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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The IFN-y is principal cytokine that: a) can stimulate expression of MCH class ll in DC & macrophage b) may be produced by NK cells during immune response c) can stimulate expression of MCH class ll in vascular endothelium d) may be produced by Ag-activated Th1 cell during adaptive immunity e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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What describes γδ T cells but NOT αβ T cells is: a) are major population of T cells of peripheral blood b) can recognize Ag displayed by CD1 molecule c) recognize only protein Ag d) are MCH restricted cells e) all of the above are correct |
c) recognize only protein Ag |
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Which sentence about IgG is true: a) division into 4 subclasses is based on differences in structure of λ b) only IgG1 and IgG3 can cross through placenta c) participate in cytotoxicity of NK cells via binging to CD16 d) together with IgM can cross via placenta e) its valiancy equals 4 |
c) participate in cytotoxicity of NK cells via binging to CD16 |
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The most often occurring congenital infection caused by pathogen central nervoussystem disease, thrombocytopenia, and hepatosplenomegaly is: a) HSV b) Listeria c) E. coli d) GBS e) CMV |
a) HSV |
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MBL: a) its level decreases in early response to infection b) together with CRP belong to pentraxin family c) belong to opsonin d) binding MNL to microbe results activation its serine protease e) all of the above are correct |
c) belong to opsonin |
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Contact of APC’s with microbial products can result with: a) ↑ the expression of MHC molecules b) ↑ the expression of costimulators c) synthesis of APCs derived cytokines d) expression of chemokine receptors e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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Increase of propensity of disseminated infections with Nisseria meningitidis and N.gonorrhoeae can be the result of deficiency of: a) C3, C4 component b) C5-C9 components c) C1 inhibitor d) membrane cofactor protein e) decay accelerating factor |
b) C5-C9 components |
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Which of the following events initiates activation of the lectin complement pathway: a) C1 binding to microbial surface b) spontaneous cleavage of C3 c) C3 binding to complement receptor d) cleavage of C3 by factor D e) MBL binding to microbial surface |
e) MBL binding to microbial surface |
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The peripheral lymphocyte phenotype CD4+CD8-B+NK+, mutation in the TAP protein, impaired expression of MHC class I molecules describe: a) WAS b) BLS-l c) XLA d) BLS-ll e) HIES |
b) BLS-l |
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The characteristics of Th1 cells include: (lecture2, slide 118) a) can help cytotoxic T cell precursors develop into effector cells b) can activate macrophage infected with Mycobacterium, Chlamydia c) can enhance intracellular killing by IFN-y production d) can help B cells to produce different classes of Ab e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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What sentence properly describes the thymus:(lecture 1, slide 12) a) starts to grow between birth and puberty b) is the major place for NK cells maturation c) its atrophy is directed by sex hormones d) the most mature T cells are situated in the thymic cortex e) is the place for differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 |
c) its atrophy is directed by sex hormones |
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The pathomechanism of RAG1 and RAG 2 deficiency relies on: a) mutation in gene for enzyme that meditates signaling from interleukins receptors b) impaired integrins ligands synthesis c) inability of rearrangement of lymphocytes antigen receptors d) inability to phagocytose engulfed pathogen e) inability of antibodies class switching |
c) inability of rearrangement of lymphocytes antigen receptors |
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Antiviral effect of antibodies consists of: a) blocking binding to host cell b) opsonization of coated virus for phagocytosis c) blockade of virus receptor d) antibody dependent cell meditated virus inhibition by NK cells e) all of the above answers are correct |
b) opsonization of coated virus for phagocytosis |
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The features of defensins are: a) can disrupt membrane function of microorganisms b) are chemotactic for DCs, monocytes, T cells c) can limit microbes in lungs & intestine d) are present in leukocyte cytoplasmic granules e) all of the above answers are correct |
b) are chemotactic for DCs, monocytes, T cells |
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What feature describes B cells: a) <10% of B cells in the circulation express IgG, IgA or IgE b) their interaction with specific Ag triggers activation of ITAMs c) processes receptors for complement components i.e. C3b, C3d d) the main markers used for their identification are CD19 & CD20 e) all of the above answers are correct |
d) the main markers used for their identification are CD19 & CD20 |
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Patients with X- linked agammaglobulinemia are characterized by: a) males normally produce opsonizing antibodies b) problematic infections with most of viruses c) mutation of Btk elastase d) lack of mature T cells e) none of the above answers is correct |
e) none of the above answers is correct |
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Vaccine- induced immunity against flu is clinically valid for about one year due to the fact that: a) vaccine against flu can induce only one year lasting immunity b) flu virus is characterized by great variability (every season we have newflu strain) c) vaccine is made of antigens only (not whole virus) d) we usually take a flu vaccine shot too late e) no one can be sure if vaccine taken can induce desired immunologicalresponse |
b) flu virus is characterized by great variability (every season we have new flu strain) |
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Inherited immunodeficiency with absence of bloodmonocytes & neutrophils, low lymphocyte count, normal or decreased platelets level, infection within few days, patient usually dies by 3 months, are features of: (lecture 9, slide 24) a) Di George syndrome b) LAD type 1 c) Cyclic neutropenia d) Chediak- Higashi syndrome e) Reticular dysgenesis |
e) Reticular dysgenesis |
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Soluble host protein able to recognize PAMP and initiate defense against pathogen is: a) lysozyme b) transferrin c) IL-1 d) MBL e) integrins |
d) MBL |
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What sentence about phagocytes is correct: a) PMNs develop from the same early precursor as monocytes b) PMNs migrate into tissue as immature cells c) monocytes can live 2-3 months in the blood d) PMNs but not monocytes can internalize microbes e) none of the above answers is correct |
a) PMNs develop from the same early precursor as monocytes |
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Cyclic neutropenia is disease related to: a) mutation in ELA2 gene b) affects only males c) decreased neutrophils number <500/µl for 3 weeks d) impaired fusion of neutrophils granules e) is diagnosed by NBT test preparation |
a) mutation in ELA2 gene |
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Delayed hypersensitivity skin test is used to determine viability of: a) B cells b) NK cells c) macrophages d) T cells e) neutrophils |
d) T cells |
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Which infection can contribute to death in patients who suffer from XHIGM: a) Streptococcus pneumonia b) Pneumocystis carinii c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Shigella e) E. coli |
b) Pneumocystis carinii |
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Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test (NBT) is the diagnostic test for: a) Chronic granulomatous disease b) Chediak- Higashi syndrome c) measurement of neutrophils nitric oxide radicals production d) LAD type 1 e) A+C are correct |
a) Chronic granulomatous disease |
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γδ T cells features include: a) recognize Ag with MCH class II presentation b) account for 10-15% of blood leukocytes c) most of them are double positive (Cd4+CD8+) d) possess TCRs biased towards superantigens e) all of the above are correct |
d) possess TCRs biased towards superantigens |
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The feature that can describe Common Variable immunodeficiency are: a) problematic bacterial, viral, fungal and parasitic infections b) absence of B cell in majority of patients c) is usually recognized in the first decade of life d) all the patients have decreased serum concentration of IgM e) all of the above are correct |
a) problematic bacterial, viral, fungal and parasitic infections |
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The viral strategies for survival include: a) impaired production of IL-1 b) production of soluble IFN receptors c) interference with TGF signaling d) interfering with B cell recognition e) all of the above answers are correct |
b) production of soluble IFN receptors |
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Which process DOES NOT happen during development of the T cell linage: a) migration progenitor cell to peripheral lymphoid organ. b) elimination of thymocytes with autoreactive TCRs c) rearrangement of genes TCR Ab and TCR γδ d) generation of CD4+ and CD8+ cells subsets e) MHC restriction process |
a) migration progenitor cell to peripheral lymphoid organ. |
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What sentence about T cell is correct: a) CTLs are the only cells that can destroy infected cells b) CTLs can kill by cytokines stored in granules c) T cells for direct killing demand cell-cell interaction d) Th2 cells help macrophages to destroy intracellular pathogens e) none of the above are correct |
c) T cells for direct killing demand cell-cell interaction |
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The principal function of IFNs are: a) IFN-a & IFN-b are mainly produced by activated Th1 cells b) IFNs can induce antiviral resistance in uninfected cells c) IFN-y is mainly produced by cells infected by virus d) IFNs are produced only during adaptive immune responses e) all of the above are correct |
b) IFNs can induce antiviral resistance in uninfected cells |
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ADA deficiency: a) is result of enhanced cytotoxic activity of NK cells b) results with reduction of the formation of B-cell and T-cell c) is related to shorter life span of mainly B lymphocytes d) patients can develop effective response against some viruses e) all of the above are correct |
b) results with reduction of the formation of B-cell and T-cell |
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LAD type 1 is characterized by: a) inability to make pus & leukocytosis b) mutation in B- chain of chemokines c) defective synthesis of ligands to opsonins d) diagnosis is based on NBT test e) presence of abnormal granules in WBC & melanocytes |
a) inability to make pus & leukocytosis |
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What feature describes bone marrow: a) is the place of Tregs cell maturation b) is the place of destroying old erythrocytes by macrophages c) together with spleen is primary site of hematopoiesis in adults d) is the place of antibodies production e) organ not able to produce cytokines |
c) together with spleen is primary site of hematopoiesis in adults |
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The process of ligation Fas- FasL proteins can result with: a) induction of apoptosis of target cells by CD8+ T cells b) activation of B cell to secrete antibodies c) activation of immunoglobulin class switching process d) killing of target cell by γδ Tcells e) none of the above answers are correct |
a) induction of apoptosis of target cells by CD8+ T cells |
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The mechanism of anti-fungal defense includes: a) defensins activity b) recognition of fungal PAMP’s by TLR c) opsonization by surfactant proteins A & D d) internalization and killing by PMNs e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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Adjuvants are substances that: a) administered with protein Ag Decrease T cell-dependent immune response b) their examples can be LPS & killed mycobacteria c) decrease expression of costimulators and cytokines needed for t cellactivation d) inhibit migration of the DCs to lymph nodese) all of the above are correct |
b) their examples can be LPS & killed mycobacteria |
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The cytokines that can be produced by macrophages & DCs, can inhibit production of inflammatory cytokines and is called negative feedback regulator is: a) IL-1 b) TNF c) IL-12 d) IL-10 e) IL-2 |
d) IL-10 |
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The feature of memory T cell is: a) respond to Ag more rapid than naive T cells b) express increased levels of antiapoptotic proteins c) their maintenance depends on cytokines d) the number of memory T cells specific for Ag is greater than number of naiveT cell for the same Ag e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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What is the role of IL-2: a) is required for the survival and function of eosinophils b) can stimulate the survival, proliferation and differentiation of activated Tcells c) is produced mainly by Treg cells to inhibit antibodies synthesis d) stimulates inflammation process e) none of the above are correct |
b) can stimulate the survival, proliferation and differentiation of activated T cells |
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Mononuclear phagocytes are cells that: a) are the firs that migrate to site of infection b) are the most abundant subpopulation in the blood c) belong to professional APCs d) can live 2-3 months in the blood e) leave the bone marrow as fully mature cells |
c) belong to professional APCs |
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The immunogenicity of polysaccharide vaccines increases when polysaccharide conjugated with a protein carrier because of: a) T cell involvement in conjugated antigens presentation b) Increase longevity of memory cells (T cells vs B cells) c) ability to induce better immunological response in absence of fullydeveloped spleen (especially true < 2 years of age) d) A+B answers are correct e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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What characterize natural antibodies: a) have limited number of specificities b) can recognize common molecular patterns on stressed cells c) usually are not specific for protein d) in humans are specific for oxidized lipids e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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Surface markers such as CD2, CD28, promoting activation and cytotoxicity stimulation describe: a) Type ll helper T cell b) Type l helper T cell c) cytotoxic T cells d) activated macrophages e) NK cells |
b) Type l helper T cell |
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Wiskott- Aldrich syndrome can be described by: a) severe post- polysaccharide vaccines reactions b) first symptoms appear at approximately age 11 years c) Leukocytosis with lymphopenia d) increased IgM level e) all of the above answers are correct |
a) severe post- polysaccharide vaccines reactions |
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What describes immunity of newborn is: a) increased production of pro-inflammatory cytokines i.e. IFN, IL-12 b) impaired development of anti- viral CD8 cytotoxic T cells c) long- lived B cell antibody response d) higher production of IgG2 antibodies e) all of the above answers are correct |
b) impaired development of anti- viral CD8 cytotoxic T cells |
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Features associated to DiGeorge anomaly can be: a) ↑ α fetoprotein, hypocalcernia, dysmorphic face b) thrombocytopenia, lymphomas, autoimmune disease c) reduced CD3+ during the first 3 years of life, hypocalcemia, athymia d) hypoparathyreosis, adenopathy, splenomegaly e) all of above answers are correct |
c) reduced CD3+ during the first 3 years of life, hypocalcemia, athymia |
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PRRs characteristics include: a) are expressed on plasma membrane & in the cytoplasm of molecules b) are involved in response to heat shock proteins c) can bind TLRs directly or through the opsonins d) are not able to recognize nucleic acid ligands e) none of the above answers are correct |
b) are involved in response to heat shock proteins |
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Which of the below statements concerning hyper IgM syndrome is NOT TRUE: a) low or absent IgG and IgA is typical b) high IgM level is the most striking and often feature c) diarrhea related to Cryptosporidium spp. is a typical feature d) affected patients often suffer from liver insufficiency e) Pneumocystis and Parvovirus infections are often |
d) affected patients often suffer from liver insufficiency |
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Complement deficiency may be clinically manifested as: a) SLE- like syndrome b) recurrent pyogenic infections c) severe Neisseria infections d) hereditary angioedema e) all of the above answers are correct |
e) all of the above answers are correct |
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The NK cells features are: a) can share some surface markers with T cells and phagocytes b)recognize host cells infected with intracellular pathogens c) express the receptor for IL-2 d) participate in ADCC process using CD16 molecule e) all of above answers are correct |
d) participate in ADCC process using CD16 molecule |
