Immunology - General

Front 1

what are the functions of lymph nodes?

Back 1

filtration by macrophages, storage/proliferation of B and T cells, antibody production

Front 2

what is the site of B cell localization and proliferation?

Back 2

follicle

Front 3

which follicles are dense and dormant?

Back 3

primary

Front 4

which follicles have pale central germinal centers and are active?

Back 4

secondary

Front 5

these communicate with efferent lymphatics and contain reticular cells and macrophages

Back 5

medulla

Front 6

what region of the lymph node houses T cells?

Back 6

paracortex

Front 7

in an extreme cellullar immune response, what part of the lymph node becomes greatly enlarged?

Back 7

paracortex

Front 8

this portion of the lymph node is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge syndrome

Back 8

paracortex

Front 9

what drains the right arm and the right half of the head?

Back 9

right lymphatic duct

Front 10

what drains everything but the right arm and right half of head?

Back 10

thoracic duct

Front 11

where are T cells found in the spleen?

Back 11

periarterial lymphatic sheath adn red pulp (T rex)

Front 12

where are B cells found within the spleen?

Back 12

white pulp

Front 13

these are long, vascular channels in red pulp with fenestrated "barrel hoop" basement membrane

Back 13

sinusoids of spleen

Front 14

what is found in the marginal zone of the spleen?

Back 14

APCs

Front 15

where do T cells mature? what is this derived from embryologically?

Back 15

thymus; epithelium of 3rd branchial pouches

Front 16

what part of the thymus is dense with immature T cells?

Back 16

cortex

Front 17

what part of the thymus is pale with mature T cells and epithelial reticular cells?

Back 17

medulla (M-mature/medulla)

Front 18

what part of the thymus contains Hassall's corpuscles?

Back 18

medulla

Front 19

MHC restriction occurs in what type of selection?

Back 19

positive

Front 20

nonreactive to self is associated with what type of selection?

Back 20

negative

Front 21

where do positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?

Back 21

corticomedullary junction

Front 22

these cells producse IL-2 and gamma-interferon

Back 22

Th1 cells

Front 23

these cells activate macrophages and Tc cells

Back 23

Th1 cells

Front 24

what do macrophages produces to influence naive helper T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells?

Back 24

IL-12

Front 25

what cells produce IL-4 and IL-5? what does this do?

Back 25

Th2 cells - causes B cells to differentiate into plasma cells

Front 26

what type of cells are responsible for host defense against infection with TB, virus-infected cells, and fungi?

Back 26

T cells

Front 27

what type of cells opsonize bacteria and neutralize toxins and viruses?

Back 27

B cells

Front 28

what type of cells are responsible for hay fever and Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

Back 28

B cells

Front 29

what type of cells are responsible for poison oak allergy and type IV hypersensitivity?

Back 29

T cells

Front 30

what type of cells are responsible for autoimmunity?

Back 30

B cells

Front 31

what type of cells are responsible for graft and tumor rejection and regulation of antibody response?

Back 31

T cells

Front 32

what MHC class consists of 1 polypeptide with beta2-microglobulin?

Back 32

MHC class I

Front 33

what MHC class consists of 2 polypeptides, and alpha and beta chain?

Back 33

MHC class II

Front 34

what cells have MHC I proteins?

Back 34

all nucleated cells

Front 35

what cells have MHC I and MHC II proteins?

Back 35

APCs

Front 36

what MHC class are the main determinants of organ rejection?

Back 36

MHC class II

Front 37

where does MHC I antigen loading occur?

Back 37

in RER (viral antigens)

Front 38

where does MHC II antigen loading occur?

Back 38

in acidified endosome

Front 39

helper T cells have ____, which binds to ____ on antigen-presenting cells

Back 39

CD4; MHC II

Front 40

cytotoxic T cells have ____, which binds to ____ on virus-infected cells

Back 40

CD8; MHC I

Front 41

this is a cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor; it is important in signal transduction

Back 41

CD3 complex

Front 42

what does Th cell secrete that activates Tc cell to kill virus-infected cell?

Back 42

IL-2

Front 43

what do APCs express that bind to CD28 on Th cells to create the costimulatory signal?

Back 43

B7

Front 44

what part of an antibody recognizes antigens?

Back 44

variable part of L and H chains

Front 45

what part of antibody fixes complement?

Back 45

constant part of H chain of IgM and IgG

Front 46

what chain contributes to both Fc and Fab fractions?

Back 46

heavy chain

Front 47

what chain contributes only to Fab fraction?

Back 47

light chain

Front 48

how is antibody diversity generated?

Back 48

1. random recombination of VJ (light chain) or VDJ (heavy chain) genes
2. random combination of heavy chains with light chains
3. somatic hypermutation
4. addition of nucleotides to DNA during genetic recombination by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Front 49

what mediates isotype switching?

Back 49

cytokines and CD40 ligand

Front 50

what is the main antibody in the secondary response?

Back 50

IgG

Front 51

what is the most abundant antibody?

Back 51

IgG

Front 52

this Ig type fixes complement, crosses the placenta, opsonizes bacteria, and neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses

Back 52

IgG (Goes across placenta)

Front 53

this Ig type prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes, does not fix complement

Back 53

IgA

Front 54

this Ig type is a monomer or dimer that is found in secretions and picks up secretory cmoponent from epithelial cells before secretion

Back 54

IgA

Front 55

this Ig type is produced in the primary response to an antigen

Back 55

IgM (priMary)

Front 56

this momomer or pentamer fixes complement but does not cross the placenta; antigen receptor found on the surface of B cells

Back 56

IgM

Front 57

this Ig type does not have a clear function; it is found on the surface of many B cells in serum

Back 57

IgD

Front 58

this Ig mediates immediate (type I) hypersensitivity by inducing the release of mediators from mast cells and basophils when exposed to allergen

Back 58

IgE

Front 59

this Ig has the lowest concentration in serum

Back 59

IgE

Front 60

this Ig mediates immunity to worms

Back 60

IgE

Front 61

this type of Ig epitope differs among members among members of same species; can be on light chain or heavy chain

Back 61

allotype (polymorphism)

Front 62

this is an Ig epitope common to a single class of Ig (5 classes, determined by heavy chainn)

Back 62

isotpe (IgG, IgA, etc.)

Front 63

this Ig epitope is determined by antigen-binding site; specific for a given antigen

Back 63

idiotype

Front 64

patients are given preformed antibodies after exposure to what four diseases?

Back 64

tetanus, botulinum, HBV, rabies (to be healed rapidly)

Front 65

this type of immunity is based on receiving preformed antibodies from another host

Back 65

passive

Front 66

this type of immunity is induced after exposure to foreign antigen - slow onset but long-lasting production

Back 66

active

Front 67

how does salmonella show antigen variation?

Back 67

two flagellar variants

Front 68

how does nenisseria gonorrhoeae show antigen variation?

Back 68

pilus protein

Front 69

what is anergy?

Back 69

self=reactive T cells become nonreactive without costimulatory molecule

Front 70

what types of hypersensitivity are antibody-mediated?

Back 70

I, II, III

Front 71

in this type of hypersensitivity, antigen cross=links IgE on presensitized mast cells and basophils, triggering release of vasoactive amines (e.g. histamine)

Back 71

type I (anaphylactic and atopic)

Front 72

anaphylaxis, asthma, hives, local wheal and flare are examples of what type of hypersensitivity?

Back 72

type I

Front 73

in this type of hypersensitivity, IgM, IgG bind to antigen on "enemy" cell, leading to lysis (by complement) or phagocytosis

Back 73

type II (cyotoxic)

Front 74

autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Rh disease, Goodpasture's, rheumatic fever, Grave's disease, bullous pemphigoid, MG, and ITP are all examples of what type of hypersensitivity?

Back 74

type II

Front 75

in this type of hypersensitivity, antigen-antibody complexes activate complement, which attracts neutrophils; neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes

Back 75

type III

Front 76

polyarteritis nodosa, immune complex glomerulonephritis, SLE, RA, serum sickness, and Arthus reaction are examples of what type of hypersensitivity?

Back 76

type III

Front 77

this is an imuune complex disease in which antibodies to foreign proteins are produced (takes 5 days); immune complexes are formed and deposit in membranes where they fix complement

Back 77

serum sickness (type III)

Front 78

this is a local subacute antibody-mediated hypersensitivity (type III) reaction in which intradermal injection of antigen induces antibodies which form Ag-Ab complexes in skin

Back 78

Arthus reaction

Front 79

this type III hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by edema, necrosis, and activation of complement

Back 79

Arthus reaction

Front 80

hypersensitivity pneumonitis (farmer's lung) and thermophilic actinomycetes are examples of what?

Back 80

Arthus reaction

Front 81

in this type of hypersensitivity, sensitized T lymphocytes encounter antigen and then release lymphokines, which leads to macrophage activation

Back 81

type IV (delayed/T-cell mediated)

Front 82

transplant rejections, TB skin tests, and contact dermatitis are examples of what type of hypersensitivity?

Back 82

type IV

Front 83

fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after drug exposure

Back 83

serum sickness

Front 84

what defends agains gram-negative bacteria?

Back 84

complement

Front 85

the classic pathway is activated by what?

Back 85

IgG or IgM (GM makes classic cars)

Front 86

what activates the alternate pathway?

Back 86

molecules on the surface of microbes (especially endotoxin)

Front 87

interferons induce the production of a 2nd protein that inhibits viral protein synthesis by doing what?

Back 87

degrading viral mRNA

Front 88

these are proteins that place uninfected cells in an antiviral state

Back 88

interferons (alpha, beta, gamma)

Front 89

which interferons inhibit viral protein synthesis?

Back 89

alpha and beta interferons

Front 90

what does gamma-interferon do?

Back 90

increases MHC I and II expression and antigen presentation in all cells

Front 91

this type of rejection is due to the presence of preformed antidonor antibodies in the transplant recipient

Back 91

hyperacute rejection

Front 92

this type of transplant rejection is cell-mediated due to cytotoxic T lymphocytes reacting against foreign MHCs

Back 92

acute rejection

Front 93

what type of transplant rejection is reverisble with immunosuppressants such as cyclosporin and OKT3?

Back 93

acute rejection

Front 94

this type of transplant rejection is characterized by antibody-mediated vascular damage (fibrinoid necrosis) and is irreversible

Back 94

chronic rejection

Front 95

what are major symptoms of graft-versus-host disease?

Back 95

maculopapular rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and diarrhea