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87 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Texas is classified free of what Brucella species?
Brucella abortus and Brucella suis free state
Brucella abortus is what type of issue?
Brucella abortus is a regulatory issue
What are some of the wildlife reservoirs Brucella suis and B. abortus?
Wildlife reservoirs include feral swine for Brucella suis and bison and elk in the Greater
Yellowstone area for B. abortus
“Texas Brucellosis Free” status declared by TAHC - on what dates?
* Cattle: Feb 1, 2008
* Commercial Swine: May 19, 2011
What species are associated with B. abortus?

* Also bison, elk, sheep, goats
B. abortus has a predilection for what?
gravid uterus, fetal tissues, milk
3 major CS of B. abortus
1. Abortion
2. Orchitis
3. Epididymitis
When do abortions associated with B. abortus usually occur?
* In the fifth to ninth month of pregnancy (last trimester), in naïve cattle.
How is B. abortus transmitted?
* Transmission occurs by both vertical and horizontal.

* Horizontal transmission is usually by direct contact with contaminated material.

* mainly through contact (inhalation or ingestion) of contaminated reproductive
fluids or products of birth (placenta, fetus, fetal fluids, vaginal/uterine discharges, semen)
What species is B. suis associated with?

* Also cattle, hares, rodents, wild ungulates– not a regulatory common
How do pigs transmit B. suis?
•Pigs are infected via coitus – female is infected by chronically infected male
4 CS of B. Suis
1. Abortion
2. Orchitis
3. Arthritis
4. Discospondylitis
Brucella infection produces lifelong chronic state with continued bacterial shedding in milk and uterine discharges
Brucella infection produces lifelong chronic state with continued bacterial shedding in milk and uterine discharges
Does Brucella multiply in the environment?
No it does not multiply in environment – obligate pathogen
What is a screening test for Brucellosis?
The card test (the Rose Bengal or buffered Brucella antigen test) is a screening test with a high rate of false positives but very few false negatives
Clinical presentation of a sheep with B. ovis
The major clinical presentation is epididymitis, orchitis, epididymitis in the ram

* Abortion and placentitis are uncommon with B. ovis in sheep.
CS of a dog with B. canis
1. Abortion
2. Epididymitis
3. Discospondylitis
4. Uveitis
5. Glomerulonephritis
5. Osteomyelitis
CS of B. melitensis “Malta Fever”
1. Abortion
2. Mastitis
3. Orchitis
4. Lameness
What species is associated with B. melitensis “Malta Fever”
**sheep and goats

* also camels, alpacas, llamas
Morphological characteristics about Brucella species
* Gram negative coccobacilli

* Facultative intracellular

* Obligate pathogen of Reproductive tract and Reticuloendothelial system
Where are the highest concentrations of B. abortus found?
achieves highest numbers in uterus and fetal tissue/fluids
When does a leukocyte associated bacteremia occur after inoculation of brucella?
Leukocyte associated bacteremia occurs 1-4 weeks post inoculation
Does an animal ever clear its brucella infection?
* Never clear the infection, chronic infection and shedding

** Cattle shed more near parturition
1. Shed in birthing tissue and fluids, milk, semen, urine

2. Ingested or inhaled. Bacteria invade oral mucosa and enter regional lymph nodes.

3. Bacteremia phagocytized by macrophages and neutrophils, but survives and replicates

4. Necrotic placentitis and inflammation in other tissues and organs
Can serological testing tell the difference between brucella strains?
DOES NOT differentiate between strains – does not tell whether it is a B. abortus or B. suis infection/exposure
Card Test: Rose Bengal
* Test for ANTIBODIES to Brucella in serum

* Rapid slide agglutination, reactive with both IgG & IgM (subclinical and chronic)
Sensitivity and specificity of the Card Test (Rose Bengal)?
* A screening test – high sensitivity and low specificity

* high number of false positives
What diagnostic tests could be ran to test for brucellosis?
1. card test
2. particle concentration fluorescence immunoassay
3. fluorescence polarization assay
4. complement fixation test
5. milk ring test
6. culture
confirmatory test of brucella?
What items are good to culture for brucella?
1. Aborted fetus (stomach contents, spleen, lung)
2. fetal membranes
3. vaginal secretions
4. milk
5. semen
6. lymph nodes (genital and mammary)
2 brucella vaccines?
1. RB51
2. Brucella abortus strain 19
Are bulls vaccinated for brucellosis?
RB51 - brucella vaccine
* An O-antigen deficient mutant
* Does not react with serological tests
Brucella abortus strain 19 - brucella vaccine
* Used to vaccinate heifers 4-12 months

* Can cause positive serological tests especially if animal was vaccinated after 12 months of age

* Abortigenic in cattle.
Is brucella zoonotic?
YES all strains
Transboundary Diseases
epidemic diseases that are highly contagious or transmissible and have the potential for rapid spread, irrespective of national borders, causing serious socio-economic and possibly public health consequences.
Agent that causes East Coast Fever
T. parva
How is T. parva transmitted?
Obligate intracellular protozoal parasite transmitted by Rhipicephalus spp. ticks.

* Tick has to be attached for multiple days before the pathogen is triggered to replicate in salivary glands and is then transmitted
CS of East Coast Fever
* Anemia
* Poor BC
* Enlarged lymph nodes
* Decreased milk production
* Splenomegaly
* Hemoglobinemia
* Hemoglobinuria
In a blood smear, in which cells would you find the pathogen if a cow had an acute case of East
Coast Fever?
red blood cells & leukocytes
What is the etiological agent for Rift Valley Fever disease?
Rift Valley Fever virus – a Phlebovirus (family Bunyaviridae)
What clinical sign(s) is the hallmark in a Rift Valley Fever epizootic?
What species are susceptible to Rift Valley Fever?

Cattle, sheep, goats, & humans – to name a few
How is rift valley fever virus (RVF) transmitted?
Mosquito vector
Diagnostics of RVF?
* Virus antigen detection
* IgM or IgG antibody detection
* Virus isolation and IFA
zoonotic threat of RVF
* Classified as a Category A overlap select agent by the CDC and USDA.

* Also poses a potential threat as a biological terrorism agent.
Bovine Babesiosis AKA
* Tick fever
* Texas Cattle fever
* Piroplasmosis
* Redwater
Bovine Babesiosis is reportable to who?
Reportable to TAHC and USDA
Cause of Bovine Babesiosis
Protozoa intracellular parasite--Babesia bovis, B. bigemina
Transmission of Bovine Babesiosis
* Tick vector: Rhipicephalus annulatus, R. microplus

* Transovarial transmission in the tick! – can continue in tick population for 4 or more years
When was Bovine Babesiosis eradicated from the US?
o Vector and Pathogen eradicated from US in 1943, but ticks are coming back along Texas/Mexico border
CS of Bovine Babesiosis
anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly
Diagnostics for Bovine Babesiosis
* Blood Smear- note RBC morphology. Have reticulocytes? Look for Babesia. No retics, probably no Babesia.

Predisposing factor for Bovine Babesiosis
Tick exposure in endemic area
Agents that cause Equine Piroplasmosis
Theileria equi and T. caballi (formerly Babesia)
Is Equine Piroplasmosis reportable?
Reportable to TAHC
How is Equine Piroplasmosis transmitted?
Tickborne, and also spread from animal to animal via contaminated needles
Major clinical sign of Equine Piroplasmosis
Etiologic agent of African Trypanosomiasis
Trypanosoma spp – protozoan parasite
Transmission of African Trypanosomiasis
Via the biological vector = tsetse fly

* The trypanosome is transmitted through the saliva when the fly bites an animal.

**Also spread mechanically through fomites, etc; or through other biting flies like Tabanids.
Species susceptible to African Trypanosomiasis
All domesticated animals
What disease is Avian Bornavirus suspected to be the etiological agent of?
Proventricular dilatation disease (PDD) – a neuro disease
What bird species have clinical signs of Avian Bornavirus infection?
Psittacine birds
What are the clinical signs of Avian Bornavirus infection?
* Gastrointestinal signs: anorexia, emaciation, weight loss, lethargy, regurgitation, diarrhea, presence of undigested feeds in feces

* Neurological signs: ataxia, tremors, seizures, motor or proprioceptive deficits
What is the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of the disease caused by Avian Bornavirus?
Histopathologic examination
In what general category of tissue would you sample for diagnosing Avian Bornavirus?
* Neurologic: cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord.

* Also: adrenal glands, kidney, pancreas

* For antemortum diagnosis – crop biopsy is lower risk but also gives less sensitive results than proventriculus and ventriculus biopsy
What is the etiological agent for Columnaris disease?
Flavobacterium columnaris – bacteria
What is the etiological agent for Ick (or Ich or White spot)?
Ichthyophonus hoferi – fungal
In ulcerative skin disease of fish, what is the most likely Gram classification of the bacteria that cause this disease?
Aerobic, gram-negative rods. Examples: Aeromonas, Edwardsiella, Pseudomonas, Flavobacterium
What is the most common predisposing factor for infectious diseases in pet fish?
Bad/inappropriate water quality and/or temperature and overstocking of tanks
After determining that the water quality is good/normal, what would be the most likely appropriate next diagnostic choice to determine the health status in a sick fish?
Gill clip, fin clip, skin scrape – wet mounts, cytology
What are the 3 main pathogens that cause upper respiratory tract disease in tortoises?
1. Mycoplasmosis
2. Herpes
3. Iridovirus
What is the most important zoonotic disease of reptiles?
What pathogens are associated with dermatosepticemia in an amphibian?

Examples; aeromonas, acinetobacter, alcaligenes, citrobacter, enterobacter, flavobacterium, klebsiella, mima polymorpha, proteus, pseudomonas, staph epidermis, strep group B, chlamydiophyla
What is a causative agent of Chytridiomycosis and what is its classification?
Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis – fungal - recent rapid global spread of this
What is the pathogenesis of dermatosepticemia, commonly known as “Red Leg syndrome” in frogs?
* Ventral and digital erythema, dilation of dermal vessels

* Dermis: multiple foci of necrosis or ulceration; hemorrhagic papules, petecchia
* Hemorrhagic ulceration of tips of digital skin

* Fluids in SQ upper limbs or ventral abdomen

* Ceolomic transudate or effusion: pale yellow or sanguinous

* Hemoptysis
* Ulcerated jaws
* Hypopyon or hyphema
classification of Equine Salmonellosis
* Gram negative
* Facultative anaerobe
* Intracellular
* Many serotypes
Probably most common cause of infectious diarrhea in the horse
Equine Salmonellosis - affects all ages, is contagious and zoonotic
Reservoirs of Equine Salmonellosis
poultry, pig, cattle, sheep, rodents, turtles, dogcat, humans, horses, environment
Transmission of Equine Salmonellosis
FECAL-ORAL – contaminated food/water, rodents, wild birds
Predisposing factors of Equine Salmonellosis
stress: feed deprivation, adverse weather, overcrowding, concurrent illness; temperature, antibiotic therapy, nosocomial
Shedding of Equine Salmonellosis
* Most cases shed for a few weeks
* Can alternate shedding days so you need 5 negative daily or weekly cultures needed to establish a negative status
S. Typhimurium can remain viable for how long in organic matter?
S. Typhimurium can remain viable for 7 months in organic matter – soil, water, feces
Pathophysiology of Salmonella
1. Organism multiplies in GIT

2. Penetration into lamina propria

3. Production of cytotoxin and enterotoxin

4. Causes gut damage, inflammation
Prevention of Equine Salmonellosis
* Isolation and quarantine; disinfection; personal hygiene

* Avoid fecal contamination, minimize stress, dispose of contaminated materials properly
Causative agent of Equine Proliferative Enteropathy
Lawsonia intracellularis
hospital acquired infection