Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
323 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Which scientist "proved" spontaneous generation?
|
John Needham
|
|
|
Which scientist disproved spontaneous generation?
|
Lazzaro Spallanzani
|
|
|
Who disproved spontaneous generation for good?
|
Louis Pasteur
|
|
|
Who discovered phagocytosis?
|
Elie Metchnikoff
|
|
|
Who came up with the theory of antibody-antigen interactions (lock and key)?
|
Paul Ehrlich
|
|
|
Who demonstrated that there was passive transmission of antibodies from mother to fetus?
|
Paul Ehrlich
|
|
|
Who developed Serum Theory?
|
Emil Von Behring
|
|
|
Who developed a therapeutic serum against tetanus?
|
Shibasaburo Kitasato
|
|
|
Who discovered complement?
|
Jules Bordet
|
|
|
Who showed that genetically different twin calves which had shared blood circulation in utero were immunoloiclly tolerant to tissues grafted from the other calf?
|
Ray Owen
|
|
|
Who proposed clonal selection and clonal deletion?
|
Sir MacFarlane Burnet
|
|
|
Who revealed the life cycle of the lymphocyte, discovered the importance of the thoracic duct, and discovered that the cell was at the centre of the immune response?
|
James Gowans
|
|
|
Who discovered that mice become immunologically tolerant to foreign tissues if exposed in utero?
|
Peter Brian Medawar
|
|
|
Who discovered the genetic locus strongly associated with graft rejection?
|
George Snell
|
|
|
Who discovered the MHC?
|
Peter Gorer
|
|
|
What are the two major phagocytic cell types?
|
Macrophages and Neutrophils
|
|
|
What is a hapten?
|
A small antigen
|
|
|
What part of the complement C1 protein binds foreign material?
|
C1q
|
|
|
What parts of the complement C1 protein have protease ability?
|
C1r and C1s
|
|
|
What immune lecitin binds carbohydrates?
|
Mannan-like binding protein (MBL)
|
|
|
What are the names of the two pulmonary surfactant molecules that opsonise alveolar macrophages?
|
SP-A and SP-D
|
|
|
What is the name of the immune factor (innate) that binds aceytl groups on foreign antigens?
|
Ficolins
|
|
|
What is the name of a protein that triggers complement by binding the phosphocholine of PAMPs?
|
C-reactive Protein
|
|
|
What do scavenger receptors bind to?
|
Lipotechtoic acid (Gram positive bacteria)
|
|
|
What does the f-MLP receptor bind to?
|
Formyl-methionine on microbes
|
|
|
What antigen does TLR-2 bind?
|
Lipotechoic Acid
|
|
|
What antigen does TLR-3 bind?
|
dsRNA
|
|
|
What antigen does TLR-4 bind?
|
LPS
|
|
|
What antigen does TLR-5 bind?
|
Flagellin
|
|
|
What antigen does TLR-6 bind?
|
Zymosan
|
|
|
What antigen does TLR-9 bind?
|
Unmethylated CpG DNA
|
|
|
What adaptor do both TLR-4 and TLR-9 activate?
|
Myd88
|
|
|
Myd88 activates which transcription factor?
|
NFkB
|
|
|
Myd88 stimulates the production of what?
|
TNF-a
|
|
|
The Myd88 independent pathways results in the production of what two things?
|
Nitric Oxid Synthase
Type 1 Interferons |
|
|
Name the three steps in the detection of LPS by TLR-4.
|
1) LPS binds LPS-binding protein in fluid
2) LPS-LBP complex passes to CD14 on cell surface 3) LPS-CD14 complex interacts with TLR-4 |
|
|
Cells responding via TLR-3 to dsRNA release what?
|
Beta-defensins 2 and 3
|
|
|
Cells responding via TLR-2 and TLR-4 to LPS produce what?
|
Beta-defensin 2
|
|
|
Name two compounds that the body produces to starve potential microbial invaders.
|
Lactoferrin
VitB12 binding protein |
|
|
Name the three cell types found in the skin that promote defense against invaders.
|
Keratinocytes
Langerhans Cells Mast Cells |
|
|
Langerhans cell are the ( ) cells of the skin.
|
Dendritic
|
|
|
Name the three functions of SP-A and SP-D.
|
Reduce microbe adhesion
Opsonize for phagocytosis Nutralise toxins |
|
|
Name three lipid inflammatory mediators.
|
Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes Platlet Activating Factor |
|
|
What does CC stand for. What does CXC stand for.
|
CC= two cysteines
CXC= cysteine-X-cysteine |
|
|
CXCL8 attracts what two cell types?
|
Neutrophils and T cells
|
|
|
Which two complement components are also known as anaphlatoxins?
|
C3a and C5a
|
|
|
What is the counter ligand for CR3 (complement receptor 3)?
|
ICAM-1
|
|
|
What does ICAM stand for?
|
Intercellular Adhesion Molecule
|
|
|
Which selectin is preformed, as in, the cell already has it made, and is just waiting to express it.
|
P-selectin
|
|
|
Where can P-selectin and E-selectin be found?
|
On the blood vessel epithelium
|
|
|
What do P and E selectin bind, and on which cell type?
|
Sialyl Lewis moieties
Neutrophils |
|
|
Name the three factors that induce the expression of P selectin.
|
LTB4, C5a, Histamine
|
|
|
Name the two factors which induce the expression of E selection.
|
LPS and TNFa
|
|
|
What cells are found in the paracortical area of the lymph node?
|
T cells. This is the T cell zone.
|
|
|
In Peyer's Patches, which cell type transcytoses antigens?
|
M cells
|
|
|
Correct MHC-I binding ( ) NK cell activation.
|
Inhibits
|
|
|
Which cytokines (2) and what interleukin activate NK cells.
|
IFN-a/B, IL-12
|
|
|
NK makes IFN-y. What does this do to macrophages.
|
Activates them.
|
|
|
How does the C1 inhibitor inhibit C1?
|
Removes C1r:C1s
Serine protease inhibitor |
|
|
What do Kinins do?
|
Promote smooth muscle contraction and capillary leakage.
|
|
|
What does Factor I do?
|
Cleaves and inactivates C3b and C4b.
|
|
|
What does Factor H do? Two things.
|
Binds C3b, displacing Bb.
Co-factor for Factor I. |
|
|
What is C4BP?
|
Co-factor for C4b cleavage.
|
|
|
What three factors does complement receptor 1 bind? What does this do?
|
C3b, iC3b, C4b
Accelerates the dissociation of C3 convertase |
|
|
What are the three co-factors for Factor I?
|
Factor H
CR1 MCP |
|
|
What two complement proteins does MCP (Membrane Co-factor for Proteolysis) bind?
|
C3b and C4b
|
|
|
What is the function of DAF (Delay-Accelerating Factor)? What other factor does it cooperate with?
|
Accelerates the dissociation of the C3 convertase.
MCP. |
|
|
What does Protectin do?
|
Prevent complement activation on random cells in body.
Inhibits the MAC Attack. (blocks binding of C9 to C8) |
|
|
What are two inhibitors of the MAC Attack?
|
S Protein
CD59 Protectin |
|
|
What diseases are caused by a defect in the Classical Pathway? (C1, C4, C2).
|
SLE Glomerulitis
Pyogenic Infections |
|
|
What happens to bth pathways if you have a defect in C3? What problems are associated with this?
|
Both pathways deficient.
Glomerulonephritis, Pyogenic Infections, Immune-Complex Disease |
|
|
What happens if you have a defect in Properin or Factor D?
|
Defect in Alternative Pathway.
Pyogenic Infections. |
|
|
What happens if there is a defect in the MAC Attack?
|
Chronic Neisseria Infections.
|
|
|
What happens if you have a defect in C1INH (complement inhibitor)?
|
Deregulated C3 consumption.
SLE, Hereditary Angioneurotic Edema |
|
|
What happens if you have a Factor I or Factor H defect?
|
Deregulated C3 consumption.
Pyogenic Infections, Immune Complex Disease. |
|
|
What happens if you have a DAF or CD59 deficiency?
|
Erthyrocyte Lysis
Paraoxymal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria |
|
|
Complement receptors CR1, CR3, and CR4 are responsible for what phenomenon?
|
Opsonisation.
|
|
|
CR2 enhances what?
|
B cell activation.
|
|
|
What are the three anaphylatoxins?
|
C3a, C4a, C5a
|
|
|
What is an epitope
|
A specific part of an antigen to which an immune response can be raised.
|
|
|
What are the four functions of antibodies?
|
Neutralisation
Opsonisation Activate Complement Upregulate Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity |
|
|
The antibody binding site of the T cell receptor is ( ) ?
|
Hypervariable
|
|
|
MHC-I can be found where?
|
All nucleated cells (not on erythrocytes)
|
|
|
What sized peptide can MHC-I bind?
|
8-10 amino acids
|
|
|
What sized peptide does MHC-II bind?
|
13-17 amino acids
|
|
|
True or False: ydT cells are restricted by MHC.
|
False.
|
|
|
What are the two domains that make up the binding site of a TCR or a BCR?
|
Va and VB (variable)
|
|
|
What is the size of the epitope that can be recognized by the BCR?
|
6-12 amino acids
|
|
|
What are the four regions that make up a BCR?
|
Variable
Diversity Joining Constant |
|
|
For different segments to recombine, what must occur?
|
Cell division
|
|
|
What is the order of joining of the cassettes in the light chain?
|
V-J, V-J-C
|
|
|
Which cassettes make up the hypvariable region
|
V and J
|
|
|
In what type of B cell does D and J joining occur?
|
Pro-B Cell
|
|
|
What is the order of joining in the heavy chain?
|
D-J, V-D-J, V-D-J-C
|
|
|
What is a Recombination Signal Sequence?
|
Sequences conserved in cassettes and used to control DNA rearrangements.
|
|
|
What are the two types of RSS?
|
23 base pair spacer
12 base pair spacer |
|
|
What is the 12/23 rule?
|
A gene segment flanked by an RSS with a 12 base pair spacer can only join with one with a 23 base pair spacer.
|
|
|
In the lambda chain, the V cassette is proximal to a ( ) spacer. The J cassette is proximal to a ( ) spacer
|
23bp
12bp |
|
|
In the kappa chain, the V cassette is proximal to a ( ) spacer and the J cassette is proximal to a ( ) spacer.
|
12bp
23bp |
|
|
In the heavy chain, the V cassette is proximal to a ( ) spacer, the J cassette is proximal to a ( ) spacer and the D region is proximal to a ( ) spacer
|
23
23 12 |
|
|
The enzyme VDJ recombinase is a complex of which two gene products? What do they do?
|
RAG1/2
cleave DNA |
|
|
What does the TdT enzyme do?
|
Adds nucleotides to hairpins.
|
|
|
RAG1/2 binds to what?
|
The hepatmer/nonamer seqence conserved in RSSes
|
|
|
Descrine the mechanism of RAG Dependant Recombination.
|
RAG1/2 binds heptamer/nonamer, get cleavage.
Artermis and DNA-PK open DNA hairpin to produce extended single stranded end. TdT adds random nucleotides to fill the gap. DNA ligase joins the DNA ends. |
|
|
Name four ways that you can get BCR diversity.
|
Joining of Different Cassettes
Random nucleotide addition. Fact that these occur in both heavy and light chains. Somatic Hypermutation. |
|
|
What is somatic hypermutation?
|
Point mutations in variable regions giving rise to mutant B cell receptors.
|
|
|
What enzyme mediates somatic hypermutation? What does it do?
|
AID: Activation Induced cysteine Deaminase.
Changes C to U. |
|
|
What is gene conversion?
|
Activation of the enzyme APE1 which induces the formation of single stranded nicks and leads to insertion of V pseudogenes.
|
|
|
What is the Fab portion of an antibody responsible for?
|
Antigen binding
|
|
|
What is the Fc portion of an antibody responsible for?
|
Constant region
Receptor binding |
|
|
Which antibodies can cross the placenta (two)?
|
IgG1 and IgG3
|
|
|
How are constant regions removed in isotype switching?
|
They are looped out.
|
|
|
What two constant regions are expressed together in mature, unactivated, B cells.
|
M and D
|
|
|
What is the name of the chain that links IgA dimers and IgM pentamers
|
J chain
|
|
|
What are the three HLA class I antigens?
|
A, B, C
|
|
|
What are the three HLA class II antigens?
|
DR, DQ, DS
|
|
|
What is the name of the protein complex responsible for making MHC-I?
|
TAP Complex
|
|
|
What are the two domains of the TAP complex?
|
ATP binding cassette
Hydrophoic Transmembrane Domain |
|
|
How is MHC-I transported to the ER?
|
By TAP
|
|
|
What is the name of the chaperone that holds the a-chains of the MHC-I together until a peptide can come in?
|
Calnexin
|
|
|
Which two chaperones move the MHC-I to the TAP complex?
|
Calreticulin
Erp57 |
|
|
What is the name of the protein that helps MHC-I bind to TAP?
|
Tapasin
|
|
|
What is the invariant chain?
|
A peptide that is inserted into MHC-II, making it look "complete" so that it is allowed to go into the secretory vesicle.
|
|
|
The invariant chain is cleaved by proteases,leaving what protein?
|
CLIP
|
|
|
What is the name of the protein that binds to MHC-II, releasing CLIP and allowing a peptide to enter?
|
HLA-DM
|
|
|
Name four ways, involving TAP, that a pathogen can evade the immune system.
|
Block entry of peptide into the ER
Prevent MHC presentation Degrade the MHC Bind the MHC at the surface, preventing T cell interaction |
|
|
How many MHC-I genes are there?
How many MHC-II genes are there? |
3
3-4 |
|
|
How many MHC molecules can a cell have on it at any given time?
|
12-14
|
|
|
Which cytokine can cause upregulation of MHC-I?
|
IFN-y
|
|
|
Where can the Class I, II, and III genes be found?
|
Chromosome 6
|
|
|
HLA-1B genes make which protein? What are its two functions?
Where is it expressed (two)? |
1) MHC Class I like cell surface proteins (MIC)
2) NK recognition, Iron metabolism 3) Epithelial cells, fibroblasts |
|
|
Which HLA is expressed on fetal derived placental cells? What does it do?
|
HLA-G
Inhibits NK cells, preventing rejection of pregnancy |
|
|
Expressing which HLA makes a cell immune to NK killing?
|
HLA-E
|
|
|
What do superantigens cause? What is the ultimate superantigen?
|
Cytokine storms
CD28 |
|
|
What is the name of the MHC-like protein, found on dendritic cells nd monocytes, that can present glycolipids to T cells?
|
CD1
|
|
|
What do SH2 domains bind to?
|
Phosphotyrosine
|
|
|
What do SH3 domains bind to?
|
Amino acid stretches rich in proline
|
|
|
What do PH domains bind to?
|
PIP3
|
|
|
Name two ways that the initial signal in a signalling pathway can be amplified.
|
Activation of kinase cascade
Generation of second messengers |
|
|
What is a lipid raft?
|
A specialised region of the cell membrane where receptors ans signalling proteins concentrate
|
|
|
Name two proteins that turn off signalling.
|
SHP- dephosphorylates protein substrates
Cbl- marks proteins for degradation via ubiquitin |
|
|
What does the variable chain of the TCR/BCR do?
What does the invariable chain of the TCR/BCR do? |
1) Antigen recognition
2) Signal transduction |
|
|
What makes up the variable chain of the BCR?
What makes up the invariable chain of the BCR? |
1) heavy and light chain
2) Iga and IgB |
|
|
Name the four components of the BCR, and how many copies there are of each.
|
Light Chain- 2
Heavy Chain- 2 Iga Chain- 1 IgB Chain- 2 |
|
|
Iga and IgB form a ( )
|
Heterodimer
|
|
|
What is the variable chain of the TCR?
What is the invariable chain of the TCR? |
1) alpha and Beta chain
2) CD3 complex |
|
|
Name the components of the TCR, and how many copies there are or each
|
Alpha chain
Beta chain Heterodimer of CD3e and CD3y Heterodimer of CD3e and CD3d Homodimer of zeta chain One copy of all of the above |
|
|
How many MHC-II complexes does the CD4 need to see on an APC to be activatd?
|
10-50
|
|
|
How many MHC-I complexes does the CD8 cell need to see on a cell to become activated?
|
3
|
|
|
How many BCRs need to be engaged to get B cell activation?
|
20
Need cross linking with another BCR |
|
|
What are the components of a c-SMAC?
|
TCR
CD4/CD8 PKC-theta |
|
|
What are the components of a p-SMAC?
|
LFA-1
ICAM-1 |
|
|
What is an ITAM?
|
Immunoreceptor Tyrosime based Activation Motif
|
|
|
How many ITAMs do Iga and IgB have?
How many ITAMs does the BCR have in total? |
One each.
Two |
|
|
How many ITAMs do CD3 proteins have?
|
One each
|
|
|
How many ITAMs does each zeta chain contains? How many in a zeta homodimer?
|
Three
Six |
|
|
How many ITAMs does a TCR have in total?
|
Ten
|
|
|
Which receptor, found on B cells, binds complement? Two names.
|
CD21/CR2
|
|
|
Which part of the complement receptor complex (CD21) of the B cell transduces the signal?
|
CD19
|
|
|
What does ITIM stand for? What is its purpose?
|
Immunoreceptor Tyrosine-based Inhibitory Motif
Allows BCR and TCR to be turned off rapidly |
|
|
What receptor in the TCR has an ITIM?
|
CTL4
|
|
|
What receptor in the BCR has an ITIM
|
Fc-y-RIIB-1
|
|
|
How does Fc-y-RIIB-1 work inthe context of BCR inactivation?
|
At end of response,antigen is coated with antibody instead of complement
Fc-y-RIB binds antibody and dampens the BCR signal |
|
|
Which two receptors mediate the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
|
Fas and TNFR-1
|
|
|
How does the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis occur?
|
Cytochrome C released from mitochondria, activating caspases.
|
|
|
What is the initiator caspase of the Extrinsic pathway? The intrinsic pathway?
|
Caspase 8
Caspase 9 |
|
|
What are the effector caspases of both in intrinsic and the extrinsic pathway (three)?
|
Caspase 3,6, and 7
|
|
|
Fas recruits which protein?
|
FADD
|
|
|
How does FADD mediate apoptosis?
|
DED domain binds DED domain of pro-caspase 8
|
|
|
When cytochrome C is released, what does it bind?
|
Apaf-1
|
|
|
Which caspases does Apaf-1 bind? What other protein does it cleave?
|
pro-Caspase 3 and 9
I-CAD --> CAD |
|
|
What does Cad do?
|
Cleaves DNA
|
|
|
Hematopoietic Stem Cells differentiate into ( ), which gives rise to two other types of progenitors.
|
Multipotent Progenitor
|
|
|
What are the names of the two progenitors that MPP gives rise to?
|
CFU-GEMM: common granulocyte/erthyrocyte/magekaryocyte progenitory
Early Lymphocyte Progenitor |
|
|
What two cell types does the Early Lymphocyte Progenitor give rise to?
|
Common Leukocyte Progenitor: B cells and NK cells
Early T lineage precursor |
|
|
What are the four stages of B cell development?
|
Stage 1: pre/pro B cell
Stage 2: Immature B cell Stage 3: Mature B cell Stage 4: Activated B cell |
|
|
Signalling through which receptor (1), by which protein (2) is important for differentiation from the MPP?
|
1) FTL3-L
2) FTL3 |
|
|
Bone marrow stromal cells secrete which interleukin to promote B cell development?
|
IL-7
|
|
|
When a V gene segment joins a DJ segment, what are the odds of a productive arrangement?
|
1 in 3
|
|
|
When both alleles are taken into account, what is the ultimate success rate of V-DJ rearrangements?
|
55%
|
|
|
What is the surrogate BCR light chain made of (two)?
|
l-5 and VpreB
|
|
|
If you knockout l-5, what happens?
|
Get expression of two BCRs
|
|
|
Expression of the BCR interferes with expression of which enzyme?
|
RAG1/2
|
|
|
When a heavy chain has been productively rearranged, what is the B cell now called?
|
A pre-B cell
|
|
|
Which light chain is rearranged first?
|
The kappa chain
|
|
|
How many chances do you have to get a productive rearrangement in a light chain?
|
5 (there are 5 J cassettes)
|
|
|
Once a light chain has been successfully made, the B cell becomes a _______?
|
Immature B cell
|
|
|
What is allelic exclusion?
|
Once a sucessful heavy or light chain made, all other arrangements shut down.
|
|
|
What is isotypic exclusion?
|
Can have a light chain either from kappa or lambda, not both.
|
|
|
What is the principle of the Clonal Selection Theory?
|
A B cell can recognizeonly one specificity of antibody.
|
|
|
What happens if a BCR recognizes self with high affinity?
|
Receptor Editting or Deletion
|
|
|
What happens if a BCR recognizes self with medium affinity?
|
Anergy
|
|
|
What happens if a BCR recognizes self with low affinity?
|
Become clonally ignorant
|
|
|
What is receptor editting?
|
The creation of a new light chain to replace a self reactive one.
|
|
|
What happens to BCRs that recognize soluble self antigens?
|
Anergy
|
|
|
When can receptor editting occur?
|
At the immature B cell stage
|
|
|
What are the three ways that C1q can bind a pathogen in the Classical Pathway?
|
1) Bind directly to the surface of bacteria
2) Bind C reactive Protein 3) Bind Antibody-Antigen Complexes |
|
|
How is C1r cleaved?
How is C1s cleaved? |
1) Autocleavage
2) C1r cleaves it |
|
|
What component of C1 acts on C4 and C2 to make the C3 convertase?
|
C1s
|
|
|
What complement components make up the C3 convertase?
|
C4bC2b
|
|
|
How does the C3 convertase form?
|
C4b binds pathogen,and then binds C2, making it susceptible to cleavage by C1s
|
|
|
What role does C2b play in the C3 convertase?
|
Its a serine protease that cleaves C3 to C3a and C3b.
|
|
|
What role does C3b play?
|
Coats pathogen
|
|
|
What role does C3a play?
|
Inflammatory mediator (anaphylatoxin)
|
|
|
What are the two carbohydrates that can initiate the Lectin Pathway?
|
Mannose
N-acetylglucosamine |
|
|
What binds N-acetylglucosamine
|
Ficolins
|
|
|
What binds mannose residues
|
Mannose Like Binding Protein (MBL)
|
|
|
After MBL binds the pathogen, what two factors bind to it?
|
MASP1 and MASP2
|
|
|
Of MASP1 and MASP2, which one is responsible for forming the C3 convertase?
|
MASP2- it cleaves C4 and C2
|
|
|
How do normal cells prevent themselves from being attacked by the Lectin Pathway?
|
They cover the cells in sialic acid, hiding the mannose residues.
|
|
|
How does the Alternative Pathway start?
|
C3 gets cleaved spontaneously
|
|
|
In the Alternative Pathway, once C3 is cleaved, what Factor binds?
|
Factor B
|
|
|
What cleavesthe bound Factor B?
|
Factor D
|
|
|
What are the components of the C3 convertase in the alternative pathway?
|
C3bBb
|
|
|
What competes with Factor B to bind C3?
|
Delay Accelerating Factor (DAF)
|
|
|
What does Factor I do to C3b?
|
Cleaves it to make iC3b, inactivating it.
|
|
|
What does Factor P do? What is its other name?
|
A positive factor for complement, stabilizing C3bBb.
Properdin. |
|
|
How is the C5 convertase made?
|
C3bC4bC2b
|
|
|
What does the C5 convertase do?
|
Makes C5b and C5a
|
|
|
What complex inserts itself into the membrane, initiating the polymerisation of C9?
|
C5bC6C7C8B in conjunction with C8a-y
|
|
|
What makes the membrane attack complex?
|
C9
|
|
|
Class II binding is ( ) than class I binding.
|
Permissive
|
|
|
What five factors do Macrophages express?
|
IL-1-B, TNFa, IL-6, IL-8 (CXCL8), IL-12
|
|
|
IL-8 (CXCL8), secreted by macrophages, does what?
|
Attracts neutrophils
|
|
|
IL-6, secreted by macrophages, does what?
|
Stimulates secretion of acute phase proteins
|
|
|
True/False: TNFR1 is a G protein coupled receptor?
|
False
|
|
|
IL-1-Beta causes ( )?
|
Fever
|
|
|
CD14 binds what? Is it transmembrane?
|
LPS
Not transmembrane |
|
|
TLR-2 knockout mice have an impaired reaction to Gram _____ Bacteria.
|
Positive
|
|
|
Beta-defensin 2 activates which Toll-like receptor?
|
TLR-4
|
|
|
TLR-2 can be agonised by which Hsp?
|
HSP70
|
|
|
What protein inactivates the Src family (Fyn, Lck, Lyn, Blk) enzymes?
|
Csk
|
|
|
What protein activates Src family enzymes?
|
CD45
|
|
|
What do scavenger receptors recognize?
|
Lipotechoic Acid
|
|
|
Super-antigens do not require what to stimulate a response?
|
Processing and presentation
|
|
|
NFkB is a dimer of what
|
Rel family transcription factors
|
|
|
Postive selection of T cells begins at what stage?
|
Single Positive
|
|
|
IL-7 stimulates development of what?
|
B cells
|
|
|
Negative selection of T cells occurs at which stage?
|
DP stage
|
|
|
What stimulates B cells to stop in the T cell zone?
|
Antigen binding the BCR
|
|
|
Defects in the apoptotic pathway lead to what?
|
Autoimmunity
|
|
|
Mature dendritic cells express this receptor?
|
CCR7
|
|
|
Does rapamycin block IL-2 production?
|
Yes
|
|
|
Rapamycin does what?
|
Inhibits response to IL-2
|
|
|
True/False: IL-2 can stimulate NK cells?
|
True
|
|
|
pSMAC precedes production of what?
|
cSMAC
|
|
|
What is SLC?
|
CD34 and GlyCAM1
|
|
|
True/False: central memory cells express similar levels of CCR7 as naive T cells and cannot respond to SLC
|
True
|
|
|
Th17 has what transcription factor?
|
RORyT
|
|
|
If Properdin (Factor P) is not present, what will happen?
|
No amplification of complement cascade
No alternative C3 convertase |
|
|
Factor I is a ______ protease
|
Serine
|
|
|
Factor H associates with _____ charged surfaces
|
negatively
|
|
|
What is HLA A/B/C?
|
MHC-I
|
|
|
What is HLA D?
|
MHC-II
|
|
|
True/False: Passive immunisation with antibodies against the donor MHC-II can help prevent graft rejection.
|
True
|
|
|
The cells that proliferate in MLR are?
|
T cells
|
|
|
True/False: Addition of antibodies to the MHC-II molecules of the MLR reduces responder cell proliferation.
|
True
|
|
|
Antibody dependant cell mediated cytotoxicity is mediated by which cell type and which cell type only?
|
NK cells
|
|
|
True/False: Th2 activation does not favour cancer cell growth
|
False
|
|
|
What percentage of sufferers of primary immunodeficiencies are male?
|
83%
|
|
|
HIV infection does what to the thymus?
|
Involution and fibrosis
|
|
|
HIV infection can cause candiasis where?
|
Esophagus
|
|
|
True/False: CVID is not associated with autoimmunity
|
False
|
|
|
CD4 is a ______ whereas CD8 is a _____
|
monomer
heterodimer |
|
|
Which two receptors expressed on macrophages promote uptake of antibody coated bacteria?
|
CR1
FcyRI |
|
|
How does complement facilitate the removal of immune complexes?
|
Binds them and allows them to get taken up by erthyrocytes
|
|
|
True/False: Complement promotes ADCC
|
False
|
|
|
True/False: Complement can be activated by IgM in serum
|
False
|
|
|
Where do plasma cells live?
|
Bone marrow
|
|
|
Eosinophils are stimulates by what interleukin?
|
IL-5
|
|
|
An amnestic humoral response is implicated in what disorder?
|
Serum Sickness
|
|
|
Treg cells have high expression of which CD?
|
CD25
|
|
|
True/False: complement proteins have been implicated in autoimmune disease
|
True
|
|
|
True/False: CD8 cells can kill cells they don't touch?
|
False
|
|
|
Can CD8 cells have memory in the absence of CD4?
|
No
|
|
|
Tr1 cells do not express what?
|
FoxP3
|
|
|
What three factors stimulate hepatocytes to release acute phase proteins?
|
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a
|
|
|
What do acute phase proteins do? Give an example of on of them.
|
Act like antibodies, except with broad specificity.
C reactive protein |
|
|
MHC I molecules bind peptides from where?
|
The cytosol
|
|
|
MHC II molecules bind peptides from where?
|
Intracellular vesicles
|
|
|
Describe the structure of MHC-II. Where is the antigen binding pocket?
|
2a and 2B
a/B binding pocket |
|
|
Describe the structure of MHC I. Where do antigens bind?
|
3a, 1B
a1/a2 pocket |
|
|
How does MHC I bind CD8
|
Via a3
|
|
|
Effector Memory T cells are no longer capable of responding to what?
|
SLC
|
|
|
Where do Effector Memory T cells go?
|
To tissues
|
|
|
Dendritic cells can express this in both mature and immature states.
|
DC-SIGN
|
|
|
When do dendritic cells express DC-CK?
|
When they are mature
|
|
|
True/False: Dendritic cells rarely express LFA-3
|
False
|
|
|
True/False: T cells require a CD62L dependent interaction with CD34 on the lymph node HEV in order to reach the APC in the lymph node.
|
True
|
|
|
True/False: In an allergic response, cytokines are produced immediately.
|
False
|
|
|
CR2 can be found on what two cell types?
|
Follicular Dendritic Cells
B cells |
|
|
C5a acts through which type of receptor?
|
G coupled protein
|
|
|
True/False: Both DAF and CD59 (Protectin) are anchored to the cell membrane?
|
True
|
|
|
Mice deficient in what cannot survive infection by Gram Negative Bacteria?
|
TLR-4
|
|
|
How does Beta-defensin 2 mediate is effects?
|
Through TLR-4
|
|
|
Stimulation of the macrophase via TLR 4 leads to the production of _______ via the Myd88 dependent pathway, and ______ via the Myd88 independent pathway.
|
TNFa
iNOS |
|
|
IFN-y, relased by NK cells, causes normal cells to upregulate the expression of what?
|
MHC-I
|
|
|
True/False: Superantigens can stimulates several TCRs.
|
True
|
|
|
Can CD4 positive T cells be found at the light zone of the germinal center?
|
Yes
|
|
|
MAC lysis can cause inflammation in which type of hypersensitivty?
|
Type III- Immune Complex Mediated
|
|
|
What compounds does CD8 release to mediate its effector function?
|
Perforin, Granzymes, Granulysin
|
|
|
What is Stage One cancer?
|
Cancer growth in a localised area, has not broken the basement membrane.
|
|
|
What is Stage Two cancer?
|
Cancerous growth that has broken the basement membrane but not left the organ of origin.
|
|
|
What is Stage Three cancer?
|
Growth that has spread to surrounding areas.
|
|
|
What is Stage Four cancer?
|
Growth that has moved to distant secondary sites.
|
|
|
Neoplastic cells are _____clonal.
|
monoclonal
|
|
|
Who is more likely to get cancer? Someone with no B cells or someone with no T cells?
|
The person with no B cells.
|
|
|
What are two characteristics of cancer cells, in terms of protein expression?
|
Re-expression of embryonic antigens
Overexression of normal cell antigens |
|
|
TSAs for carcinogen-derived cancers are _______ for each cancer.
|
Unique.
|
|
|
What are tumour specific transplantation antigens?
|
Cell antigens that are specific targes of tumour rejection mechanisms
MHC-I dependant |
|
|
What are tumour associated antigens?
|
Normal tissue proteins and glycoproteins that are produced in abnormal quantities by tumour cells
More useful in tumour diagnosis |
|
|
What are four examples of TAAs?
|
Ig (myeloma)
alpha fetoprotein Chorionic gonadotropin (choriocarcinoma) Carinoembryonic antigen (colon cancer) |
|
|
Macrophages and NK cells can bth engage in what?
|
ADCC
|
|
|
MHC deficient cells are able to evade what type of cell? What cells ultimately take care of them?
|
Cytotoxic T cells
NK cells |
|
|
IL-6 stimulates the Liver to produce what?
|
MBL
Fibrinogen CRP SPA |
|
|
CD8 interacts with which domain of the MHC-I
|
a3
|
|
|
Mutations in AIRE cause which disease?
|
APECED
|
|
|
What can immature dendritic cells do besides antigen presentation?
|
Create tolerance in T cells
|
|
|
People lacking Th17 are extremely susceptible to these two types of infections,because they can't make IL-22
|
Candida, Staph
|
|
|
What serves as the self-antigen in SLE?
|
Ribonucleoprotein
|
|
|
What is the other name for CCL21? What does it do to the T cell?
|
SLC
Gets it to express LFA-1 and go into HEV |
|
|
Can tumours tolerise the immune system with excess antigen?
|
Yes
|
|
|
CCL2 is secreted by what and promotes what.
|
Macrophages
Th2 immunity |
