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46 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
A An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
B SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
C An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that
D An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use
2. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
1 Options
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and3
3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
A The going rate that is agreed with Customers
B Market rate
C Cost-plus
D Profitable
4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A. Verification
B. Security
C. Reliability
D. Maintainability
5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money
B Be as high level as possible
C Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held
D Vary according to cost
6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?
A Service Level Manager
B Capacity Manager
C Change Manager
D Financial Manager
7. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction
B Incident volume reduction
C Elimination of lost incidents
D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
8. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Change & Release Management
B Service Level Management
C IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.
D Change & Capacity Management
9. Possible problems with Change Management include:
A Lack of ownership of impacted services
B Increased visibility and communication of changes
C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change
10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
B Education and Awareness
C Review, Audit and Assurance
D Ongoing Training and Testing
11. Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?
1 Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 Senior IT technical managers
A 2 and 3 only
B All of them
C 1, 2 &4
D 1, 3 &4
12. Consider the following activities:
1 The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool?
A 1, 2 & 4
B 2 & 3
C All of them
D None of them
13. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B Business Impact Analysis
C Service Outage Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis
14. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours
15. What is SOA within Availability Management?
A System Optimisation Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis
16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure
17. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
A Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
B Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
C Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
D Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
18. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
A Documentation
B Software
C Purchase order
D Accommodation
19. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
20. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
1 Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities be taken?
A 4 2 1 3
B 4 3 2 1
C 2 1 4 3
D 2 1 3 4
21. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously
improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cos
22. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,
negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
23. Which of the following statements is true?
A An urgent release is always a delta release
B A full release may contain package and delta releases
C package release may contain full and delta releases
D A full release may contain several delta releases
24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer
C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
25. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
C Capacity Management
D Problem Management
26. Consider the following:
1 Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A All four
B 1&2
C 3&4
D 1, 2 &3
27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
A Remedial Service Desk
B Virtual Service Desk
C Local Service Desk
D Central Service Desk
28. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
29. Consider the following list:
1 Modelling
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A 1 & 2
B 1 & 3
C 3 & 4
D 2 & 4
30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never
31. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
1 Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
A 1, 3 & 5
B 2 & 4
C 2, 3 & 5
D All of them
32. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no
reliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information
33. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A The RFCs that it satisfies
B The number of updates to the OHS
C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration
34. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Chairing the CAB
B Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being
C Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs
35. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change Requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C 1 & 3
D 1, 2 & 3
36. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
B You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
C You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
37. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?
1 One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 & 2only
B 2 & 3 only
C 1 & 3 only
D All of them
38. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
D The number of RFCs raised
39. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Changes taking place are properly coordinated
C All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
D Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls
40. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream
What does OGC stand for?
the U.K. Office of Government Commerce
What does CCTA stand for?
Central Computer and Telecommunications Agency
What areas do the 10 core books cover?
Service support and service delivery
What does itSMF stand for?
IT Service Managment Forum
What does ISEB stand for?
Information Systems Examination Board
What are the benefits of implementing ITIL processes?
+Improved quality service provision
+Cost-justifiable service
+Services that meet business, customer, and user demands
+Integrated centralized processes
+Defined roles and responsibilities
+Learning from previous experiences
+Demonstrable performance indicators