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153 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are two regenerative anemias?
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IMHA and Blood Loss
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What are three non-regenerative anemias?
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inflammatory, renal disease and bone marrow disease
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What does a decrease in PCV usually indicative of?
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Anemia
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What does an increase in PCV usually indicate?
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polycythemia
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What are the two types of polycythemia?
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relative and absolute
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What are three causes of an increase in total protein?
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dehydration, chronic infections and leukemia
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what are six causes of decreased total protein?
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poor nutrition, liver disease, malabsorption, diarrhea, PLN/PLE and burns
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What specific protein change will be seen with protein losing nephropathy?
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a decrease in albumin
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What protein change will be seen with protein losing enteropathy?
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decrease in both albumin and globulin
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What is an elevation in PCV and TP indicate? (2)
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dehydration and relative polycythemia
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What does an elevated TP with low/low-normal PCV usually indicate?
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dehydration that may be masking a more severe anemia
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How is hematocrit calculated?
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HCT= MCVx RBC/10
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What does a decreased hematocrit indicate?
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anemia: regenerative or non-regenerative
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What does an increased hematocrit indicate?
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polycythemia: relative or absolute
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Using hemoglobin, how is PCV estimated?
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Hgb x 3
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What is a physiologic leukocytosis?
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neutrophilia and lymphocytosis
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What does a catecholamines or fear leukogram look like?
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neutrophilia and lymophocytosis
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What is a stress leukogram?
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mature neutrophilia, monocytsosis, and lymphopenia
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What is a corticosteroid leukogram?
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mature neutrophilia, monocytosis and lymphopenia
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What is an inflammatory leukogram?
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>1,000 bands (if early or neutropenic= significant at 10% bands)
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What is a physiologic leukocytosis?
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neutrophilia and lymphocytosis
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What does a catecholamines or fear leukogram look like?
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neutrophilia and lymophocytosis
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What is a stress leukogram?
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mature neutrophilia, monocytsosis, and lymphopenia
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What is a corticosteroid leukogram?
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mature neutrophilia, monocytosis and lymphopenia
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What is an inflammatory leukogram?
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>1,000 bands (if early or neutropenic= significant at 10% bands)
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What are four causes of extreme neutrophilic leukocytosis?
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pyometra, erlichia, hepatozoanosis, fungus
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What are six causes of elevations in mature neutrophils?
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inflammatory, infections, imune ediated disease, stress/corticosteroids, fear and neoplasia
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What are five causes of decreases in mature neutrophils?
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overwhelming infection/inflammation, destruction, neoplasia, bone marrow problems, cyclic hematopoiesis
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What breed show cyclic hematopoiesis leading to neutropenia?
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gray collies
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What do B lymphocytes produce? (2)
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antibody and cytokines
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What do T lymphocytes produce?
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cytokines
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What are four causes for lymphocytosis?
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chronic inflammation, neoplasia, catecholamines, hypoadrencorticism
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What are four causes of lymphopenia?
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steroids, acute inflammation, effusions, lymphoid hypoplasia/aplasia
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What cell type is the marker of chronic inflammation?
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monocytes
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What are four causes of monocytosis?
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chronic inflammation, necrosis, steroids, neoplasia
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What are monocytes called when they migrate into tissues?
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macrophages
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What are six causes of eosinophilia/basophilia?
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allergy, parasites, eosinophilic dz, mast cell neoplasia, hypoadrenocorticism, neoplasia
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What are three causes of eosinopenia?
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steroids, acute inflammation, bone marrow disease
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What are the absolute reticulocyte counts in dogs and cats normally?
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dog: >80,000 cat: >40,000 aggregate retics
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How is corrected reticulocyte percent calculated?
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CRP= retc% X (patient PCV/normal PCV)
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What corrected reticulocyte percent in dogs indicates regeneration? Cats?
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dogs: >1.5%, Cats: >1%
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How is reticulocyte production index calculated?
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CRP/lifespan of reticulocytes
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What is MCV?
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mean cell volume: average cell size
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Macrocytes are indicative of what two conditions?
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regeneration or POODLES
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Microcytes are indicative of what two conditions?
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Iron deficiency and PSS
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What is MCHC?
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mean cell hemoglobin concentration: average Hgb in each cell
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What are three conditions causing hypochromia?
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blood loss, hemolysis, iron deficiency
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What is likely the problem if hyperchromia is shown?
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heinz bodies: chunk of denatured hemoglobin on side of cell; no actual hyperchromia
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What does fibrinogen indicate?
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inflammation
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What are four reasons for thrombocytopenia?
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increased destruction, incerased use, decreased production, sequestration
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What are four causes of heinz body formation?
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oxydative damage, denatured Hgb, onion toxicity, tylenol toxicity
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What are six types of values used to evaluate liver function?
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albumin, bile acids, BUN, total biliubin, glucose/glycogen, and cholesterol
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What is the only clinical entity that causes hyperalbuminemia?
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dehydration
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What are eight causes of hypoalbuminemia?
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poor diet, diarrhea/PLE, fever, infection, liver disease, burns, vasculities, glomerulopathy/PLN
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What is AST? What does it test?
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aspartate aminotransferase: a mitochondrial enzyme; marker for cellular damage
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What are four causes of elevated AST?
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liver damage, kidney infection, myocardial infarction, muscle damage
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What causes elevation of ALT?
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hepatocyte injury
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When is the maximum ALT seen post acute injury?
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48 hours
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What is the half life of ALT in dogs? Cats?
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dogs: 3 days, cats: 6 hours
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What is elevated alkaline phosphatase indicative of?
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cholestasis, both intra and extrahepatic (4x elevation)
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Where is alkaline phosphatase found?
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membrane bound on bile canalicular surface
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What are 6 causes of elevated alkaline phosphatase?
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liver, bone, pregnancy, skeletal growth (pups), steroids (dogs), phenobarbital
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What enzyme will be elevated in a leaky hepatocyte?
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ALT
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What enzyme(s) will be elevated in a dead cell
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AST and ALT
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What enzyme(s) will be elevated in a swollen bile duct?
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Alkaline phosphatase
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What is GGT and what other enzyme is it interchangeable with in diagnostics?
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gamma glutamyl transferase; interchangeable with alkaline phosphatase
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Where is GGT found?
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membrane bound in the bile duct epithelium
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If both alkaline phosphatase and GGT are elevated but alkaline phosphatase is more elevated, what is this suggestive of?
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hepatic lipidosis
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What causes pre-hepatic bilirubin?
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hemolytic anemias
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What causes hepatic bilirubin?
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liver disease or injury
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What causes post-hepatic bilirubin?
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cholestasis
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How much damage must occur before a elevation in BUN is seen?
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75%
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What are four causes of BUN elevations?
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high protein intake/GI bleeding, renal disease, dehydration, exercise
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What are four causes of BUN decreases?
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poor diet/low protein restricted diet, malabsorption, liver disease, diuresis
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What are five causes of an elevation in creatinine?
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renal disease, muscle degeneration/damage, drugs, dehydration, greyhounds
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What is azotemia?
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elevations in either BUN or creatinine
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What test must azotemia be evaluated with?
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urine specific gravity
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What are six causes of glucose elevation?
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diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, hyperadrenocorticism, steroids, hypothyroidism, postprandial
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What are six causes of glucose decrease?
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liver disease, chronic infections, sepsis, pyometra, insulinoma, hepatomas
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Where is glucose metabolized and stored?
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liver
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What are the causes of hypercalcemia?
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GOSHDARNIT
G: granulomatous disease O: osteopathy/osteolytic disease S: spurious H: hyperparathryoidism D: hypervitaminosis D A: Addisions R: renal disease N: neoplasia I: idiopathic T: temperature: cats |
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What are the three most common neoplasias that cause hypercalcemia?
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Lymphosarcoma, Anal sac carcinoma, multiple myloma
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What is the number one cause of hypercalcemia in dogs?
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neoplasia
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What are the causes of hypocalcemia
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HERPES!
H: hypoparathyroidism E: eclampsia R: renal disease P: pancreatitis/phosphorus E: ethylene glycol S: spurious |
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What disease(s) cause HIGH PTH and LOW calcium?
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secondary hyperparathyroidism, nutrional/renal
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What disease causes LOW PTH and calcium?
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primary hypoparathyroidism
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What disease causes HIGH PTH and calcium?
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primary hyperparathyroidism
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What disease causes LOW PTH and HIGH calcium?
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hypercalcemia of malignancy
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What are the six causes of phosphorus elevations?
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decreased GFR, renal failure, growth, diet, ethylene glycol, hypoparathyroidism
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What are the three causes of phosphorus decrease?
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hyperparathryoidism, humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM), eclampsia
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What is the principle intracellular cation?
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potassium
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What are five causes of elevated potassium?
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renal disease, acidosis, hypoadrenocorticism, iatrogenic, diabetes mellitus
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What is the principle extracellular cation?
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sodium
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What are three causes of elevated sodium?
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dehydration, V/D, hyperaldosteronism
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What are two causes of decreased sodium?
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V/D and hypoadrenocorticism
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What is the principle extracellular anion?
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chloride
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What occurs is sodium and chloride are not elevate/decreased together?
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acid/base imbalances
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How is the anion gap measured?
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measure cations - measured anions
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What causes increased anion gap?
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metabolic acidosis and toxins
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What causes decreased anion gap?
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increase in unmeasured anions: hypoalbuminemia
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What type of enzyme is creatine kinase?
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muscle
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What are three causes of increased creatine kinase?
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myopathy, trauma or late stage hypothyroidism
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What are six causes of elevated cholesterol?
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dietary, hypothyroidism, renal disease, hepatic disease, pancreatitis, diabetes mellitis
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What causes decrease in cholesterol? (1)
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hepatic insufficiency
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What test is used specifically to assess pancreatitis?
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cPLI
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What three causes make urine appear red to red/brown?
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hematuria, hemoglobinuria, myoglobinuria
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What causes urine to appear orange to brown?
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billirubinuria
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What is a renal function test done to urine?
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urine specific gravity
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How much renal damage must be done to have an abnormal urine specific gravity?
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>66.6%
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What is considered hyposthenuria on USG?
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<1.0058
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What is considered isothenuria on a USG?
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1.008-1.012
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What is isothenuria usually indicative of?
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kidney starting to fail or dehydration
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What is considered hypersthenuria on a USG in a dog? cat?
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Dog: 1.030, Cat: 1.035
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What does USG assess?
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renal tubule
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What does urine protein evaluate?
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glomerula
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What are six causes of protein in the urine?
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hemorrhage, shock, fever, recent exercise, inflammation, glomerular disease
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What are three ketones?
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B hydroxybutyric acid, acetone, acetoacetic acid
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What ketone cannot be evaluated on a urine dipstick?
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B hydroxybutyric acid
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What causes (3) ketones in the urine?
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starvation, diet, diabetic ketoacidosis
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What is the glucose renal threshold in a dog? cat?
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Dogs: 180, Cats: 280
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What causes (3) elevations in urine glucose?
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rare kidney abnormalities, stress, diabetes mellitus
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What species normally has a small amount of billirubin in its urine?
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canine
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What causes myoglobinuria?
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muscle disease
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What causes hemoglobinuria?
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hemolysis
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What causes hematuria?
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hemorrhage anywhere in urinary tract
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What is the normal pH of urine?
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6.0-7.5
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What does pH of urine evaluate?
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distal nephron function
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What usually causes alkaline urine (9.0)? Why?
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UTI- b/c or urease producing bacteria in the tract
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What is the stain for reticulocytes?
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new methylene blue
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How do you calculate the corrected reticulocyte percent?
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reticulocyte percent x (patient PCV/normal PCV)
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What corrected reticulocyte percent indicates regeneration for dogs? Cats?
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Dogs: > 1.5%; Cats: > 1%
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How is the reticulocyte production index calculated?
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CRP/lifespan of reticulocytes
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What two conditions will homogenous normocytic normochromic cells be seen?
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healthy, non anemic and non-regenerative anemias
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What are two types of non-renerative anemais that are seen with homogenous normocytic/normochromic?
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secondary to systemic disease (CRF, CKD, chronic inflammatory disease) and primary bone marrow disease with failure of effective erythropoiesis
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What will cause macrocytic hypochromic?
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regenerative anemias: blood loss and hemolytic disease
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Books in NT Letters
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Romans, 1-2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, 1-2 Thessalonians
1-2 Timothy, Titus, Philemon Hebrews, James, 1-2 Peter, 1-3 John, Jude, Revelation |
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What are three causes of microcytic hypochromic RBCs?
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1: iron deficinecy
2: copper deficiency 3: PSS (PUPPIES) |
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Books in NT Letters
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Romans, 1-2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, 1-2 Thessalonians
1-2 Timothy, Titus, Philemon Hebrews, James, 1-2 Peter, 1-3 John, Jude, Revelation |
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What is a dog breed that normally has macrocytic RBCs?
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poodles
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What are two dog breeds taht normally have microcytic normochromic RBCs?
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akitas and shiba Inus
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What does a bone marrow aspirate or biopsy allow you to evaluate?
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precursors and normal development and maturation process of all cell lines
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What simple test can differentiate between agglutination and rouleaux? How is it performed?
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Saline dilution: 5 drops of saline on 1 drop of blood
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What is a test for IMHA?
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Coombs
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What is the coombs test? What is its endpoint?
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antiserum directed against Ab bound to RBCs; agglutination is endpoint
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What are two causes of hemolytic anemia due to decreased energy production?
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PK deficiency and hypophosphatemia
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What are two infectious diseases that cause hemolytic anemia?
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hemoplasmas and babesiosis
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What two items cause oxidative damage leading to hemolytic anemia?
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acetominophen and onions
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What two factors lead to immune mediated RBC lysis leading to hemolytic anemia?
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Ig or C3b= extravascular hemolysis/phagocytosis and intravascular lysis
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Who normally gets iron deficiency anemia? Why?
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neonates; b/c low stores, milk low in iron; also have rapidly expanding blood volume
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How do adults get iron deficiency anemia?
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chronic blood loss- usually not evident until moderate to severe and have depleted iron stores
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What four characteristics will be seen on an iron deficiency anemia blood smear?
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1: microcytic hypochromic RBCs
2: poikilocytes 3: target cells 4: poor regeneration |
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What are the two most common tests to assess iron status in an animal?
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1: serum iron
2: stainable iron in bone marrow |
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What is the drawback of the serum iron test to assess the iron status in an animal? What test is done next?
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If serum iron is low, there could still be stores of iron
Do stainable iron in bone marrow to assess stores also |
