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115 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Autograft
a graft transplanted into the same individual from which it came
Syngeneic Graft
a graft transplanted between genetically identical individuals
Circumstances conducive to formation of immune complexes (3)
1. Persistent low grade infection
2. Autoimmunity (antigens always present)
3. Formation at body surfaces
Farmer's Lung Disease
Circulating antibodies trigger inflammation and compromise lung function
From repeated exposure to moldy hay
How are immune complexes usually destroyed? (2) Where?
Phagocytosis in the liver/spleen
RBC's bind compliment that has been fixed by the complexes, then removed by hepatic macrophages
What happens after complexes deposit in tissues?
1. They activate compliment
2. Compliment activation leads to recruitment and activation of inflammatory cells
3. Neutrophils cause tissue injury
What size complexes are most prone to deposition in tissues?
Intermediate
What factors influence the deposition of immune complexes?
1. Size - intermediate deposit more readily
2. Clearance rate
3. Charge - + charged complexes bind to - charged components of the glomerular basement membrane
4. Anatomic factors - filtering and tortuous vessels
What causes chronic serum sickness?
Multiple injections of antigen or continual exposure to self antigens
What does chronic serum sickness cause?
Formation of smaller complexes that deposit in kidneys, arteries, lung vasculature
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
small complexes deposited in the blood

antibodies are produced against nuclear antigens such as DNA
Arthus Reaction
antigen injected subcutaneously

individual already has antibodies for that antigen
complexes form and deposit in the walls of the small arteries at the injection site.
= local cutaneous vasculitis with necrosis
Hypersensitivity reactions of the eye
(2)
1. Peripheral corneal lesions
2. Uveitis
How long does type 4 hypersensitivity reaction take to develop?
More than 12 hours
Two types of delayed type hypersensitivity
1. Contact hypersensitivity
2. Tuberculin-type hypersensitivity
What causes blistering in contact hypersensitivity?
T cells and macrophages gather around the local vasculature int he dermis.
These cells infiltrate into the epidermis, where they act to eliminate the antigen.
What is the hallmark of a TB-type hypersensitivity?
Induration (hardness)
What causes the hardness in TB-type hypersensitivity?
T cells and macrophages gather in the dermis
Langerhan's Cells
specialized APC's in the epidermis that process antigens then migrate to the draining lymphnodes where they present their antigen to the T cells, activating them.
Margination
Accumulation of leukocytes along vascular walls
Function of selectins
tethering of neutrophils and T cells to the endothelial wall
Function of VCAM 1
adhesion of lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils
What does E-selectin bind to?
Glycoprotein on leukocyte
What does L-selectin bind to?
CD-34 on endothelium
What does VCAM-1 bind to?
Leukocyte VLA-4
What does ICAM-1 bind to?
LFA-1 on T cells
Function of ICAM?
anchors leukocytes to the endothelial cells
Function of PECAM?
transmigration of leukocytes between endothelial cells in vasculature
What plays a crucial role in activating macrophage effector functions?
IFN gamma
Diseases mediated by DTH reactions
- idiopathic uveitis
- inflammatory bowel disease
- insulin dependent diabetes
- acute cellular graft rejection
Ocular conditions mediated by DTH reactions
- corneal graft rejection
- cosmetic-induced conjunctivitis
- Behcet's disease
- sarcoidosis
- sympathetic ophthalmia
Two mechanisms by which extracellular bacteria cause disease:
1. Induce inflammation
2. Produce toxins
Endotoxins
In bacterial cell wall
Stimulate the production of cytokines by macrophages and other cells (vascular endothelial cells)
Exotoxins
Actively secreted by bacteria
(cholera, tetanus, diphtheria)
Antibody isotypes involved in the immune response to extracellular bacteria
IgM and IgG
Mechanisms by which extracellular bacteria evade immunity (2)
1. Secretion of substances which inhibit chemotaxis or complement proteins
2. Capsules which interfere with phagocyte binding and complement activation
Major mechanisms of innate immunity to extracellular bacteria (2)
1. Phagocytosis by neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages.
2. Activation of complement
How do viruses enter the host cell?
By binding to cell surface molecules (rhinovirus - ICAM; HIV - CD 4, rabies - acetylcholine receptor)
Cytopathic
Interferes with normal cellular protein synthesis
Infected cell dies
Non-cytopathic
Proteins from virus become incorporated into MHC molecules on the cell surface and stimulate cytotoxic T cell activity
Mechanisms of innate immunity in viruses (2)
1. IFN released by infected cells
2. Lysis of infected cells by NK cells
Principle mechanism for eliminating viral organisms
Cell mediated immunity (action of cytotoxic T lymphocytes)
Recognize viral antigens in association with class I MHC antigens on the surface of any type of cell
Mechanisms by which viruses evade host immunity (2)
1. Change their appearance on a molecular level
2. Suppress immune response - attack immune cells & secrete immunosuppressive factors
Toll-like Receptors
Bind to different types of microbial molecules (flagellin, glycolipids, RNA, proteins, etc.), which stimulates cells to release cytokines
Antibody isotype that responds to helminthic parasites
IgE
Main destructor cell in parasitic infection
Eosinophil
Allogenic graft (allograft)
a graft transplanted between two genetically different individuals of the same species
Xenograft
a graft transplanted between a host and recipient of two different species
Which grafts are not rejected?
Autografts and isografts
Which grafts are rejected?
Allografts and Xenografts
Immune response to allogenic antigen
(Direct Pathway)
T cells, by way of their TCR's, crosss-react and directly bind to foreign MHC molecules on the surface of donor APC's, inducing their activation
Immune response to allogenic antigen
(Indirect Pathway)
An allogenic peptide derived from the donor is processed by recipient APCs and is presented to recipient T cells
Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction (MLR)
blood leukocytes from the recipient and donor are co-cultured. Donor cells are treated with anti-miotics.
Difference in the MHC alleles between the donor and recipient will cause the recipient's leukocytes to become activated and will proliferate. This response is measured by the amount of H-thymidine in the DNA of the replicating cells
Function of CD4+ in an allogenic rejection
secrete cytokines which helps propagate the MLR response
Function of CD8+ in allogenic rejection
lyse allogenic cells
Hyperacute Rejection
Alloantibodies bind to ABO blood group antigens on endothelial cells and activate complement, which releases thrombotic factors, causing vascular occlusion
Starves everything downstream of the thrombosis = kills the graft
Acute Vascular Rejection
alloantibodies bind to other antigens, such as MHC antigens, on endothelial cells and activate complement, causing immediate lysis of the cells.
CD8+ T cells also directly lyse non-MHC indentical donor endothelial cells
Acute Cellular Rejection
Parenchymal cells in the graft activate CD4+ cells which initiate a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction against non-MHC identical graft.
Direct lysis of parenchymal cells by CD8+ also occurs.
Two approaches to delay or avoid rejection:
1. Make the graft less immunogenic
- Match tissue and blood types
- Remove donor lymphocytes (passenger lymphocytes)

2. Suppress the recipient's immune system (cyclosporin)
Graft versus host disease (GVH)
allogenic donor lymphocytes react against host tissues in an immunologically compromised host

characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the skin, liver, and GI tract
How do cyclosporin and tacrolimus work?
Inhibits T cell activation by blocking IL-2 production
How does rapamycin work?
Blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting IL-2 cell signaling
Carcinomas
cancers derived from epithelial cells
Sarcomas
tumors arising from bone, cartilage, and fat
Lymphomas
tumors of the lymphoid tissue
Leukemias
marrow and blood-borne malignant tumors of lymphocytes and other hematopoietic cells
Teratoma
a tumor derived from a mixture of tissues
Adenomas
benign epithelial tumors
Oncofetal antigens
normally expressed in high levels on fetal tissue and low levels on adult tissue

do not cause an immune response

measuring levels of these antigens is useful in diagnosis
Which protein is elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma?
alpha-feto protein (AFP)
Which protein is elevated in colon cancer?
carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Which immune cells are not immunologically restricted?
NK cells
Which cytokine mediates the direct and indirect killing of tumor cells by macrophages?
TNF
Antigenic modulation
the loss of surface expression of tumor antigens as a result of the internalization of the antigen-antibody complex
Immunosuppressive factor secreted by some tumors

How does it work?
TGF-beta

inhibits T and B cell function
More people die from this type of cancer than any other type
Lung cancer
p53 gene function
Tumor suppressive gene
Binds to DNA to initiate its repair
Mutated p53 can lead to cancer
Adenomatous Polyposis Coli (APC)
Tumor suppressive gene
Mutations can cause colon cancer
BRCA-1 and BRCA-2
Tumor suppressive genes
Mutations cause breast cancer
Tamoxifen
Estrogen receptor blocker

Prevents breast cancer recurrence
Conditions encoded by oncogenic viruses
- Epstein-Barr virus
- Human papilloma virus
- Human herpes simplex virus 8
- Hepatitis B virus
- Human T lymphotropic virus (RNA virus)
FasL
mechanism by which tumors evade immune system

tumors express FasL which binds to Fas on T cells, resulting in T cell apoptosis
High doses of this prevents the proliferation of tumor cells
IL-2
Poly ADP Ribose Polymerase (PARP)
possibly used in the treatment of ovarian and breast cancer

enzyme involved in reparing single strand DNA breaks in BRCA mutations

blocking this enzyme would cause the cancer cell to undergo apoptosis
Mimicry
once the body is exposed to a particular antigen, it begins attacking a self cell which expresses an antigen that looks similar to the foreign antigen
What diseases are caused by mimicry?
Thyroiditis and Grave's disease
What causes myasthenia gravis?
a failure to delete self reactive clones. These clones attack self acetyl choline receptors.
Mechanisms by which autoimmunity develops (4)
1. Failure to delete self-reactive clones in the thymus
2. Mimicry
3. Exposure of previously concealed self antigens
4. By pass regulatory mechanisms -- polyclonal activation by LPS
X-linked agammaglobulinemia
absence of gamma globulin in the blood

patients with this disease have reduced or entirely missing B cells
DiGeorge Syndrome
congenital malformation of the thymus --> defective maturation of T cells

usually normalize by age 5 through the growth of a thymus-like tissue

nude (athymic) mouse
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCID)
defective development of T and B cells
Transfection
gene replacement therapy -- normal gene is linked to the nucleic acid from a non-pathogenic virus which facilitates the gene's entry into the host genome
Adenosine deaminase
(ADA)
Enzyme required for the normal metabolism of purines in lymphocytes.
Absence of this enzyme results in accumulation of toxic metabolites which destroy the cell.
A mutation in what gene causes Leber's congenital amaurosis?
RPE65
During HIV infection, what binding causes a conformational change?
Binding of gp120 to the CD4 molecule on the cell surface
What binding allows for the transfer of the HIV viron into the cell?
Binding of gp120 to CXCR4
HIV nef protein
mechanism of evading immune detection

downregulates MHC class I molecules from the infected cell's surface --> reduced capacity of the cell to stimulate T cell mediated lysis
Function of Azidothymidine (AZT)
reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Drug that reduces the transmission of HIV from an infected mother to her unborn child
Azidothymidine (AZT)
HAART (highly active anti-retroviral therapy)
combination drug of protease inhibitors and reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Function of protease inhibitors
inhibit the proteases required for the packaging of new virions for release from the infected cell
Side effects of HAART (3)
- dyslipidemia
- insulin resistance
- premature atherosclerosis
Enfuvirtide
prevents HIV from fusing with its target cell by blocking gp41
Selzentry
prevents HIV from fusing with its target cell by blocking the chemokine receptor
Isentress
blocks HIV from integrating into the host genome
What is the most commonly observed ocular abnormality in AIDS patients?
Cotton wool spots
In 1995, the discovery of which class of drug significantly decreased the death toll of HIV patients?
Protease Inhibitors
Immunological effects of TGF-beta in the eye
Inhibits T, B, and NK cell activity

Inhibits the development of cytotoxic T cell and cytokine production
ACAID
Suppresses DTH and complement-fixing antibodies
Where does ocular melanoma tend to metastasize to?
The liver
Leukocoria
loss of red reflex

happens in retinoblastoma
What layer of the tears is IgA localized to?
Mucin layer
Lactoferrin

1. Produced by?

2. Function?
1. Produced by acinar cells

2. Binds iron, which is required for bacterial growth
Lysozyme

1. Function?
cleaves the cell wall of gram positive bacteria
Function of Beta lysin
disrupts bacterial cell wall and inhibits catalase and peroxidase