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112 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What immunoglobulins bind and activate the classic complement pathway?
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IgG and IgM (the Fc portion)
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The Fc portion of immunoglobulins are at the ____ terminal.
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The carboxy terminal
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3 main roles of Ig binding to bacteria
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"opsonization
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What is the most abundant immunoglobulin isotype?
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IgG
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What is the main antibody in the secondary immune response?
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IgG
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What antibody isotype can cross the placenta?
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IgG
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What Ig is found in secretions as a monomer or a dimer?
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IgA
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What immunoglobulin isotype prevents the attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes?
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IgA
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What Ig is found in secretions as a monomer or a pentamer?
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IgM
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What immunoglobulin isotype is produced in the primary response to an antigen and is on the surface of B cells?
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IgM
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What immunoglobulin isotype is involved in type-I hypersensitivity reactions?
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IgE
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What immunoglobulin isotype mediates immunity to worms?
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IgE
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What immunoglobulin isotype has the lowest concentration in serum?
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IgE
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Define Ig allotype.
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Ig epitope that differs among members of the same species (on light or heavy chain)
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Define Ig isotype.
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Ig epitope common to a single class of Ig (5 classes, determined by the heavy chain)
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Define Ig idiotype.
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Ig epitope determine by the antigen-binging site (specific for a given antigen-binding site)
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Role of TH1 cells?
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produce IL-2 (activate Tc cells and further stimulate TH1 cell) and g-interferon (activate macrophages)
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Role of TH2 cells?
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produce IL-4 and IL-5 (help B cells make Ab)
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What interleukin induces naive helper T-cells to become TH1 cells?
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IL-12
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What interleukin induces naive helper T-cells to become TH2 cells?
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IL-4
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What kind of immunity (antibody-mediated or cell mediated) is involved in graft and tumor rejection?
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cell mediated immunity (T cells)
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What kind of immunity (antibody-mediated or cell mediated) is involved in autoimmunity?
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antibody-mediated immunity (B cells)
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Define adjuvant.
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Nonspecific stimulators of the immune response but are not immunogenic by themselves.
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What kinds of adjuvants are included in human vaccines?
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aluminum hydroxide or lipid
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Class I major histocompatibilty complex consists of
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1 polypeptide, with beta2-microglobulin
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Class II major histocompatibilty complex consists of
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2 polypeptides, an alpha and a beta chain
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The 3 kinds of MHC class I genes are
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A, B, and C
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The 3 kinds of MHC class II genes are
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DP, DQ, DR
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All nucleated cells have what class of MHC proteins?
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class I MHC proteins
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What kinds of cells have class II MHC proteins?
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antigen-presenting cells (e.g. macrophages and dendritic cells)
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What class of MHC proteins are the main determinants of organ rejection?
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class II MHC
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MHC I Ag loading occurs in ____ while MHC II Ag loading occurs in ____?
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"in rER (viral antigens)
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Helper T cells have CD(?) which binds to class (?) MHC on antigen-presenting cells.
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CD4 binds to class II MHC
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Cytotoxic T cells have CD(?), which binds to class (?) MHC on virus-infected cells.
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CD8 binds to class I MHC
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What is important about the CD3 complex?
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It is a cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor and is important in signal transduction.
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What are 3 types of antigen-presenting cells?
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macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells
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Which interleukin causes fever?
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IL-1
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What 2 cytokines are secreted by macrophages?
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IL-1 and TNF-alpha
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Which interleukin supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells?
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IL-3
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What type of cell secretes IL-3?
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activated T-cells
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IL-4 promotes the growth of B cells and the synthesis of what 2 immunoglobulins?
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IgE and IgG
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Which interleukin enhances the synthesis of IgA?
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IL-5
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Which interleukin stimulates the production and activation of eosinophils?
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IL-5
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What type of cells does gamma interferon stimulate?
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macrophages
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What cytokines attract and activate neutrophils?
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TNF-alpha and beta
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What interleukin stimulates the growth of both helper and cytotoxic T-cells?
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IL-2
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What 3 cytokines are classified as 'acute phase cytokines'?
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IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha
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Define hyperacute transplant rejection.
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Antibody-mediated due to the presence of preormed anti-donor antibodies in the transplant recipient. Occurs within minutes after transplantation.
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Define acute transplant rejection.
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Cell-mediated due to cytotoxic T lymphocytes reacting against foreign MHCs. Occurs weeks after transplantation.
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What kind of transplant rejection is reversible with immunosuppressants such as cyclosporin and OKT3?
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acute transplant rejection
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Define chronic transplant rejection.
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Antibody-mediated vascular damage (fibrinoid necrosis)--irreversible. Occurs months to years after transplantation.
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What are the major symptoms of graft-vs.-host disease?
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maculopapular rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and diarrhea.
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With what disease are anti-nuclear antibodies associated?
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systemic lupus
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What 2 kinds of autoantibodies are specific for systemic lupus?
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Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith
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With what disease are anti-histone autoantibodies associated?
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drug-induced lupus
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What kind of autoantibodies are known as rheumatoid factor?
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anti-IgG antibodies
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What kind of autoantibodies are associated with CREST/Scleroderma?
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anti-centromere antibodies
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Anti-Scl-70 autoantibodies are associated with what disease?
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diffuse Scleroderma
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Primary biliary cirrhosis has what kind of autoantibodies?
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anti-mitochondrial antibodies
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Goodpasture's syndrome is associated with what kind of autoantibodies?
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anti-basement membrane antibodies.
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What disease is associated with anti-epithelial cell autoantibodies?
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Pemphigus vulgaris
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What disease is associated with anti-microsomal autoantibodies?
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Hashimoto's thyroiditis
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Anti-gliadin autoantibodies are associated with what disease?
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Celiac disease
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After exposure to what 4 things are preformed (passive) antibodies given?
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Tetanus toxin, Botulinum toxin, HBV, or Rabies.
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How is passive immunity acquired?
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By receiving preformed antibodies from another host. Antibodies have a short life span, but the immunity has a rapid onset.
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How is active immunity acquired?
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After exposure to foreign antigens. There is a slow onset with long-lasting protection.
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What affect do the acute phase cytokines have on the bone marrow?
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Incr. Production of Colony stim. Factor (CS) which leads to leukocytosis
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What affect do the acute phase cytokines have on the hypothalamus?
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increase body temperature
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What affect do the acute phase cytokines have on fat and muscle?
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mobilization of energy reserves to raise body temperature
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What is the rise in temperature during the acute phase response help do (3 things?)
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"Increase specific immune response
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What does TNF-alpha stimulate dendritic cells to do during the acute phase response?
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TNF-alpha stimulates their migration to lymph nodes and their maturation for the initiation of the adaptive immune response.
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What does a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor cause (in the complement cascade)?
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angioedema because of overactive complement
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What does a deficiency of C3 cause (in the complement cascade)?
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can lead to severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections.
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What does deficiency of decay-accelerating factor (DAF) in the complement cascade cause?
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leads to paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
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What elements of the complement cascade made the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?
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C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9
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What components of the complement pathway are deficient in Neisseria sepsis?
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The MAC complex--(C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9)
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What components of the alternative complement pathway make the C5 convertase?
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C3b, Bb, and 3b
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What components of the classic complement pathway make the C5 convertase?
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C4b, 2b, and 3b
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What components of the classic complement pathway make the C3 convertase?
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C4b, C2b
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What components of the alternative complement pathway make the C3 convertase?
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C3b, Bb
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Where does the alternative complement pathway occur?
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On microbial surfaces
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Where does the classic complement pathway occur?
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antigen-antibody complexes
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What complement components can cause anaphylaxis?
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C3a and C5a
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What 3 ways do interferons interfere with viral protein synthesis?
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"Alpha and beta interferons induce production of a second
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What disease is associated with a X-linked defect in a tyrosine-kinase gene associated with low levels of all classes of immunoglobulins?
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Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
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How does Bruton's agammaglobulinemia usually present?
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as bacterial infections in boys after about 6 months of age, when levels of maternal IgG antibody decline
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What immune deficiency presents with tetany owing to hypocalcemia, congenital defects of the heart and great vessels, and recurrent viral, fungal, and protozoal infections?
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Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge syndrome)
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In what T-cell deficiency do the thymus and parathyroids fail to develop owing to failure of development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches?
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Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge syndrome)
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What is Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis?
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T-cell dysfunction specifically against Candida albicans.
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Where is the defect in SCID?
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the defect is in early stem-cell differentiation, leading to B- and T-cell deficiency
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Give 3 examples of possible causes for SCID?
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"Failure to synthesize class II MHC antigens
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Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is a defect in the ability to mount what immune response?
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an IgM response to capsular polysaccharides of bacteria.
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What immune deficiency is associated with elevated IgA levels, normal IgE levels, and low IgM levels?
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Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
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What is the triad of symptoms seen with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
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recurrent pyogenic infections, eczema, and thrombocytopenia
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What does Job's syndrome classically present with?
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recurrent 'cold' (noninflamed) staphylococcal abscesses
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In what immune deficiency do neutrophils fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli?
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Job's syndrome
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Job's syndrome is associated with high levels of what immunoglobulin?
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IgE
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What immune deficiency disease has an autosomal-recessive defect in phagocytosis that results from microtubular and lysosomal defects of phagocytic cells?
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Chediak-Higashi disease
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What is the most common selective immunoglobulin deficiency?
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selective IgA deficiency
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A defect in phagocytosis of neutrophils owing to lack of NADPH oxidase activity or similar enzymes is indicative of what immune deficiency disease?
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Chronic granulomatous disease
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What B- and T- cell deficiency, assoc. with IgA deficiency, presents with cerebellar problems and spider angiomas?
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ataxia-telangiectasia
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What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the Arthus reaction?
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Type III
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What symptoms characterize the Arthus reaction and what causes them?
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edema, necrosis, and activation of complement due to the Ag-Ab complexes that form in the skin following intradermal injection of Ag.
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What are the main symptoms of serum sickness and at what period of time following Ag exposure?
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fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after Ag exposure
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What causes the tissue damage associated with Serum sickness?
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formation of immune complexes of foreign particles and Abs that deposit in membranes where they fix complement
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Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Rh disease (erythroblastosis fetalis), and Goodpasture's syndrome are examples of what kind of hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type II
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What is the cellular process that causes type II hypersensitivity?
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IgM, IgG bind to Ag on 'enemy' cell, leading to lysis (by complement) or phagocytosis (its cytotoxic).
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Which is the only type of cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, and thus not transferable by serum?
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Type IV
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Anaphylaxis, asthma, or local wheal and flare are possible manifestations of which type of hypersensitivity?
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Type I
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What is the cellular process that causes type I hypersensitivity?
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Ag cross-links IgE on presensitized mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of vasoactive amines.
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TB skin test, transplant rejection, and contact dermatitis are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type IV
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Sensitized T lymphocytes encounter antigen and then release lymphokines which leads to macrophage activation' in what hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type IV
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