Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
37 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Antigen presenting cells display antigen fragments in association with class II MHC molecules. Which one of the following cells does not function as an antigen presenting cell?
a. B cells b. Dendritic cells c. Neutrophils d. Macrophages |
C. Neutrophil
|
|
|
In the spleen the lymphoid tissues are mainly located in the
a. white pulp b. marginal zone c. red pulp d. sinusoids |
A. white pulp
|
|
|
Microbes gain access to the lamina propria of the gut associated MALT, via
a. intraepithelial T cells b. goblet cells c. M cells d. columnar epithelial cells |
C. M Cells
|
|
|
The prototypic T-independent antigen, Type 1, is
a. pneumococcal polysaccharide b. lipopolysaccharide c. concanavalin A d. phytohemagglutinin |
b. lipopolysaccharide
|
|
|
All of the following may serve as opsonins for phagocytosis EXCEPT
a. C5a b. C3b c. CRP d. IgG |
a. C5a
|
|
|
Which one of the following lysosomal enzymes destroys muramic acid in
bacterial cell walls? a. lactoferrin b. lysozyme c. defensins d. myeloperoxidase |
b. lysozyme
|
|
|
Which one of the following is NOT classified as a reactive oxygen intermediate?
a. nitric oxide b. superoxide c. hydrogen peroxide d. hydroxyl radical |
a. nitric oxide
|
|
|
Helminths are destroyed by the action of enzymes released by which one of
the following cell types? a. eosinophils b. natural killer cells c. macrophages d. neutrophils |
a. eosinophils
|
|
|
Which one of the following associates with class II MHC molecules to prevent
the peptide binding in the “groove” formed by the two polypeptide chains? a. β2-microglobulin b. adapter protein c. invariant chain (Ii) d. clathrin |
c. invariant chain (Ii)
|
|
|
The multipeptide unit that degrades cytosolic viral proteins is called
a. calnexin b. TAP c. proteasome d. NADPH oxidase |
c. proteasome
|
|
|
Class I MHC presents antigen to which one of the following?
a. CD4+ Th1 cells b. CD4+ Th2 cells c. Natural killer cells d. CD8+ T cells |
d. CD8+ T cells
|
|
|
A 12-year-old boy has a one month history of increased urination, appetite and thirst. Tests reveal a very high (8-fold elevation) blood sugar, with high levels of sugar in the urine. Which of the following HLA molecules would you anticipate on his father’s and/or mother’s white blood cells?
a. HLA-DR3 b. HLA-B27 c. HLA-A2 d. HLA-DQ5 e. HLA-C4 |
a. HLA-DR3
(HLA-DR3 an HLA-DR4 = Diabetes) |
|
|
The classical pathway C5 convertase is composed of all the following EXCEPT
a. C4b b. C5b c. C2a d. C3b |
b. C5b
|
|
|
All the following are anaphylatoxins and induce degranulation of mast cells and basophils EXCEPT
a. C2a b. C3a c. C4a d. C5a |
a. C2a
|
|
|
All the following directly inhibit the formation of MAC EXCEPT
a. S-protein b. CD59 c. HRF d. CR1 |
d. CR1
|
|
|
When C3b is deposited onto a bacterial surface, the alternative pathway of complement is activated and a C3 convertase is assembled on the microbial surface. Complement components directly/indirectly required for formation/stabilization of this C3 convertase include all the following EXCEPT
a. Properdin b. Factor B c. Factor D d. Factor H e. C3b |
d. Factor H
|
|
|
A young girl has documented Neisseria meningitis. No family history is available (the girl was adopted) but review of her medical record from a forwarding hospital reveals an otherwise previously well child with three episodes of Neisseria over 2 years. Which is not an explanation of these
finding? a. Low C3 b. Low C6-C8 c. Absent factor D d. Absent properdin e. C1 INH deficiency |
C1 INH deficiency
|
|
|
Choose the incorrect statement.
a. Activated NK cells secrete IFNγ. b. IFNγ enhances the cytotoxicity of macrophages. c. IFNγ inhibits cytokine production by Th1 cells. d. IFNγ receptors signal via the JAK/STAT pathway. e. Individuals with inactivating mutations in the IFNγ receptor should not be immunized with BCG. |
IFNγ inhibits cytokine production by Th1 cells.
|
|
|
Which one of the following cytokines is used in the treatment of hairy cell leukemia, genital warts, Kaposi’s sarcoma, relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis, and chronic hepatitis B/C infections?
a. IL-10 b. IL-12 c. IFNγ d. IL-2 e. IFNα/β |
e. IFNα/β
|
|
|
Most patients with XSCID carry a mutation in CD132. This defect impairs signal transduction initiated by all the following cytokines EXCEPT
a. IL-3 b. IL-4 c. IL-7 d. IL-2 e. IL-9 |
a. IL-3
|
|
|
All the following are biological functions attributed to TNF EXCEPT
a. induction of chemoattractant secretion by endothelial cells b. induction of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells c. activation of neutrophils and monocytes d. impairment of macrophage cytotoxicity e. induction of IL-1 and IL-6 secretion by macrophages |
d. impairment of macrophage cytotoxicity
|
|
|
Which one of the following cytokine receptors is an intrinsic serine/threonine kinase?
a. TFGβ b. TNF c. INFγ d. IL-2 e. IL-6 |
a. TFGβ
|
|
|
Sam, a high school student, has been diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Peripheral blood cells from the patient were incubated with anti-CD19 fluorescent antibodies. Flow cytometric analysis revealed a high intensity immunofluorescence, indicating enhanced expression of CD19, relative to controls. At what stage of B-cell development was the maturational arrest and unregulated clonal expansion?
a. Pro B-cell stage b. Pre B-cell stage c. Immature B-cell stage d. Could be any of the above since CD19 is a pan marker at all stages of development. |
d. Could be any of the above since CD19 is a pan marker at all stages of
development. |
|
|
Mechanisms which contribute to the generation of unique peptide/MHC
binding sites on alpha/beta T-cell receptors include all the following EXCEPT: a. Multiple germline genes b. Alternative splicing c. Combinatorial association d. Random selection of alpha and beta chains e. Junctional diversity |
b. Alternative splicing
|
|
|
All the following occur in germinal centers EXCEPT
a. differentiation to plasma cells b. affinity maturation (somatic mutation) c. isotype switching d. memory cell formation e. somatic recombination |
somatic recombination
|
|
|
Mrs. L, a 37-year-old housewife with no history of childhood illness, has had recurrent chest and pyogenic infections over the last 18 months. She appears unwell and is found to be anemic. Tests indicate low levels of circulating
immunoglobulins and she failed to produce specific antibodies to a booster dose of tetanus toxoid given one month previously. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. x-linked hypogammaglobulinemia b. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia c. transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy d. selective IgA deficiency e. could be any one of the above |
b. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia
|
|
|
Mutations on this protein leads to X-linked agammagobulinemia
a. CD79a/CD79b b. Btk c. mIg d. CD20 e. CD19 |
b. Btk
|
|
|
Mast cell derived histamine induces vasodilatation. Which of the following inflammatory mediators induce degranulation of mast cells and histamine
release? a. Crosslinking of IgE bound to mast cell FcεR b. Binding of complement fragment C3a c. Binding of complement fragment C5a d. All of the above e. Only a and c |
d. All of the above
|
|
|
Activation of the contact system leading to coagulation during tissue damage leads to the generation of bradykinin. Bradykinin is a fragment derived from which one of the following.
a. Factor XII b. Factor XI c. High molecular weight kininogen d. Prekallikrein |
c. High molecular weight kininogen
|
|
|
Selectin/ligand interaction mediates leukocyte rolling on inflamed endothelium. Which of the following selectins are induced on endothelial cells during the inflammatory response?
a. P-selectin b. E-selectin c. L-selectin d. All of the above e. Only a and b |
e. Only a and b
|
|
|
Which of the following T-cell/endothelium interactions may have a dual role in the steps leading to T-cell diapedesis?
a. LFA-1/ICAM-1 b. LFA-1/ICAM-2 c. VLA-4/VCAM-1 d. LPAM/VCAM-1 e. Both c and d |
e. Both c and d
|
|
|
Immunological responses to extracellular bacteria in the lamina propria could include activation of all the following EXCEPT
a. CD8+ T cells b. CD4+ T cells c. Dendritic cells d. Macrophages e. B cells |
a. CD8+ T cells
|
|
|
Shigella sp. induce apoptosis in which of the following cells?
a. M cells b. Epithelial cells c. Macrophages d. Only a and b e. All of the above |
c. Macrophages
|
|
|
Which of the following does not play a role in host defense to Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a. reactive oxygen intermediates b. interferon gamma c. tumor necrosis factor d. lysosomal enzymes e. nitric oxide |
d. lysosomal enzymes
|
|
|
Natural killer cells secrete IFNγ in response to stimulation by which of the following cytokines?
a. IL-2 b. IL-12 c. IL-1 d. IL-10 e. TNF |
b. IL-12
|
|
|
Which cell’s activity is inhibited in the presence of high concentrations of class I MHC?
a. Natural killer cells b. CD4+ T cells c. CD8+ T cells d. Macrophages e. Dendritic cells |
a. Natural killer cells
|
|
|
Which of the following molecules is chemotactic for neutrophils and induces enhanced adhesivness of Mac-1 and LFA-1?
a. IL-2 b. IL-4 c. IL-6 d. IL-8 e. IL-10 |
d. IL-8
|
