

assist the JM's

a-series container procedures
what must the safety do when exciting an A-series container
Move the load in the vicinity of the paratroop door

Inspect the Load

Remove the Load Data Card

Hook up the universal static like to the outboard anchor line cable
what does the jumpmaster do at the 10 minute time warning
hook up to the inboard anchor line cable

issue jump commands
what does the safety do at the 10 minute time warning
assist the JM in hooking up if required

on the commands of "inboard and outboard personnel stand up" have been issued move to the forward portion of the aircraft, assisting the jumpers in putting seats up and ensure all jumpers comply with jump commands

correct any unsafe conditions
when is the slowdown for the c-130 and c-17
3minutes and 6 minutes respectively
when will paratroop doors be opened
at the slowdowns
what do the jumpmaster and safety do at the slow down
ensure all jumpers are either hooked up or seated
jms conduct proper jump platoform and paratroop door check

conduct initial clear to the rear prior to the one minute time warning
what does the jumpmaster do at the 1 minute time warning
identify 1 minute reference point
when must the m1950 weopans case be lowered
it weighs 35 pounds or more
it contains a crew served weapon
it is a modified m 1950 weapons case
the JM deems it too big or bulky to jump with safely
what are the categories of a malfunction
complete or partial
what is a complete malfunction caused by
failure to deploy or failure to inflate
what are reasons for failure to deploy
broken universal static line
broken anchor line cable
failure to hook up
jumper being cut free from being towed
what is a reason for failure to inflate
streamer
what are the types of partial malfunctions
semi inversion
squid
cigarette roll
complete inversion
damaged suspension lines
blown section or gore
partial malfunctions are caused by what
excessive aircraft speed

high power setting on aircraft engines

high angle of draft

rigger error

unsatisfactory body position
what are the types of entanglements and how are they caused
high altitude- simultaneous exit from the aircradt

mid altitude- one or more jumpers failing to observe the third point of performance
who authorizes airborne operations from army aircraft
division commander
what form must be submitted to the CAB and how many days prior for army aircraft airborne operations
FB Form 2322-1E and NLT that 30 working days prior
how many wind drift indicators are used with army aircraft
2
drop altitudes for army aircraft
maximum 2,999 ft agl
minimum 1,500 ft agl (1250 if AC speed is 90 knots or higher)
what must the DZSO or DZSTL be if conducting army aircraft airborne operations
Pathfinder
how many combat equipped jumpers can a black hawk support
8
drop speed for uh 60
max of 70 knots and a minimum of 65 knots
approx when is the command get ready given in a UH 60
4 minutes
total jumpers for a CH 47
28
when is the command get ready given on a CH 47
6 minutes
what type of bite with the universal static line will jumpers have on a CH 47
reverse bite
DACO qualifications
SGT or above for proficiency operations

SSG or above for tactical operations or proficiency jumps with 5 or more aircraft

current and qualified Jumpmaster

assisted a fully qualifed DACO at lesat once
what does DACO stand for
departure airfield control officer
assistant DACO qualifications
SGT or above
current and qualified Jumpmaster
who does the DACO report too
the GLO NLT than 20 minutes prior to the first weather decision time on the air letter
what type of reports must the DACO turn inn
strike report, flash report, red/ amber light exit report and a serious incident report
what form is used for a strike report
AF IMT 4304
qualifications for the AT-4 Jump Pack
Jumper must be 5 fee 6 inches in height

12 static line jumps from air force aircraft

2 perfect exits from the right door of the 34 ft tower

talked through the 5 points of performance and lowering procedures of the AT-4 JP while in the suspended harness
how often must a AT-4 Jump Pack jump to remain current
once every 180 days
limitations of the AT-4 Jump Pack
cannot be jumped from left paratroop door

cannot exit from seated position

cannot be #1 when exiting A-series containers

on 12 special items of equipment can exit the right door per pass
how many jumpers on a ch 47 can jump the AT-4 Jump Pack
all 28
the smaw-d has the same limitations and capabilities of the AT-4 Jump Pack, recite them
airborne
how many DMJP can be exited for Air force air craft
only 6 on the right paratroop door per pass
qualifications of the SMJP
5 feet 8 inches tall

must jump at 1250 ft above ground level twice during the day before being able to jump at 800 feet above ground level
SMJP limitations
cannot be jumped from army aircraft

cannot jump with a-series containers
limitations of A-series containers
one per paratroop door, first pass only, from the first three a/c in a offset formation

cannot be exited under AWADS conditions
maximum weight of a A- series container, and minumum weight, and dimmensions
max 350 pounds excluding the T-10 modified cargo parachute

max dimensions are 30 inches wide, 66 inches high and 48 inches deep

minimum weight of 90 pounds
what must their be if there are hazordous materals present in the A-series container
a shippers declaration for dangerous goods (SDDG)
a completely rigged A-series container must have what
a load data card
what must present on the load data card
Unit
Chalk
Contents
Gross Weight
what are the majour components of the A-21 Cargo bag
Canvas Cover
Sling assembly with scuff pad attached
ring strap group
quick release assembly
the quick release assembly has three safety features , what are they
safety fork and lanyard
turn to unlock
strike/ press to release
major components of the A-7A Cargo sling
A- 7A straps (4)
D-rings (4)
weight limitations for A - 7A cargo sling
90-250 pounds two sling load
251-350 pounds is 3 or 4 strap load
when do crew served weapons need to be lowered
they must be lowered
when can the m249 not be in lowered
when rigged in the M1950 weapons case, if rigged in modified M1950 case must be lowered
what does 60 MM gunner jump with
the M225 cannon, M8 small base plate, M64 sight assembly and the M9 beretta
what does the assistant gunner for the 60 MM carry
M170 bipod assembly and individual weapon
what does 60MM ammunition bearer jump
M7 large base plate, aiming stakes with case, ammunition and weapon
in addition what does the mortar team carry
6 rounds and 60 mm mortars in alice pack and mollie
what types of weapons cases are there
60 mm modified m1950 weapons case

m1950 weapons case

saw modifed M1950 weapons case
four phases of an airborne operation
Ground tactical plan
Landing Plan
Air Movement Plan
Marshalling Plan
what are the assembly factors
dispersion
mission
weather
state of training
what is AWADS
adverse weather aerial delivery system (c-130)
what is SKE
station keeping equipment (c-17 globemaster)
what is INS
Inertial navigation system (c-17 globemaster)
two types of assembly aids
natural
mechanical
what is carp
computed air realse point
who is the carp obtained from and what is it
the aircraft navigator during the JM/Pilot brief and it is an imaginary point in the air where the first parachute suspended object must exit the aircraft in order to strike the personnel point of impact
max # of jumpers for c-130 H during training
62
in flight rigging max pax for c-130
40 jumpers to include PJ and AJ
drop speed for c-130
125-130 knots planning is 130 knts
max jumpers per anchor line cable c-130
20
in flight rigging requires 4 additional JM's in which seats are they located
12 and 13
c-130J-30 max jumpers, inflight rigging max, # of JMS and seats
max 74, 56 in flight rigging, 31 jumpers per anchor line cable, and 6 additonal JMs
c-17 max jumpers, in flight rigging, anchor line cable max, sets of jump lights, additional JMS and their seats
100 jumpers for training, 98 in flight rigging, 27 out board 24 in board, if only 1 anchor line cable 51 on 1.... 10 jump caution lights, 8 additonal jumpmasters in seats 7,14,32,41
the 8 selection factors of a drop zone
airdrop speed
drop altitude
type of load
method of delivery
obstacles
access
adequate approach and departure routes

size of drop zone
mix dimensions of a drop zone for 1 paratrooper
600 yds wide by 600 yds long
min dimensions of a drop zone for heavy equipment
600 yds wide by 100 yds long
for day light jumps the PPI will be marked with a code letter constructed of what
9 vs -17 panels and 1 raised angle marker
for night personnel drops the PPI will be marked with
9 white omni directional lights, in addition there will be one place to the left and right of the PPI by 250 meters and there will be a amber rotating beacon 1000 meters from the PI or on the trail edge of the drop zone, whichever is closer
code letters for netherlands DZ
J - PPI
c- HE/CDS
H- circular
code letters for sicily
A- PPI
c- HE/CDS
h- circular
Drop zone safety officer qualifications
SSG or above, if involving 5 or more aircraft SFC or above

curret and qualified jumpmaster

must be advanced rated

assisted a current and qualified DZSO as least twice

Recieved hands on training of a wind speed indicator at least once
assistant DZSO qualificationa
SGT or above
current and qualifed jumpmaster
recieve hands on training with a wind speed indicator
what does the DZSO party consist of
Malfuntions officers
medical coverage team
ladder detail
boat detail
road gaurds
what is the smoke required fro the MC1-1D
0-6 knots smoke grenades may be used
7-13 knots smoke pots should be used
when should the DZSO open the drop zone with range control
at least 1 hour prior to drop time
when should the dzso contact range control for final clearance
NLT 5 minutes out
when should road gaurds be placed
5 minutes prior to drop time for proficiency jumps, 30 minutes prior to and after drop time for tactical operations
where must wind speed be taken
at two locations, one of which is the highest point of the drop zone
when must the flash report be sent to the DACO
immediatly after the airborne operation
what is the qualifications of the DZSTL
sgt or above
current and qualified Jumpmaster
current and qualified DZSTL
graduate of a recognized DZSTL course
currency of the DZSTL
must assist a DZSTL twice on a succesful airborne operation
what is a successful airborne operation defined as
one parachute suspended object at a minumum must land on the drop zone
how often must thr DZSTL perform duties to remain current
once every 180 days
what is the AF Form 3823
drop zone survey
what is the AF IMT 4304
Drop zone/landing zone control log
what is considered a PI strike
first parachute suspended object per aircraft must land within the 25 yeards of the PPI or HEPI
what defines a satisfactory airborne operations
90% of the personal on a mass tactical operation land on the surveyed drop zone