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276 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

protozoa are [unicellular/multicellular]

unicellular

describe sexuality of protozoa

- can be sexual or asexual




- may alternate back and forth

T/F - apicomplexa are facultative intracellular parasites

false - obligate

apicomplexa are [sexual/asexual] reproducers

alternate back and forth

how many parts are there in the life cycle of apicomplexa?

3

fancy word for a direct life cycle (no intermediate host)

homoxenous

fancy word for requiring 1 or more intermediate host

heteroxenous

3 life cycles of apicomplexa

1. merogony/schizogony




2. gametogony




3. sporogony

is eimeria host specific?

highly specific

2 most pathogenic eimeria in cattle

1. E. bovis




2. E. zurneii

eimeria pathology is dependent on what 4 things?

1. host age




2. prior infection




3. infective dose




4. stress of animal

3 things that are important diagnostic tools when diagnosing eimeria in cattle

1. tissue location




2. oocyst mophology




3. site of lesion

4 clinical symptoms of eimeria in cattle

hemorrhagic diarrhea, anemia, weight loss & weakness

pathology of eimeria bovis is due to _________ and begins _______ past infection

gamonts




18 days

5 clinical symptoms of eimeria bovis

diarrhea, tenesmus, fever, congested mucosa, often edmatous and hemorrhage

in eimeria bovis, cattle either sucuumb ______ past infection or recover with [no/partial/full] immunity

3-4 weeks




partial

location of 1st generation infection of eimeria bovis

endothelial cells of posterior half of small intestine

location of 2nd generation infection of eimeria bovis


cecal and colonic epithelium

location of 1st generation infection of eimeria zurneii

throughout small intestine

location of 2nd generation infection of eimeria zurneii

ileum, colon cecum

pathology of eimeria zurneii is due to _________ with death beginning at _______ past infection

asexual stages




7 days

who is most at risk for coccidiosis

young animals and those with little prior exposure

what are the greatest times for coccidiosis to occur?

spring and fall

"asexual reproduction which produces merozoites"

merogony

"sexual reproduction which produces gametes"

gametogony

location of gamonts in eimeria bovis

epithelial cells of cecal and colonic glands

location of gamonts in eimeria zurneii

colon and cecum

when should you treat coccidiosis?

prophylactically - once they get it, they won't eat and won't get the medicine

what kind of coccidia do sheep get?

eimeria orinoidalis

location of 1st generation meronts in eimeria orinoidalis

small intestine

location of 2nd generation meronts in eimeria orinoidalis

large intestine

location of gamonts in eimeria orinoidalis

ileum, cecum, large intestine

how do eimeria and cryptosporidium differ in their lifecycle?

crypto can go oocyst to oocyst in as little as 48 hours




oocysts are infectious when they are passed

how do you treat cryptosporidium?

- self-limiting in immune-competent hosts




- fluid replacement for severely affected hosts

how do you diagnose cryptosprodidium?

- observe oocysts in floats, stained films, acid fast stains, ELISA, flourescence

is cryptosporidium zoonotic?




if so, what strand

yes - potential is low other than C. parvum

describe location of cryptosporidium in the body

intracellular but extracytoplasmic

what does cryptosporidium cause?

severe, cholera-like D+ in calves




- malabsorption

are all avian affected by the same strain of eimeria?

heck no - they are all highly host specific

avian coccidiosis is caused by _____________ and pathology is due to _______________

eimeria spp.




destruction of intestinal cells

clinical signs of avian coccidiosis

- hemorrhage




- malabsorption




*present prior to patency

how do you treat avian coccidiosis?

*sanitation


- oocysts are not infectious when passed




*coccidiostats in feed or water


- must rotate drugs to combat resistance


- allow some infection to build immunity

what causes coccidiosis in dogs & cats?

isopora & cystoisopora

isospora have a ________ life cycle and cystoisospora have a _________ life cycle

direct




heteroxenous

isospora oocysts contain ______ sporcysts and ______ sporozoites

2 - 8

what is the most common source of infection of coccidiosis in dogs?

raw meat or rodents

pathology of isospora canis

possibly bloody or mucoid D+; abdominal pain; dehydration; anorexia; vomiting

how do you treat coccidiosis in cats and dogs?

*ubiquitous




- can treat with albon but not labeled for such and they typically don't need treatment

what family do sarcocysts fall into?

apicomplexans

are sarcocysts direct or indirect life cycle?

indirect - require 2 hosts species (predator and prey)

describe asexual reproduction in sarcosysts

- occur in prey species




- site of pathology

describe sexual reproduction of sarcocysts

- occur in predator




- gametogony in intestinal tract




- infectious sporocysts containing sporozoites shed in feces

describe life cycle of sarcocystis cruzi

- canid (definitive host) & cattle (intermediate host)


- cattle infected by ingesting contaminated food/water w/sporocysts from dog feces


- meronts in endothelium, cysts in striated muscle 1 month PI, mature at 2.5-3 months

what causes dalmeny disease and what is it?

- sarcocystis cruzi
- in prey host, causes anorexia, pyrexia, anemia, weight loss, decreased milk production, generalized lymphandeopathy & abortion
- mortality ~ 1 month post infection
- requires LARGE numbers of sporocysts to become pathogenic

how do you diagnose sarcocystsis cruzi?

- history, serology, id of organisms




- rat tail


> hair loss due to follicles needing the most blood flow to regrow

how do you treat sarcocystis cruzi?

- do not allow dogs to feed on raw meat




- prevent contamination of cattle feed




- limited information on drugs

what causes equine protozoan myelitis (EPM)?

sarcocystis neruona

what is the life cycle of sarcocystis neurona?

- opossum/racoon: cat: otter


- horse is dead-end host


- sporocysts survive ~ 1 year


- latency period = 2 years

clinical signs of EPM

- asymmetric ataxia, weakness, focal muscle atrophy, chronic lameness, seizuring, urinary incontinence, acute recumbency, various nerve deficits

how do you diagnose EPM?

- clinical presentation


- serology


> blood only shows if exposure


> CNS needed to confirm pathogenesis

what is the seroprevalence of EPM in NC horses?

~50%

how do you treat EPM?

- need to begin within 2-4 weeks of clinical onset


- VERY expensive to treat


- drugs last 6-8 weeks or longer


- variable outcome of treatment


- include anti-inflammatory drugs


- never get full clearance, only remission

what kind of toxoplasma is most common?

T. gondii

describe toxoplasma asexual stages

- in all warm-blooded vertebrates




- multiplication in any nucleated cell




- can also occur in cats

describe toxoplasma sexual stages

- only in cats




- lamina propria of intestine




- does not typically cause pathology in cats

3 forms of toxoplasma that can infect the cat

1. tachyzoites




2. tissue cysts




3. bradyzoites

once ingested by a cat, [nonsporulated/sporulated] oocysts are passed in the stool for how long?




are they infectious immediately?

nonsporulated




2 weeks




nope - takes about 2 days

how do you test for toxoplasma?

serology




- positive means they have been exposed, not that they are necessarily currently shedding

toxoplasma pathology in cats

- infects nucleated cells


- sexual & asexual reproduction


- most cats are asymptomatic


- transplacental transmission is rare


- enteritis, lymphadenopathy, pneumonia, encephalitis, nepritis

in toxoplasma, which type of cats are most likely to show pathologic signs?

FIV+

describe toxoplasma serotypes

*there is only one




- immunity against one isolate should transfer


- explains low prevalence of clinical disease


- most infections in people are low virulence

toxoplasma pathology in people

- acquired infection


> lymphadenopathy, fever, meningoencephalitis, ocular lesions, myocarditis

when is toxoplasma an issue for pregnant women?

if it is the first time they are exposed to it

transplacental transmission of toxoplasma is [less/more] common when infection occurs later in pregnancy and [less/more] severe if acquired earlier during gestation

more - more

pathology of CNS with human toxoplasm

cerebral calcification, hydrocephalus, microcephaly, psychomotor disturbances, retardation, blindness, deafness

what human disease is toxoplasm linked to in adults?

HIV/AIDS

will casual contact with a cat give you toxoplasm?

heck no

treatment for toxoplasm

- pyrimethamine + sulfa drugs




- goes into remission, never fully cured

3 methods of toxoplasm transmission

1. foodborne




2. zoonotic




3. mother to child

describe toxoplasm in dogs

fever, lymphadenopathy, hemorrhagic D+




*often several weeks after distemper vaccine due to reactivation (immunosuppression)

descibre toxoplasm in sheep

abortion, CNS signs




circling disease

describe toxoplasm in swine

similar to dogs - public health concern

describe toxoplasm in horses

typically asymptomatic (EPM-like)

what is like toxoplasm but in dogs?

neospora caninum

what are the life cycle hosts of neospora caninum?

dog - cat - cattle - sheep

is neospora caninum zoonotic?

nope

how can you differentiate btwn toxoplasma and neospora?

serology (antibody reactions)

route of natural transmission of neospora caninum

transplacental




*may not transmit to every pregnancy or every offspring in litter

clinical signs of neospora caninum

- ascending hind limb paresis (5-6 wks)


> can see anywhere from 2 days to 7 years




- rigid muscle contraction




- skin ulceration, muscle atrophy, nerve and cardiac defects

treatment for neospora caninum

same as T. gondii except no steroids




- may take weeks to months and damage may be permanent


- outcome variable

where is neospora caninum seen most?

abortion and neonatal death of sheep in western states

what are piroplasms?

vector-transmitted protozoal parasites




babesia, theileria, cytauxzoon

what cell does babesia infect in the vertebrate host?

RBC

in theileria, what is the first cell they infect?




followed by....

white blood cell




red blood cell

how is cytauxzoon felis transmitted?




what type of parasite is it?

tick




apicomplexan protazoa

7 signs/history of cytauxzoon felis

1. acute febrile disease


2. access to outdoors


3. history of ticks


4. lethargy


5. dyspnea


6. neurologic disease


7. jaundice

who were originally thought to be the reservoir host for cytauxzoon felis?




who also appears to be now?

bobcats




cats

in cytauxzoon felis, clinical signs begin ___________ post infection and death occurs ________ after that

12-15 days




5 days

describe pathology of cytauxzoon felis

- schizogenous phase


- schizont-laden macrophages occlude blood vessels and result in multi-organ failure & death


- infection with merozoites results in minimal clinical disease

how would you diagnose cytauxzoon felis?

1. blood smear


2. CBC


> thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, leukopenia, anemia


3. chemistry


> icterus

what tick was originally thought to transmit cytauxzoon felis?

what tick is now thought to spread it?

dermacenter variabilis (american dog tick)




amblyomma americanum (lone star tick)

how do you treat cytoauxzoon felis?

atovaquone, azithromycin, imidocarb




*typically still need major supportive care (4-7 days of intensive care at specialty hospital)

who is most at risk for babesia canis?




babesia gibsoni?

greyhounds




pitts

3 main ways babesia is transmitted

1. dog bites




2. ticks




3. transfusions





typical history of a dog with babesia

- can be acute or chronic


- any age dog


- lethargy


- depression


- pale mucous membranes


- discolored urine

typical hematological findings of babesia




(what does it resemble?)

thrombocytopenia & anemia




(IMHA or ITP)

what are the pathognomonic biochemical findings for babesia?

ticked ya - there are none!

3 ways to test for babesia - which is best?

1. parasite vizualization (blood smear)




2. serology




3. PCR**best

describe serology testing for babesia

- not always cross reactive btwn species


> test for ALL species




- not always antibodies present


> do acute & convalescent titers

describe PCR testing for babesia

- positive: infection




- negative: truly negative or parasite load very low

describe life cycle of leucocytozoon

- arthropod supports maturation of gametocytes to gametes


- dvpmt of oocysts & sporozoites - injected in bloodmeal


- vertebrate intermediate host - merogony in both endothelial cells and RBC; gamonts in WBC

what organism is most affected by leucocytozoon and what organism spreads it?

turkey




black flies

what disease dose leucocytozoon resemble?

cytauxzoon - giant schizonts in liver & lymphoid cells, gametocytes in circulating WBC

describe the limiting factor for where you will see leucocytozoon

vector is black fly




*requires swiftly running water for larval stage

leucocytozoon smithi pathology


- splenomegaly, hepatic hypertrophy, hepatic necrosis, anemia, anorexia


- cough, bronchitis


- mortality for poults ~ 90%


- recovered birds are carriers

what is hemoproteus similar to?

plasmodium & leucocytozoon




- common in imported exotic birds


- no need to treat

name 2 organisms in the subphylum sarcomastigophora

giardia & tritrichomonas

giardia has a [direct/indirect] life cycle


direct

describe life cycle of giardia

- trophozoite attach to epithelial cells of upper third of small intestine (extracellular)




- cysts passed in feces (only if formed)

what is the infectious form of giardia?

cysts

is giardia zoonotic?

eh, not really

"beaver fever"

giardia

pathology of giardia

- malabsorption


- watery, malodorous feces


- abdominal pain


- deficiency of fat soluble vitamins

3 ways to diagnose giardia - which is the best?

best - ELISA




- trophozoites in fluid feces (direct wet mount with saline)


- cysts from formed feces in direct smear or zinc sulfate float

interpretation of giardia: ELISA positive & fecal positive

animal is infected

interpretation of giardia: ELISA positive & fecal negative

probably infected - confirm with 2nd test

interpretation of giardia: ELISA negative & fecal positive

may be infected by antigen is below level of detection or misinterpretation of fecal

test again

interpretation of giardia: ELISA negative & fecal negative

not infected

what drug treats giardia?




what drug used to treat it until resistance developed?

fenbendazole (panacur)




metro (flagyl)

describe a trichomonad

- primitive protozoan


- anterior flagella & undulating membrane


- similar to giardia but no cyst form


- directly transmitted host to host

in what species is tritrichomonas foetus historically found in?

bovine - venereal disease

what breeds of cats are most likely to transmit tritrichomonas?

exotic breeds (bengal, abyssinian, etc.)

feline tritrichomonas foetus resides where? causing what?

distal ileum and colon




D+

what cat populations are at risk for tritrichomonas?

1. younger cats




2. cattery, shelters or hoarding envmts




*no sex predisposition

is tritrichomonas typically fatal in cats?

nope - chronic large bowel D+ but absorption is still occuring

in bovine, tritrichomonas foetus is a _____________ disease and in cats it is a ___________ disease

urogenital




large bowel

tritrichomonas foetus was shown to survive in what intermediate host?

slug

can trichomonads be diagnosed with fecal flotation?

nope - hypertonic solution kills them

how can you distinguish btwn tritrichomonas foetus and giardia on cytology?

tri: scoot across slide




giardia: falling leaf motility

what kind of organism is leishmania?

hemoflagellate

4 types of morphology of hemoflagellates of vet med importance

1. trypomastigote




2. epimastigote




3. promastigote




4. amastigote

3 types of Leishmania

1. L. mexicana/tropica - cutaneous




2. L. brasilienses - mucocutaneous




3. L. donovani/chagasi - visceral

what organism transmits leishmania?

sandfly

what breed is commonly afflicated with leishmanaiasis?

foxhound

how is leishmania transmitted in the USA?

vertical transmission to pups or horizontal from direct contact

3 systemic clinical signs of leishmania

1. lymphadenopathy




2. fever




3. splenomegaly

top 2 clinical signs of leishmania

dry exfoliative dermatitis & ulcers

5 hematological and biochemical indications of leishmania

1. hyperglobulinemia


2. hypoalbuminemia


3. proeinuria


4. azotemia


5. mild non-regenerative anemia

what can you do to enhance the probability of getting a positive PCR test of leishmania?

aspirate lymph node and mix it in with your blood that you submit

what is the problem with using serology to diagnose leishmania?

it cross reacts with trypanosoma cruzi - need to do PCR to distinguish which one you have

what is the current drug of choice to treat leishmania? is it curative?

allopurinol - nope

in leishmania, amastigotes replicate where?

in monocytes and reticuloendothelial cells


(professional phagocytes)

in leishmania, promastigotes replicate where?

in biting flies

is leishmania zoonotic?

only in the medetaranian and places with biting flies

general symptoms of leishmania

skin lesions, dermal ulcers, hair loss, loss of appetite, weight loss & wasting

what is a problem with treating leishmania?

the drugs are very toxic

what is a characteristic of arthropods that is easy to target with drugs?

chitinous exoskeleton

clinical signs of mite infestations

pruritis, keratinization, alopecia, secondary infection (pyoderma), dermatitis, cachexia, blood loss, anemia

name 2 mesostigmata mites

1. dermanyssus gallinae




2. orthonyssus sylviarum

what is a defining characteristic of mesostigamata mites?

stigmata (respiratory pores) in the middle of their bodies




- btwn 2nd & 3rd legs


- open and close for gas diffusion

scientific name for red/roost mite

dermanyssus gallinae

characteristics of dermanyssus gallinae

- hide in evmnt during day


- feed on birds at night


- blood loss leads to decreased production


- death with heavy infestations


- control with evmtal acaracides as well as treating birds

mesostigmata mites are found on what species?

birds

dermanyssus gallinae can survive without a blood meal for ______________

4-5 months

scientific name for northern fowl mite

orithonyssus sylviarum

where do orithonyssus sylviarum mites spend most of their time?

on birds

clinical signs of orithonyssus sylviarum

loss of weight, decreased egg production, decreased feed conversion, death, matted feathers (around vent)

how long can orithonyssus sylviarum survive in abscence of an avian host?

3-7 weeks

2 families within suborder astigmata mites

1. sarcoptidae




2. notedres cati

describe respiration in astigmata mites

through integument

2 types of sarcoptidae mites

1. sarcoptes scabiei




2. notoedres cati

what species gets sarcoptes scabiei?

sheep, goats, pigs, cattle, horse, human, dog




*each species has a specific kind


- they don't survive long on hosts that are not their preferred kind

cat mange

notoedres cati

where do sarcopitdae mites live?

entire life cycle burrowed in skin




*transmission via direct contact

pathology of sarcoptes

skin lesions, secondary infections, irritation

where would you find scabies on a dog?

face

where would you find scabies on a pig?

top of neck, shoulders and ears & along back


where would you find scabies on cattle?

where hair is short: brisket & base of tail

where would you find scabies on sheep?

around face: black muzzle

what is the most important parasitic infection in confinement-reared pigs?

sarcoptes scabiei

do cats get sarcoptes scabiei?


nope - they get notoedres cati

treatment for sarcoptes scabei

topicals (lime-sulfar, carbaryl, malathion), carbamates (not babies), organophosphates (not cats), ivermectin, moxidectin, selemectin

scientific name for ear mites

otodectes spp.

what kind of mite is in suborder prostigmata?

demodicidae

scientific name for red mange of dogs

demodex canis

scientific name of cattle follicular mite

demodex bovis

when treating for demodex, what is important to distinguish?

normal fauna vs. demodicsosi

describe localized demodicosis

face, skull, ear canal, forelegs, trunk - alopecia, scaling, hyperpigmentation, pruritis, erythema - most resolve spontaneously




10% progress to systemic

describe generalized demodicosis

- large areas of body involved

- erythema, crusting, rancid seborrhea, lymphadenopathy

- inhereited immune defect

- chronic & no cure available

where does demodex live?

base of hair follicles

risk factors for demodex

immune supperssion, malnutrition, neoplasia & chemotherapy, endocrine disease

top 3 important vectors of disease

1. mosquitoes




2. snails




3. ticks

4 life stages of ticks

egg, larva, nymph, adult

what are ixodidae?

hard ticks

how can you sex a hard tick?

male: scutum extends over entire dorsum




female: scutum only covers part of dorsum

in ixodidae, the gnathostome projects....


anteriorly

describe 3 host tick life cycle

1. larvae on host 1




2. nymphs on host 2




3. adults on host 3 (mate & drop off - eggs laid in ground & hatch to larvae)

4 examples of 3 host ticks

1. amblyomma americanum (lone star)




2. rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog)




3. dermacenter variablis (american dog)




4. ixodes scapularis (black leg/deer)

lone star tick

amblyomma americanum

brown dog tick

rhipicephalus sanguineus

american dog tick

dermacenter variablis

black legged or deer tick

ixodes scapularis

what is one of the only ticks that can survive life cycle complete indoors

kennel or brown dog tick




rhipicephalus sanguineus

lone star tick: disease

cytauxzoon felis, ehrlichia

brown dog/kennel tick: disease

ehrlichia, babesia canis

american dog tick: disease

rocky mountain spotted fever

black legged tick: disease

lyme

describe 2 host tick life cycle

1. larvae & nymph feed on host 1




2. adults feed on host 2

example of 2 host tick




disease?

ripicephalus evertsi (red legged)




bovine/equine babesia, theileria, heartwater


*eradicated from USA

3 examples of 1 host tick

1. ripicephalus micorplus




2. Rhipicephalus annulatus




3. dermacenter albipictus

rhipicephalus microplus: disease

bovine babesiosis, anaplasmosis




*eradicated from USA except maybe texas

5 examples of tick pathology

1. blood loss (anemia)


2. wounding (secondary infections)


3. tick paralysis - toxins


4. tick worry (irritation)


5. damage to hides

4 methods of tick control

1. acaracides (wildlife hosts)




2. vaccines




3. habitat modification




4. breed susceptibility

what are siphonaptera?

fleas

fleas are ______________ flattened and lice are ________________ flattened

laterally




ventral-dorsally

4 life stages of flea

1. egg




2. larvae




3. pupae




4. adult

scientific name of most fleas found on dogs and cats in NC

Ctenocephalides felis

fleas have a [simple/complex] metamorphisis

compex

what temp and relative humidity do fleas like?

13-32*C




50-92% humidity





what is the typical length of an egg to egg lifecycle of a flea?

how long can it get up to?

14-28 days




6 months - 1 year

how long can an unfed adult flea survive?

2 months

flea life cycle

1. adult lays 25-35 eggs per day


2. eggs hatch in 2-5 days


3. larvae pupate in 7-14 days


4. adult fleas emerge 1-4 weeks


*will wait up to a year for a host!

how do you diagnose fleas?

observe them or their "dirt" or effects of bites

4 flea pathologies

1. blood loss (can produce anemia)
2. wound production (secondary infections)
3. allergy - dermatitis
4. disease transmission
- tapeworms!


active ingredient in advantage


imidacloprid




- inhibits post-synaptic never transmission


- kills fleas BEFORE biting

active ingredient in frontline

fipronil




- inhibits post-synaptic never transmission


- kills fleas BEFORE biting


- better staying power than advantage

active ingredient in program

lufenurone




- chitin synthesis inhibitor


- lacks adulticide

active ingredient in revolution

selamectin

active ingredient in advantix

imidacloprid & permethrin




- affects parasite nerves


- toxic to cats

active ingredient in sentinel

lufenuron & milbemycin




- eggs AND adults

2 kinds of lice & their hosts

1. mallophaga - chewing


- mammals & birds




2. anoplura - sucking


- mammals ONLY

lice have a [simple/complex] metamorphosis

simple

are lice host specific?

yup - they tend to spend their entire life on one host

pathology of lice

irritation, blood loss, disease transmission

which lice has a head broader than its thorax?

mallophaga

life cycle of lice

1. eggs (nits) cemented to hair/feathers


2. eggs hatch in 8-18 days


3. nymphal stages & become adults in 18 days to 3 weeks

pathology of anoplura

staining of wool, anemia, self-mutilation

what is the only louse in cats?

Felicola subrostratus

what is the only louse in pigs?

Haematopinus suis

treatment for lice

topicals for either kind; systemics ONLY for anoplura

4 types of filth flies

1. musca domestica - house fly




2. musca autumnalis - face fly




3. stomoxys calcitrans - stable fly




4. haematobis irritans

which 2 filth flies have sponging mouth parts?

1. musca domestica - house fly




2. musca autumnalis - face fly

which 2 filth flies have piercing mouth parts?

1. stomoxys calcitrans - stable fly




2. haematobis irritans

which 3 filth flies breed in fresh cow manure?

1. musca autumnalis - face fly




2. haematobis irritans

where does musca domestica breed?

any organic material


where does stomoxys calcitrans breed?

vegetable matter

musca domestica - loiter

indoor or outdoor

musca autumnalis - loiter

winter inside; summer outside

stomoxys calcitrans - loiter

outdoors on light surfaces

haematobis irritans - loiter

always on host when it is outdoors only

musca domestica - general path

fly bother




male & female

musca autumnalis - general path

fly bother




female only

stomoxys calcitrans - general path

fly bother with reduced productivity




male & female

haemotobis irritans - general path

fly bother with reduced productivity




male & female

which filth flies are mechanical vectors? for what?

viral/protazoa/bacterial


1. musca domestica


2. stomoxys calcitrans


3. haemotobis irritans




pink eye - musca autumnalis

which filth flies are biological vectors?




for what?

musca autumnalis: eyeworm




stomoxys calcitrans: stomachworm




haematobis irritans: filarial worm

species control for filth flies

general control measure - ALL




infeed inscecticide


1. musca autumnalis


2. haemotabis irritans




remove breeding material - stomoxys calcitrans

name 2 flesh/blow flies

1. sarcophagids (flesh flies)




2. calliphorids (blow flies, bottle flies, screwworms)

sarcophagids: color? lay what? main food?

grey




larvae




carrion

which flesh flesh/blow flies are obligate myiasis? facultative?

facultative: both




obligate: calliphorids (primary screwworm)

calliphorids: color? lay what? main food?

metallic




eggs




carrion, necrotic tissue, soiled wool & fur

5 types of bot flies & host

1. gasterophilus - horse


2. hypoderma - cattle


3. oestris ovis - sheep/goats


4. cuterebra - rodent/dog/cat


5. dermatobia hominis - human

gasterophilus - egg deposit? enter host? pathology?

legs/body; intermandibular; nose/lips




mouth




gastric ulcers & colitis

gasterophilus - early & late larval location

early: gums & tongue




late: stomach; pylorus; duodenum & rectum

hypoderma - egg deposit? enter host? pathology?

legs




skin penetration




gadding, meat condemnation, hide grade down

hypoderma - early and late larval location

early: esophagus; spinal canal




late: back subcutaneous

oestris ovis - egg deposit? enter host? pathology?

larviposit nostrils




nostrils




minor to distress

oestris ovis - early and late larval location

early: nasal passages




late: nasal passages

cuterebra: egg deposit? enter host? pathology?

in burrow to fur




natural orifice




skin warble

cuterebra - early and late larval location

early: tissue migration




late: subcutaneous

dermatobia hominis - egg deposit? enter host? pathology?

slave fly




skin/wound penetration




skin warble

dermatobia hominis - early and late larval location

early: tissue migration




late: subcutaneous

treatment for gasterophilus

late summer & early fall

treatment for hypoderma

at end of fly season to prevent bloat & parlysis

treatment for oestris ovis

systemic insecticide

treatment for cuterebra & dermatobia hominis

surgery