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252 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the 3 criteria of an effective immune system?
1. recognize and destroy a diversity of pathogens
2. recognize and destroy damaged self
3. exhibit self tolerance
What happens when the immune system is overactivated?
autoimmunity and inflammatory diseases
What happens when the immune system is suppressed?
immunodeficiency
What are the clinical aspects of tolerance?
failure to resolve inflammation
autoimmunity
allergy
transplant rejection
pregnancy
anti-tumor responses
What are the two types of tolerance?
Which type of tolerance is AIRE?
What is the main active mechanism of tolerance? What modulates these mechanisms?
central and peripheral
central
suppressor cells
hormones and neural
What are the sites of immune privledge?
brain, eye, gonads, pregnant uterus
What is central tolerance?
clonal deletion of highly self-specific T cells.
What is passive peripheral tolerance?
in lymph and spleen, exposure to antigens without danger signals induces anergy or death
In costimulation, what molecule from APc interacts with CD28 from T cells?
B7
How does CTL-4A shut down T cell activation?
T cells expressive CTLA-4 which prevents CD28 binding to B7. After binding to B7, it dephosphorylates CD3 shuting down the TCR dependent signaling pathways.
Through what interaction can T cells license additional APCs?
CD40-CD40L
What handles inhibitory interaction of T cells affecting APCs?
Tregs
What are the two sources of CTLA-4? What kind of APCs cause creation of Tregs?
induced by activation of CD4T and constitutively expressed by Tregs

tolerogenic
What are the cytokines secreted by Tregs? What else secretes these?
IL-40, TGFBeta

viruses
What do TGFbeta and IL-10 do?
suppress T cell activation
act on APCs to cause induction of Treg pehnotype in CD4 T cells
What is the initial effect of TGFbeta?
pro-inflammatory
Does TGFbeta affect regulatory phenotype in peripheral or central Tregs?
peripheral
What is T cells differetiation influenced by?
DC, immune sensing, and local cytokines
What can overcome Tregs?
strongly activated T cells
What is the mucosa an interior extension of?
The skin
What are the goals of the gut, respiratory, and urogenital regions?
Gut: breakdown of food; absorption of nutrients
Respiratory: exchange of oxygen and CO2
Urogenital: viability and motility of gametes
Why do most pathogens enter the body
mucosa
What is a major reason pathogens come through the mucosa?
Large surface area, not as well protected as skin
What is the leading cause of death among mucosal infections?
Acute respiratory infections
What are the 4 regions of Mucus Associated Lymphoid Tissue?
Nasal, Bronchial, Gut, and Reproductive (Urogenital)
What are pathogens associated with nalt and balt, galt, and ralt?
NALT and BALT: Influenza, Pneumonia GALT: Salmonella, Shigella, Polio RALT: Chlamydia, HIV, Gonorrhea
How is the immune response different for the MALT compared to systemic?
there are separate inductive (peyer's patch) and effector (lamina propia) lymphoid sites.

most of the antibody-producing cells and effector T cells are found throughout MALT.
(not just at the site of an infection)

a chronic adaptive immune response is sustained in the intestinal mucosa. – designed to promote tolerance has TGFbeta and IL-10 to dampen response

major antibody isotype in mucosal secretions is secretory, dimeric IgA.- doesn’t activate complement or engage NK cells. Non-inflammatory
d
effector T cells exist within MALT

there are separate inductive and effector lymphoid sites
What are the NALT, BALT, GALT, and RALT secondary lymphoid tissue?
Waldeyer's Ring, bronchus associated lymphoid tissue, lamina propia and Peyer's Patch, and urogenital lymphoid tissue.
What is the purpose of GALT epithelial cells?
GI function is absorption of nutrients
Respond to PAMP’s and secrete cytokines
Transport IgA into lumen
What is the purpose of goblet cells?
Secrete mucus, reduces bacterial access
Where are Paneth cells found?
What are their purpose?
bottom of crypts
Release β-defensins (antimicrobial peptides)
Where does lymph drain into in MALT?
lymphoid follicles
What is a cluster of follicles in MALT?
Peyer's Patch
What are the sections of GALT?
follicle, germinal center, T cell area, dome, and epithelial (M cells)
What are microfold cells? What do they do?
Microfold (M) cells of the follicle associated epithelium.
Take antigen from lumen and give to APC DCs.
Besides M cells, what are 3 what are antigen to get sampled?
DCs also sample the lumen for antigens (2).
Antigen can also be transported by epithelial cells (3) or can pass through tight junctions between epithelial cells (4)
In GALT, where do DCs present antigen?
Peyer's Patch or mesenteric lymph nodes
What secretes different cytokines that determine isotype switching?
What acts as a critical molecular switch in B cell conversion to IgA producing plasma cells?
effector helper T cells

TGF-β
Where do effector lymphocytes from the systemic circulation home?
to the lamina propria of the GI tract (and possibly other mucosal sites).
How does IgA get across mucosal epithelial cells?
poly-Ig receptor
What properties of IgA make it good for the GI?
resistant to proteolysis
poor activator of complement
inhibits: bacterial adhesion, macromolecuel absorption, inflammation
neutralizes virii and toxins
What is “Common Mucosal Immune System”?
The generation of effector lymphocytes in the circulation their subsequent homing to all mucosal sites
What sites are protected by oral vaccines and what sites are protected by nasal vaccines?
Intestine, nipples, face
lungs, urogenital, face
How is human gut flora controlled?
saliva, stomach acid, bile, epithelial barrier, water and electrolyte secretion, mucus, antimicrobial products, IgA.
Match the following 9 terms into 3 triplets:

food, gut flora, pathogens
tolerance, mucosal immunity, systemic immunity
suppression and lack of response, gut homeostasis, inflammation
food-tolerance-suppression and lack of response
gut flora-mucosal immunity- gut homeostasis
pathogens- systemic immunity- inflammation
How do oral and nasal antigens affect skin response? What is the caveat?
Oral Tolerance prevents TH1 response to skin antigen
IgA response still occurs
Describe celiac disease.
Gluten in wheat degraded into antigenic peptides that trigger immune responses, diarrhea and consequent malnutrition
Associated with HLA class II DQ2
Anti-tissue transglutaminase (TTG) IgA antibodies diagnostic
How do you diagnose celiac disease?
Duodenal biopsy-villous atrophy
However villous atrophy can be also observed as a result of:
Infection (Giardia, M.Tb, HIV)
Chronic inflammation
(Crohn’s, intestinal lymphoma, other dietary foods)
Other autoimmune conditions
Thus, these need to be considered in differential diagnosis

Serologic testing is the diagnostic standard
-IgA antibodies against gliadin, connective tissue (recticulin, endomysia), and tissue transglutaminase.
-antibody titers correlate with degree of mucosal damage

Absence of HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8 has a high negative predictive value
What do patients with celiac disease have a higher chance of developing?
cancer
What do gut pathogens break in order to gnerate inflammation?
tolerance
What does the gut secrete and suppress to generate tolerance?
TGFB, IL-10
IFN-gamma, IL-12
Which has larger surface area, intestine or skin?
Intestine
What are the ways the mouth is protected against pathogens?
Sloughing Cells
Flow of Saliva
Lysozyme
sIgA
Resident Microflora
Lactoferrin
What are the ways the stomach and small intestine are protected against pathogens?
Low pH
Proteolytic Enzymes

Fast Flow
Mucus, Sloughing Cells
Bile, sIgA, Defensins
How is the colon less protected than small intestine? How is it better protected?
Slow Flow,


Mucus, Sloughing Cells, Abundant Microflora
What are bacteria useful for?
Nutrition
Protection from pathogens
What the resident microflora in stomach, small intestine, and colon?
stomach- helicobacter, few if any
duodenum and ileum- relatively few
ileum- Numbers rise-like colon, but more facultative
colon- Mainly Anaerobes
Bacteroides (Gm-) ~30%
Firmicutes (Gm+) ~30%
Clostridium; Eubacterium
Lactobacilli
Actinobacteria (Gm+)
Bifidobacterium
Proteobacteria (Gm-)
Facultative enterics (<0.1%)
E. coli; Klebsiella
How much of nutrients come from bacterial digestion?
10% of nutrients
What can decrease microflora and increase chance of infection?
Malnutrition
Decreased stomach acid
Decreased flow rate
Decreased turnover of epithelial cells

Cancer Chemotherapy
Blocks turnover of epithelial cells
Kills normal flora

Antibiotics
Kills normal flora

Proton Pump Inhibitors
Decreased stomach acid
What are the 3 causes of diarrhea?
Secretory
Inflammatory
Malabsorptive
What is dysentery?
Damage to the mucosa
Blood and mucus in stool
What is Gastroenteritis?
Pain associated with inflammation of lamina propria or mesenteric lymph nodes
What is a consequence of GI tract infection?
Toxin Production or Reactive Arthritis
What does an absence of Tregs cause? What does a mutation in Fox3P cause?
autoimmunity
IPEX
What disease can be treated with Tregs?
Glucocorticoid treatment for asthma increases Tregs
Anti-TNFa for Crohn’s disease increases Tregs (Ricciardelli 08)
What is Salmonella typhimurium?
salmonella in mice that is well studied
What are the symptoms of normal salmonella? What are the treatments?
Acute enteritis, abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, headache, and fever. Reactive arthritis. Aortic aneurysms.
Treatment
Rehydration
Antibiotics in systemic cases.
How does salmonella invade intestinal epithelium?
Pili for Colonization
SPI-1 Type III Secretion System
How is SP-1 regulated?
SPI-1 is exquisitely regulated by the environment
Oxygen, Osmolarity, pH, Bile
Specifically turned on in the intestine
Numerous Regulatory Proteins Feed into the System
What are some SP-1 proteins?
~10 Effector Proteins are Injected
SopE
Induces cytoskeletal rearrangement and inflammation
Guanine Exchange Factor (GEF) for Rac1
SptP
Dampens response to allow cell to regain normal architecture
GTPase Activating Protein (GAP) for Rac1
SipA
Lowers critical concentration actin require for polymerization
What is the effect of Rac-1?
membrane ruffling, inflammation, and Nk-kB activation
What does the SipA protein, an SPI effector protein, do?
faciliates actin rearrangement
Why does Salmonella Typhi not normally cause diarrhea?
Capsule (Vi) blocks IL-8 production
What is the normal autopsy hallmark of typhoid infection? What is the complication of typhoid? Why do we need hand washing?
Invades and causes ulceration of Peyer’s patched
Systemic infection
Carrier State
What are the effect of SPI1 effectors?
Invasion
Inflammatory Diarrhea
PMNs in stool
~10% of patients have blood in stool
Macrophage Necrosis
SipB  Caspase 1 (ICE)
Induces Necrosis and inflammation
Propagation in Peyer’s patches
Caspase-1 KO mice are resistant to Salmonella
How can Salmonella mutants defective in both pili and the SPI1 T3SS still gain access to systemic sites? Hint: what is SPI1 independent invasion?
Dendritic cells reach out and grab the bugs
In the case of Salmonella, this is not a good idea
What will prevent tymphimurium infection? What is the complication
IgA directed against Typhimurium O-antigen will prevent infection
Functional at the same concentration required to agglutinate
Problem: there are >2000 serotypes of non-typhoidal Salmonella
How does salmonella cause inflammatory diarrhea? Is inflammation good or bad? How does S. typhi block inflammatory response?
Salmonella interaction with epithelial cells initiates inflammatory diarrhea
SPI1 injection induces IL-8
Flagella and LPS induces IL-8 and TNF
PMN infiltration

Increasing evidence suggests that inflammation facilitates growth of Enterobacteriaceae

S. typhi specifically blocks the inflammatory response via the capsule
Where does salmonella infection start and end?
Bacteria spread from the Peyer’s patches to systemic tissue
Initially spleen, liver, and bone marrow
Ultimately all tissues
Where does systemic salmonella primarily grow? What factors enable it?
Bacteria are primarily replicating in macrophages
PhoPQ regulon
SPI2 T3SS
How does systemic salmonella spread?
Macrophages apparently lyse and bacteria are taken up by new macrophages
Uptake is via opsonization NOT bacterial mediated invasion
What does SPI-2 do?
Basically enables salmonella to grow in macrophages

Redirects the normal phagolysosome maturation
Forms “Salmonella Containing Vacuole”
SPI-2 is induced intracellularly
Effector proteins alter vesicular trafficking
What do you do for Typhi and Paratyphi?
Antibiotics (Cipro) for systemic cases and certainly in Typhi and Paratyphi

Oral rehydration
How do you diagnose salmonella?
Plate stool sample on Lactose MacConkey or Salmonella-Shigella selective medium
Lac-
Biochemical confirmation
Enterotube: H2S production et al.
Serological identification
What does PhoPQ do?
PhoPQ contorls transcription of virulence factors
What bacteria is the basis for MRSA and is normally found in the nose?
Staphylococcus aureus
What are the toxins of Staphylococcus Aureus?
Produces about 8 types
Hemolysins
Leukocidin (kills phagocytes)
Superantigens
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin - 1
Enterotoxins
Others
How does food become infected with Staphylococcus aureus? Does cooking help?
Snot
No
What are the symptoms and mechanisms of staphylococcal food poisoning?
Toxinosis
Bacterial cells are irrelevant although can be isolated from stool and vomitus
Symptoms have rapid onset (6-12 hours) and rapid resolution (12-24 hours)
Projectile vomiting and diarrhea
Mechanism is not clear
Directly affects “vomiting center” of brain - emetic
Superantigen and emetic effects are genetically separable
Treatment – oral rehydration
Where do you find clostridium? What are the 3 most famous strains?
soil
Clostridium botulinum - botulism
Clostridium tetani – tetanus
Clostridium perfringens – gas gangrene and food poisoning
Which toxin is heat labile?
botulism
How does Botox work? What does it helpwith?
Proteases that cleave various “SNARE” proteins at neuromuscular junctions
Blocks acetylcholine release
Flaccid paralysis
Neurotransmitter blockage is irreversible
New terminals can “sprout” in 2-3 months
“Botox” (commercially available serotype A) is used to treat a variety of “overactive muscle” disorders
Dystonias, ocular motility, spacticity, and more recently cosmetic applications
What causes infant botulism?
Honey and lack of microflora
What are the symptoms of botulism?
Food-mediated
Difficulty in focusing vision, swallowing, and other cranial nerve functions
Progressive striated muscle paralysis
15% fatality from respiratory failure
Symptoms start 12-36 hours after ingestion
No fever or sepsis
Reportable
What is the treatment for botulism?
Treatment
Antitoxin (horse serum) from CDC
Supportive therapy
Describe Clostridium perfringens?
Stomach acid induces sporulation causing production of toxin?
Colonization is not necessary
Incubation time is 8-22 hours, symptoms last 24 hours
Symptoms include diarrhea, cramps and pain; vomiting is rare
Organisms can colonize the colon
Acute hemorrhagic enteritis
Invade other sites, giving rise to necrotizing infections (gas gangrene)
Culture stool to confirm ; Oral rehydration
Describe clostridium cereus? What are the 2 toxins?
Gram-positive, aerobic spore former
Ubiquitous soil organism
Can cause a variety of infections
Spores germinate in cooked food
Two toxins = two forms of disease
Diarrheal – formed in vivo
10-12 Hr Incubation
Profuse diarrhea and pain
Contaminated meat or vegetables
Emetic - preformed
1-6 Hr Incubation
Projectile vomiting
Contaminated “fried rice”
What diarrheal disease do not require colonization?
S. Aureus, botulism, bacillus, clostriduim perfringens
What toxin is heat labile?
botulism
Hwo does cholera cause diarrhea?
A-B toxin, causes excess cAMP production
How are ETEC and EPEC different?
EPEC does not make a toxin. It uses type III secretion to induce actin and prevent fluid reuptake
What kind of diarrheea is associated with ETEC?
secretory
What causes gastroenteritis?
salmonella and campylobacter
yersinia and vibrio parahaemolyticus
What causes dysentary?
shigella, S. dysenteriae, e. coli O157
What causes psuedomembranous colitis?
clostridium difficule
Which diarrheal systemic infection need antibiotics?
s. typhi
What diseases cause gastroenteritis? What are their reservoirs? What is their shared virulence factor? Which has a vaccine? Which affects only old people and children (not the cruise ship one)?
Norovirus and rotavirus
humans and water
Destroy cells at villus tip, cause shortened villi
rotavirus
rotavirus
Where do you find S. aureus?
What is the virulence factor?
resident microbiota
superantigen toxin
Which kind of e. coli causes dysentery? What is the virulence factor?
HUS (EHEC)
shigella like toxin
What are the respective virulence factors of ETEC and EPEC?
ETEC- LT (cholera-like toxin and heat labile) and ST (heat stable)
secretory diarrhea
EPEC- infants, actin rearrangement,
malabsorptive diarrhea
What disease causes nosocomial diarrhea and psuedomembrane collitis? How do you diagnose the toxin?
clostridium dificiles
ELISA
What disease hunts pregnant women and grows in the cold?
Listeria monocytogenes
What do shigella and EIEC (I = invasive) cause? What is the virulence factor?
Type III secretion system promote uptake
Grows in cytoplasm
Polymerizes host actin to move between cells
Why don't you want to use antimotility agents and antibiotics for shigella?
infection can last longer
Which diseases rearrange actin?
EPEC, Shiga and EIEC, and listeria
Which bacteria makes enterotoxin when in acid?
clostridium perfiringens
Why does norovirus live in cruiseships?
low Id-50, Resists temps from 0-60°C
Persists in the environment
Most disinfectants don’t work well
Variation and non-protective immunity allow repeated infections
Which disease had a vaccine that caused intussusception that was pulled, but has two new vaccines?
rotavirus

FUCKING ROTASHIELD
What are the protozoal parasites of the gastrointestinal tract?
giardia intestinalis, cryptosporidium, entamoeba histolytica, toxoplasma gondii
What protozoa causes steatorrhea? How?
giardia intestinalis
Sucker disk damages intestinal cells
Which protozoa causes cholera-like diarrhea in AIDS patients?
Cryptosporidium
Which pin worm have egg antigens elicit allergic response and enemas?
enterobius vermicularis
What are the 2 forms of giardia? Which is replicating form and survival form?
trophozoite- replicating
survival form- cyst
Which protozoa has a carrier form, invades the colon and lung, causes ulcers and granulomas, and caues small, blood stool?
Entamoeba histolytica
Which protozoal parasite lives in cats and attacks preggers and AIDS patients?
toxoplasma gonadii
Which worm can travel up to lungs and back to intestines? Where does it start?
Ascaris lumbricoides
soil
What protozoa lives in dogs and causes skin and eye infections?
Toxocara canis
what are defenses of the CNS?
Microglia (macrophages)
phagocytes and antibodies are low.
What causes the most damage in a CNS infection?
host immune system
What is septic vs aseptic CNS infection?
Viruses and intracellular bacteria – “aseptic meningitis”
Increase in lymphocytes and monocytes
Slight increase in protein levels
Glucose levels constant

Extracellular bacteria – “septic meningitis”
Increased levels of neutrophils
Protein levels increase significantly
Glucose levels decrease
Turbid
How does polio spread?
lymphatics --> blood --> muscle --> PNs --> CNS
What is the difference between salk and sabin vaccines?
salk- killed vaccine (IgM)
sabin- live, oral (IgA) vaccine may revert and no longer used in US
What are the virulence factors of bacterial meningitis?
IgA proteases
Prevention of ciliary action
Attachment structures
How does meningitis survive the blood? How does it go from mucosa to blood?
capsule
endocytosis and tjctn damage
How does bacterial meningitis cross the BBB?
capillary endothelial damage --> inflammation --> leaky
or monocytes
What causes neonatal meningitis?
Group B strep (most common)
E. coli k-1
What causes meningitis in adults? How does it spread?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
lungs or sinuses --> blood
What causes meningitis in children?
Haemophilus influenzae type b
Where does N. meningitis start?
throat or nasopharynx
How do you diagnose meningitis?

What meningitis has small buds and thick capsule?
bloog, glucose, protein, immune cells

strep pnuemon
African sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma brucei is spread by what?
tsetse fly and Trypomastigote
What is the best innate defense of the skin?
sloughing dead cells

Viruses can’t live in dead cells
Most bacteria that attach to skin cells carried away
Thickness of dead cell layer prevents penetration by most microbes
What are the chemical defenses of the skin?
Lipids
Lysozyme
Resident microbiota
Produce antimicrobial substances
Block colonization sites
Especially important in hair follicles and pores
Skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT)
How do you bypass skin defenses?
puncture
What are the 3 classifications of skin infections?
exogenous, endogenous, and toxin
What is the most common form of abcesses?
staph Aureus
What are the virulence factors of staph aureus?
anti-phagocyte defenses, and hydrolytic enzymes
what are the virulence factors of GAS or strep pyogenes?
Antiphagocytic mechanisms
Hyaluronic acid capsule (antiphag)
M protein – binds factor H (protects against complement)

Surface protein similar to protein A (S. aureus) binds IgG in wrong orientation

Hydrolytic enzymes – enhance spread
What does Folliculitis form?
Microabscesses
Centered around a single hair follicle
Can enlarge to form furuncles
What causes furuncles?
S. aureus and may progress into carbuncles
What is a carbuncle?
Fusion of furuncle
What is Erysipelas?
rash with sharp demarcation caused by GAS
What causes Cellulitis?
Strep pyogenes GAS
FLESH EATING BACTERIA
What are the skin toxinoses?
Toxic shock syndrome (superantigens)
Scalded skin syndrome (S. aureus)
How do you treat GAS?
penicillin and debridement
What do you get in bed sores?
bacteroides fragilis

They're fragile, bedridden people
How does clostridium perfringens get into wounds? why is it so bad?
How do you treat?
spores
Gas gangrene and alpha toxin
antibiotics, surgery, and hyperbaric oxygen
What gangrene does not involve gas?
streptococcal gangrene
What are the Dermatophyte infections?
What do they infect and what do they have
Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, Microsporum

Keratinase
Infect hair, skin, nails
What are tinea and kerion associated with?
ringworm (dermatophytosis)
hard painless nodule
sporothrix
What attacks burn victims?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Exotoxin A
Hydrolytic enzymes
Localized in blood vessel walls
Resistant to many antibiotics

Staphylococcus aureus
What ringworm (nematode) live sin water and can penetrate the body and migrate to the mesenteric vein resulting in hypersensitivity?
Schistosoma
How do diagnose Strongyloides stercoralis? Demographic? Cure? Source?
Diagnostic form is rhabditiform larva
Serious infections in immunocompromised patients especially military who served in SE Asia
Difficult to cure
Soil
What is a zoonoses?
disease between nonhuman vertebrates and humans
What causes black death?
Yersinia pestis

pestis as in rat and flea.
How does lyme disease spread? What are the reservoir?
ticks to human (dead end)
deer and rats
What are the stages of lyme disease? How do you test?
lesion to dissemination to latent to tertiary
ELISA and western blots
What is Borrelia burgdorferi?
zoonoses with flagella
What is ehrlichosis?
zoonose: deer to tick to mouse back to deer or to human
How is malaria spread?
enter through mosquito, sporozoites travel to liver, mature, then leave via mosquito again
What are the symptoms of malaria?
Fever and shaking chills
Occur at either 48 or 72 hours
Due to lysis of red blood cells
Lysis stimulates IL-1 and TNFa
Anemia – due to lysis of RBCs
Enlargement of spleen – due to spleen cells trying to clear infected RBCs, lysed cells and merozoites
What are the different types of
P. vivax
Attacks occur at 48 hr
Infects only reticulocytes
Forms hypnozoites
Persist in liver cells
Break out of liver; start new cycle in RBCs
Can survive for years and cause recurrent attacks


P. falciparum
Attacks occur at 48 hr
Infects all stages of RBCs
Convulsions
Coma
Hypoglycemia
Pulmonary edema
Shock
Death
No hypnozoites
What is the life cycle of Leishmania?
sandfly to human to amastigote inside macrophage and then out via sandfly. Promastigote is the other form.
What is inside a TB granuloma?
dead cells, bacteria, epitheloid macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts
What are the stages of TB infection?
lungs --> macrophages --> granuloma --> lesion --> clearance or oh shit, TB is everywhere.
What kind of stain IDs TB?
acid fast stain
What does the BCG vaccine protect?
infants, but you lose skin test
Who does thrush attack? Systemic?
newborns and AIDS patients
not systemic
Where is Coccidioides? What does it form?
california
lung granulomas
Blastomyces
skin and lung fungus
P jiroveci
mild lung infection, except for immune compromised
aspergillus
Oral and lung
infections in
compromised patients
How do you diff histoplasmosis and P. jiroveci?

Which have diff treatment for AIDS?
Histoplasmosis and P. jiroveci infections
differentiated on appearance in bronchial
washings
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
toxin ADP ribosylates EF-2
possibly bloody psuedomembrane
mainly heart damage, but others possible
Bordetella pertussis
Causes pertussis (whooping cough)
adhesins
A-B toxin causes cAMP increase
Invasive adenylate cyclase
LPS
Peptidoglycan fragment
Survival inside host cells
Strep throat
Streptococcus pyogenes acquired from inhaling aerosols or eating contaminated food
Adheres to throat mucosa causing pharyngitis
nonbloody throat pus patches
Resolves in about a week
May lead to complications
S. pyogenes
b-hemolytic
Protein F – binds fibronectin
Cell wall fragments
Inflammatory
Cause of symptoms of strep throat
M proteins – prevent phagocytosis
M-like proteins – bind Fc portion of antibodies and other host proteins

Acute glomerulonephritis
Rheumatic feverrheumatic heart disease
What are the 2 main reactions of S. pyogenes?
Glomerular nephritis
Host makes antibodies to bacterial products
Antigen-antibody complexes form
Complexes deposited in glomeruli of kidney
Type III immune reaction

Rheumatic fever
Host makes antibodies against M proteins
Antibodies react with heart proteins
Cytotoxic T cells trigger inflammatory response
Type II immune reaction
How do you diagnose S. pyogenes (strep throat)?
throat swab
Streptococcus pneumoniae colonizaton routes
eustachian --> ottis media

cilia damage (flu) --> lung damage --> capsule protects --> bacteremia
What is the main virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
antiphagocytic capsule
autolysins
pnuemolysin
How do you treat S. pneumoniae?
resistant to fluoroquinones and B-lactams
Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
walking pneumonia
5-15 year age
cell wall
conc on x-rays
Chlamydophila pneumoniae?
Obligate intracellular pathogen
Cell wall has LPS but no peptidoglycan
Spread by aerosols
Legionella pneumophila
Grow in biofilms
Grow in macrophages
diffuse on x-rays
not gram stainable, but fluorescent
Vaccines against S. pneumoniae
The conjugate vaccine doesn't have enough serotypes
What does blood culture of s. pneumoniae?
possible septic shock. Normally in low numbers
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
capsule
toxin
elastases
Pyocyanin – damages endothelial cells
Bacillus anthracis
aerosol
systemic
macrophages carry to lymph nodes
toxin and capsules
What are 4 intestinal parasites that cause localized infection?
Giardia intestinalis
cryptosporidium parvum
cyclospora cayetanensis
enterobius vermicularis
What are the characterisitics of giardia intestinalis (protozoa)?
localized
smelly, fatty diarrhea and flatulence
trophozoite (replicating) and cyst (survival) forms
sucking disc
found in dirty water
diagnosis: entero test and glycoprotein enzyme immunoassay
What are the characteristics of cryptosporidium parvum?
contaminated water
watery, nonbloody stool
diagnostic oocyst form
no effective therapy, only rehydration
sporozoites
not self limiting in AIDS
What are the characteristics of cyclospora cayetanensis?
water and fresh produce
can be treated with antimicrobials
What protozoa parasite attacks HIV positive patients, does not cause PMN growth, water nonbloody stool?
How do you diagnose?
cryptosporidium parvum
stool sample and enterotest
What is characteristic of enterobius vermicularis?
Scotch tape on anus will find eggs.
Warm water enema treatment, but now drugs.
Pin worm. Immune response --> itch and rash. Dry out and explode releasing effs. Wash hands, clothing, and bedding.
What 4 parasites are invasive?
entamoeba histolytica
toxoplasma gondii
ascaris lumbricoides
toxocara canis
Entamoeba histolytica
ameobic dystenery
90% asymptomatic and typically self-limiting
colonize colon
trophozoite and cyst
can cause ulcers
granulomas --> blood in stool
lung infected hemotomously (suddenly invasive)
diagnose with ELISA
metraniazole
Toxoplasma gondii
lives in cats whole lifespan or undercooked food
becomes cyst outside of intestines
serious w/ AIDS or pregnant woman
tachyzoite invade, multiple, and rupture cells
Ascaris lumbricoides
only in humans
don't attach, but always swim upstream
migrate to liver, heart, and lungs but then go back to intestines
Toxocara canis
dogs (puppies)
visceral larval migrans necrosis can be found in skin, granulomas, lung, or retina (serious)
Which parasites invade lungs?
toxoplasma or ascaris
How do you diagnose:
giardia
cryptosporidium
enterobius vermicularis
entamoeba histolytica
toxoplasma
ascaris
toxocara
trophozoites
oocysts
tape
trophozoites or cysts
antibodies
eggs
eosinophilia, liver, or serological
What is Foxp3?
transcription factor for Treg
What binds to influenza A?
sialic acid
Why are respiratory tract/lung infections so dangerous?
diminished gas exchange

septic shock
What are 3 respiratory tract viral infections?
Rhinoviruses and influenza (common cold)
Respiratory syncytial virus (pneumonia)
Adenovirus (common cold)
What does pertussis infect?
trachea and downwards
What does RSV infect?
sinuses and pharynx + bronciotitis
Where does rhinovirus infect?
sinuses
Pico Noro is?
nonenveloped, +RNA;
What binds to VP-1? What does it do? How does Zicam work?
ICAM-1
change conformation and inject RNA
Zinc binds to ICAM-1, prevents virus from binding to host cell
What is influenza? Why does influenza predispose to future infections? What does HA of influenza bind to? What triggers influenza uncoating?
-RNA, enveloped.
damages mucus secreting, ciliated cells
sialic acid moieties
low pH (proton pump)
What are the 3 factors of influenza pathogenesis?
URI established
Targets mucus-secreting, ciliated and epithelial cells to remove this primary defense

T cells and IFN are responsible for some of the pathogenesis

BACTERIAL SUPERINFECTION (older people)
What can treat influenza?
Amantidine and rimantidine (affect the M2 ion channel -- see earlier chapter on virus uncoating)
Most common cause of fatal acute respiratory tract infections in infants and young children?
RSV
Which of the viruses are -RNA?
RSV
How do you diagnose and treat RSV?
ELISA assay and respirators (no vaccine)
What is adenovirus also used for?
gene therapy
What are the symptoms of adenovirus?
Pharyngitis/respiratory disease (Ad types 1-7)

Gastroenteritis and diarrhea (Ad40, Ad42)

Conjunctivitis (multiple types)

Obesity (Ad 36)
How is adenovirus spread?
close quarters (barracks or school), shed in feces for long period, and noneveloped
What are two secreted protectors of the urinary tract?
Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
Blocks adherence
Lewis Antigen (ABO)
Non-secretors are genetically predisposed to recurrent infection
What causes most cases of cystitis and pyelonephritis?
e. coli
What is the main virulence factor of UTI e. coli?
fimbriae
How can e. coli give rise to long term infection?
pods
What e. coli cousin is known for swimming, urease, and infectious kidney stones?
proteus
What gives women toxin shock syndrome and extra-absorbent tampons?
staph aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae virulence factors? What are complications?
pilE/pilS and Opa
PID and perinatal infectio
What are complications of Chlamydia?
PID and Lymphogranuloma venereum
Trichomonas vaginalis
wet mount --> twitching
doesn't really hurt males
strawberry cervix
What is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis?
fishy odor
Why is chylamydia worse overseas?
invasive and blinding
What causes a direct escalation to neurosyphilis?
HIV
Why don't you give antibiotics to O157 patients?
Cells go lytic and toxin releases
How doe slisteria move?
cell to cell
What granuloma forming fungus is common in california?
Coccidioides
What fungal condition in the US, central, and south america causes skin lesions and budding lung lesions?
Blastomyces
What fungus doesn't cause granulomas, but infects the lungs? has an eosinophilic response, protein exudate, and honey comb appearance?
P. jiroveci
What forms lung fungal mats in immune compromised patients?
Aspergillus
What type of meningitis has a vaccine?
Haemophilus influenzae type b
What meningitis is common in adults and has a vaccine?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
What fungal infection causes meningitis?
Cryptococcus neoformans