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104 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
List 4 types of epithelial barriers.
mechanical
antimicrobial substances
phagocytes
normal microbial flora
"Cleansing" mechanisms of the skin and GIT
skin = desquamation
GIT = mucus and peristalsis
"Cleansing" mechanisms of eyes and respiratory tract
eyes = tears and lashes
respiratory = mucus and cilia
Lysozyme
antimicrobial substance that breaks down cell wall
2 iron-binding proteins
transferrin and lactoferrin
2 ways that normal microbial flora inhibit establishment of new organisms
competing for nutrients and space.
releasing antimicrobial substances.
ileus (and its results)
lost of peristalsis.

results in overgrowth of flora and crossing of GI bacteria into bloodstream
2 professional phagocytes
(1 cell capable, but not professional)
neutrophils and macrophages
(eosinophil)
Where is neutrophil normally found?

When is it recruited during infection?

Is it long or short lived?
found in blood

recruited early in infection

short lived
3 phases of phagocytosis
recognition and attachment
internalization
killing/destruction
2 types of recognition/attachment in phagocytosis
direct (PRR); recognize cell membrane)
indirect (recognize opsonins attached to cell membrane)
2 significant opsonins in indirect recognition in phagocytosis
C3b
IgG
3 types of killing/destruction in phagocytosis
O2 dependent (antimicrobial lysosymes)
O2 independent (respiratory burst)
NO dependent
2 molecules that generate nitric oxide (NO) radicals
macrophages
INF- gamma
Where are complement proteins found?
plasma
interstitial fluid
secretions
3 complement pathways
classical (activated by IgM or IgG)
alternative (actvated by microbial cell walls)
lectin (activated by collectins)
How is the classical complement pathway activated?
IgG or IgM
How is the alternative complement pathway activated?
bacterial cell walls and basement membrane
How is the lectin complement pathway activated?
collectins

(a type of PRR- pattern recognition receptor)
4 functions of complement
mast cell activation
chemotaxis (neutrophil recruitment)
opsonization
pore formation (microbe killing)
What complement mediators activate mast cells?
C3a
C5a
What complement mediator activates the recruitment of neutrophils (via chemotaxis)?
C5a
What complement mediator activates phagocytosis?
C3b
What complement mediator activates pore formation?
C5b678(9)n
4 types of cell signaling
juxtacrine
autocrine
paracrine
endocrine
What is chemokine's effect on WBC movement?
WBCs move from low to high concentration (travel to inflammation site)
2 types of chemokines (proteins that attract WBCs)
interleukins (IL)
colony-stimulating factors (CSF)
4 cytokine families (based on function)
hemotopoietic
inflammatory
antiviral
immunologic
Action of G-CSF (cytokine)
promote neutrophil production
3 pro-inflammatory cytokines
IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha
Which cytokine activates eosinophils?
IL-5
3 anti-viral cytokines
INF-alpha
INF-beta
INF-omega
(all are Type 1 interferons)
What 2 things is inflammation intending to eliminate?
eliminate cause of cell injury
eliminate dead cells and tissue
2 functions of ACUTE inflammation
dilute/remove injuring agent
prepare tissue for healing
3 microvascular processes in acute inflammation
vasodilation
increased vascular permeability
leukocyte emigration
What is the role of increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation?
allows plasma proteins (complement, Abs) to "leak" to infection site
2 features of infection that the sentinel cells recogize
PAMPs
DAMPs
4 types of sentinel cells
epithelial cells
macrophages
dendritic cells
mast cells
What 3 inflammation mediators activate vasodilation?
histamine
seratonin
prostaglandin E2
Role of C5a, chemokines, and bacterial peptides in acute inflammation
chemotaxis
Role of interferons?
inhibit VIRAL replication
What cells secrete Type 1 interferons?
any cell infected by viruses
What cells secrete Type 2 interferons (responsible for immume and inflammatory responses)?
Th1 lymphocytes and NK cells
What type of interferon is INF-gamma?
Type 2
What class of lymphocyte is part of innate immunity?
NK cells
How do NK cells activate macrophages?
Secrete INF-gamma
Function of MHC
transport intracelllar antigens to the cells surface where TCR (T-cell receptor) can see it
Which MHC class presents antigens to CD8 T-cells?
MHC class 1
Which MHC class presents antigens to CD4 T-cells?
MHC class 2
Which MHC class and T-cell type are responsible for intracellular antigens?
MHC class 1
CD8
Which MHC class and T-cell type are responsible for extracellular antigens?
MHC 2
CD4
4 key features of lymphocytes
re-circulation (blood->lymph tissue->blood)

1 lymphocyte for 1 antigen

clonal proliferation

confer memory to adaptive immunity
Which lymphocyte secretes antibodies?
B cells
Where are B-cells located in lymphoid tissue?
follicles/nodules
Where are T-cells located in lyphoid tissue?
diffuse tissue
Identifying surface molecule of B-cells
CD79
Identifying surface molecule of Tcells
CD3
Identifying surface molecule of helper T-cells (Th1, Th2, T17, Tfh)
CD4
Identifying surface molecules of cytotoxic T-cells (Tc)
CD8
What type of lymphiod tissue are bone marrow, thymus,a nd cloacal bursa?
primary
Where do B and T-cells mature?
primary lymphoid tissue
What type of lymphoid tissue are spleen, lymph nodes, and MALT?
secondary
Where do lymphocytes respond to antigens?
secondary lymphoid tissue
Describe the circulation pattern of "naive" lymphocytes?
circulate between blood and secondary lymphoid tissues
Describe the circulation pattern of memory lymphocytes
return to the type of lymphoid tissue in which they were 1st activated
Pro/Con of intranasal vaccine for mucosal infection.
pro = provide better local immunity

con = duration of immunity is not as long as if vaccine was administered systemically
What central tolerance selection process occurs in primary lymphoid tissue?
Negative selection
Immature lymphocytes that have affinity to ANY antigen are destroyed (since they are likely self antigens)
Describe positive selection process in the cortex of thymus
Immature lymphocytes that do NOT recognize MHC are destroyed
If an immature lymphocyte recognizes MHC class 1, it will become _______.
a mature CD8 T-cell
If an immature lymphocyte recognizes MHC class 2, it will become _________.
a mature CD4 T-cell
Describe the negative selection process in the medulla of the thymus
Immature lymphocytes that have HIGH affinity for MHC molecules are destroyed
4 phases of antibody responses
lag
log
plateau
decline
4 features/steps of lymphocyte activation (cell-mediated immunity)
recognition
activation
proliferation
differentiation
2 types of cells produced in differentiation during CMI
effector and memory cells
Compare primary and secondary immune responses in terms of kinetics, magnitude, Ab class, affinity for Ag, and TCR affinity for Ag
kinetics = 2nd is faster
magnitude = 2nd is greater
Ab class= 1st(IgM) 2nd(IgA, IgG, IgE)
Ab affinity = 2nd Ab's have greater affinity
TCR affinity = no change
3 ways immune responses are terminated
antigen is eliminated (no longer a stimulus)

IgG antibodies inhibit B-cell activation (feedback inhibition)

Treg cells secrete suppressive cytokines that inhibit T and B-cell activation
Where is IgG made? Where are they found?
made in systemic immune system.

found in plasma and tissue fluids
Where is IgM made? Where is it found?
made is systemic immunse system and MALT.

found in plasma
Which antibody is secreted in pentomeric form?
IgM
Where is IgA made? Where is it found?
made in MALT.

found in secretions and plasma (low)
Where is IgE made? Where is it found?
made in MALT.

found in mast cells
Which antibody is secreted as a dimer?
IgA
5 functions of antibodies
neutralization
complement activation
opsonization
antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
mast cell activation
Inhibition by binding and preventing attachment to cellular receptors is called _____.
neutralization
__________ is the process by which a cell internalizes fluids and soluble molecules.
pinocytosis (cell drinking)
________ is the reaction of an antibody or antigen receptor with more than one antigen receptor
cross reaction
What is an epitope?
the site on an antigen that is recognized by an antigen receptor
The most important cell that presents Ags to naive CD4 cells are ________.
myeloid dendritic cells
5 types of effector CD4 cells
Th1
Th2
Th17
Tfh
Treg
Where is IgA made? Where is it found?
made in MALT.

found in secretions and plasma (low)
Where is IgE made? Where is it found?
made in MALT.

found in mast cells
Which antibody is secreted as a dimer?
IgA
5 functions of antibodies
neutralization
complement activation
opsonization
antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
mast cell activation
Inhibition by binding and preventing attachment to cellular receptors is called _____.
neutralization
List 3 mediators that induce acute-phase response
IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha
List the disease progression from SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) to death.
SIRS-->sepsis-->severe sepsis-->septic shock-->MODS (multi-organ dysfunction)-->death
_____ is a uncontrollable inflammatory response to an infection.
sepsis
List at least 3 clinical signs for SIRS
hyperthermia/hypothermia
tachycardia
leukopenia (low WBC count)
leukocytosis (high WBC count)
tachypnea
Disregulation of coagulation is a clinical sign of _________.
sepsis
During sepsis, is the immune response too weak or too strong?
Either. Too weak to fight infection or so strong it damages organs.
Describe the PIRO staging system for sepsis.
P = predisposition (genetic, environmental)
I = infection (source, severity)
R = response (proof, via labwork, clinical signs)
O = organ dysfunction (# and magnitude)
List atleast 2 conventional treatments for sepsis
plasma (increase Abs)
fluid therapy
broad spectrum Abs
flush inflammed areas
List at least 2 non-traditional treatments for sepsis.
insulin therapy
glucocorticoids (immune suppresant)
activated protein C
3 characteristics of a "good" antigen
large size
complexity
foreigness