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308 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the purpose of an FDC NOTAM?
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NOTAMs are regulations covering changes in instrument approach procedures and temporary flight restrictions. FDCs must be location specific to DUAT. FDCs within 400 miles are maintained by FSS until published in biweekly Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP). FDCs are not included in weather briefings unless asked for. (See AIM 5-1-3 for NOTAM contractions)
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To get a visual approach, you must be...
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Aircraft on IFR flight plan while airport is VFR, in sight, and traffic to follow also in sight.
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3. What are minimum requirements for a contact approach.
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3. Aircraft on IFR plan may request contact approach if they are clear of clouds and expect to remain clear of clouds and have one mile flight visibility to the airport.
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4. What differentiates a visual from a contact approach?
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4. Pilot must request contact approach. ATC can assign visual approach which must have higher weather minimums.
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5. What specifics are mentioned as being part of "all available information for IFR flights?
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5. A pilot must have weather reports and forecasts, required fuel plus reserves, flight alternatives, known traffic delays, and airport runway lengths.
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6. Must ATC advise you if a facility is NOTAMed out of service?
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6. ATC must give you alternative routes and may tell you why this is required. Ask.
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7. ATC is required to pass along PIREPS?
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7. ATC is required to pass pertinent flight information, including PIREPS but it doesn’t always happen
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8. What pilot response is expected when you are cleared for descent at pilots discretion?
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8. A pilot should always report leaving last assigned altitude.
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9. What is the significance to the pilot of an ATC directive to do something when able?
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9. Any clearance or direction by ATC for the pilot to perform something when able, means just that. The performance is entirely at the pilot’s determination of "able".
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10. When are pilot reports required?
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10. Pilot reports are required in the event of equipment failure, leaving an assigned altitude, departing a holding pattern, making a missed approach and FAF.
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11. You must know the weather before shooting a Part 91 approach.
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11. Not required for Part 91 to know or have weather. Take a look is authorized. Better have landing visibility minimums if you land.
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12. When can you log an approach as IFR?
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12. If any part of the approach is flown in IFR conditions the entire approach can be logged as an IFR approach
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13. Can an FSS provide separation where no tower or approach exists?
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13. It is unlikely that an FSS will give more than relayed clearances, releases, possible reported traffic, and weather.
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14. What separation remains with ATC even on a Practice approach?
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ATC is always responsible for runway separation and all ground separation.
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1. What is the course width of an ILS localizer?
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1. ILS course width is 3-6 degrees full width to give 700' at runway threshold. (AIM 1-10(b)(2))
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2. What is the course width of a localizer-type directional aid(LDA)?
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2. Same as ILS above. (AIM 1-10 (c)(1))
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3. What is the course width of a simplified directional facility (SDF)?
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3. Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) is 6-12 degrees adjusted for safest operation. (AIM 1-11 (f))
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4. What is the course width of a glideslope?
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4. 1.4 degrees vertical width. (AIM 1-10 (d) (3))
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5. What is the standard useable distance for using a glideslope?
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5. Standard glideslope distance is 10 nautical miles. (AIM 1-10 (d) (3))
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6. What is the standard useable distance for a localizer?
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6. Course guidance is 18 nautical miles up to 4500' above antenna and 1000' above course terrain. (AIM 1-10 (B)(5))
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6. What is the standard useable distance for a localizer?
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6. Course guidance is 18 nautical miles up to 4500' above antenna and 1000' above course terrain. (AIM 1-10 (B)(5))
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7. The middle marker is how far from the runway?
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7. Middle marker is 3500' from threshold
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8. The marker light that flashes on a back course is what color?
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8. Back course marker is white.
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9. On an ILS approach the white light indicates what marker?
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9. On the ILS a white marker indicates the inner marker. (obsolete)
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10. On an ILS approach the color of the light over the middle marker is?
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10. The middle marker light is amber.
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11. The standard MDA with of the localizer back course is?
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11. The back course localizer at the threshold is 400' MDA standard.
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12. When is it acceptable to descend 50' below DH? (FAR 91.175)
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12. According to the FAA, "Never".
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13. Can you descend into ground fog from clear conditions to below DH?
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13. No
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14. What are the three conditions that allow descent below DH?
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14. 1) Ability to execute normal landing; 2) Visibility not less than charted; 3) Required visual runway references (10 of them) (91.175)
1. Approach lights 2. threshold 3. Threshold markings 4. Threshold lights 5. End identifier lights 6. Visual approach slope indicator 7. Touchdown zone or markings 8. Touchdown zone lights 9. Runway or runway markings 10. Runway lights |
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15. What does "Cleared for the approach" mean?
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15. Fly the approach as charted at charted altitudes or higher
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16. What is the controlling visibility for Part 91 operations?
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16. Part 91 operations are controlled by flight visibility as determined by the pilot.
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17. When can a pilot change from an ILS to a Localizer approach.
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17. A pilot can change from ILS to Localizer any time before descent to localizer minimums. An additional ATC clearance is not required.
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18. Is a Part 91 pilot required to abide by an IFR departure procedure?
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18. A Part 91 pilot need only to abide by the procedure that is in the ATC clearance
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19. Do monitors shut down defective glide slopes?
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19. Old ones did but no longer. You must check flags.
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1. Is a pilot required to begin an approach at an IAF?
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1. There is no requirement to begin an approach at an IAF.
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2. When is an approach an IFR approach?
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2. An IFR approach is an IFR approach when any part of the approach is IFR or under the hood.
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3. Which NOTAMs are about navigational facilities, public airports, etc.?
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3. Distant NOTAMs AIM 5-3
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4. Which NOTAMs are about taxiway closures, taxiway lighting, and beacons?
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4. Local NOTAMs AIM 5-3
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5. Which NOTAMs apply to regulations, charts and flight restrictions?
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5. Flight Data Center NOTAMs, FDCs. AIM 5-3
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6. What is the requirement to advise ATC when you change departure time?
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6. Notify ATC if you are delayed more than an hour. AIM 5-11
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7. What must you do if you miss a clearance void time takeoff?
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7. You cannot depart after a clearance void time and you must advise ATC within 30 minutes. AIM 5-23
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8. How is obstacle clearance provided during an IFR departure?
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8. It is the pilot's responsibility as to procedure and obstacle clearance. AIM 5-25
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9. When must you advise ATC of a change in airspeed?
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9. If your flight true airspeed varies from your filed true airspeed by 5% or 10 knots, ATC expects to be advised.
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10. When should ATC give a clearance beyond your clearance limit if there are no delays?
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10. ATC should issue a clearance beyond the fix as soon as possible and at least five minutes before reaching the clearance limit. AIM 4- 82
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11. What does MSA (minimum safe altitude) have to do with approaches?
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11. MSA is for emergency use only. Measured from NDB or VOR. AIM 5-44
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12. What are the limitations of the MVA.
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12. MVA always provides 1000' terrain clearance but may not provide 2000' in mountains. AIM 5-44
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13. What does 'cleared for the option' mean on an IFR approach?
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13. "Option" means you can make low approach, missed approach, touch-and-go, stop-and-go, or full stop. AIM 4-71
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14. How is a VDP (visual descent point) used?
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14. Visual descent points are used only on non-precision straight in approaches. AIM 5-44
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15. What is the meaning of 'minimum fuel advisory"?
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15. Minimum fuel advisory by the pilot does not give priority. AIM 5-84
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16. During a visual approach, when is radar service terminated?
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16. Radar service is terminated when you are told to contact the tower. AIM 5-80
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17. What is the minimum climb rate required for an unpublished IFR departure?
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17. 200 fpm.
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20. What clearances can be issued to a pilot by ATC without being asked?
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20. ATC can issue a pilot a visual approach, STAR, or SID when it wants to.
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1. At what distance from the airport do you usually intercept the glideslope?
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1. Glide slopes are usually intercepted 10 miles from the threshold.
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2. Why do some glide slopes prohibit coupled approaches?
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2. If terrain caused glideslope problems can't be fixed, no coupled approaches are allowed.
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3. Marker crossing altitudes on the charts are given above (what)?
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3. Both NOS and Jepp as MSL and AGL above TDZE
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4. How far out can you intercept and track a glideslope?
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4. Watch out for false slopes but there is no regulation saying when to intercept.
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5. What is required for ATC to authorize visual separation?
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5. Conditions must allow continual visual contact of one aircraft with another
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6. What are minimum visual separation standards?
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6. Pilot decision determines visual separation minimums.
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7. What are Class B visual separation standards?
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7. Pilot determines seperatiom
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9. What is the effect of a pilot’s admission of visual contact?
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9. Once a pilot has visual contact, separation responsibility rests entirely with the pilot.
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10. Where is visual separation not allowed.
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10. Class A airspace does not allow visual separation.
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11. On accepting visual separation what does ATC expect of the pilot?
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11. The pilot is expected to maneuver to maintain visual separation once it has been granted by ATC.
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12. Can two departing IFR aircraft request ‘visual separation’?
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12. Two departing IFR aircraft can be granted ‘visual separation’ by ATC but the entire burden of such responsibility rests on the pilot.
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14. What will the alternate static source do to instrument readings?
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14. With an active alternate static source the altimeter will read higher than it should. Indicated airspeed will read higher than it should. The VSI will show initial climb.
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15. What is the effect on the VSI of a blocked static source?
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15. Whatever the VSI is reading at the moment of blockage will remain constant regardless of the aircraft behavior. The VSI works on differential pressures of a sealed chamber and the static air source.
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16. Why do we vary the angle of attack during a level turn?
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16. In a level turn the vertical lift component is decreased by the amount of force required to make the turn. To hold altitude, this decrease must be compensated by an increase in angle of attack.
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17. What procedure will correctly give the climb lead necessary to level off at a given altitude?
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17. The easiest way to lead your leveling off at a given altitude is to use 10% of your vertical climb speed.
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18. What factors influence how to lead a level off from a descent?
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18. The lead required to level off from a descent is determined by the speed of descent and the selected level airspeed. If descent and level are to be at the same speed use 10% of descent rate. If level speed is to be higher then bring up power at 20% of descent rate point and hold nose for speed increase but allow to rise at % point for level flight at higher than descent speed.
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1. If the ATIS does not give sky conditions you are supposed to know...
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1. No sky condition in the ATIS means ceiling over 5000' and 5 mile visibility. AIM 4-13
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2. How does 'see and avoid' apply to IFR flight?
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2. When conditions permit, IFR pilots are expected to "see and avoid". FAR 91.113
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3. Where is VFR-on-top not allowed?
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3. No VFR of any kind is allowed in Class A airspace.
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4. How do you determine a proper altitude if cleared VFR-on-top?
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4. All VFR flight must comply with the hemispheric rule as determined by Magnetic Course when 3000' or more AGL. FAR 91.159
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5. What reports are required when VFR-on-top?
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5. VFR-on-top flights must give reports as though non-radar IFR.
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6. What reports require a specific ATC request?
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6. ATC must make a specific request for a FAF report.
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7. At what point should the outbound timing begin when holding at an NDB?
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7. When abeam the NDB the outbound timing should begin.
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8. When cleared for a visual approach, when can you commence descending?
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8. Descent is at your discretion unless restricted by ATC.
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9. Are you required to report leaving an altitude?
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9. It is recommended in AIM 5-33 that you report leaving an altitude. I feel that ATC likes to know a pilot is competent and knowledgeable.
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10. What does 'cruise 6000' mean?
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10. It lets you fly at any altitude from the IFR minimum to 6000'. You can climb and descend at your discretion but you cannot climb again if you have reported to ATC that you are leaving an altitude. A cruise clearance is also a clearance to your destination. Rarely used.
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11. What climb/descent rate does ATC expect from you?
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11. ATC expects a minimum of 500 fpm. According to AIM 5-33 you are expected to advise ATC if you are unable to perform.
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12. What does 'expedite' mean when used by ATC over the radio?
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12. "Expedite' is used by ATC when immediate compliance is required.
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13. Breaking the VSI glass will restore the pitot-static system except for the VSI. When will the VSI read accurately?
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13. Level flight. All climb and descent readings will be backward
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14. How long will a terminal forecast (FT) be valid?
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14. 24 hours
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15. Transcribed Weather Broadcast route forecasts are issued twice a day and are valid for how long?
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15. The morning forecast is valid for 12 hours. The evening for 18 hours.
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16. How will a briefer inform you that flight under VFR is questionable?
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16. "VFR flight is not recommended".
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17. Why would an AIRMET not be issued over an area with moderate icing, moderate turbulence, 30+ knot winds, and ceilings of below 1000' and visibility less than three miles with extensive mountain obscuration?
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17. An AIRMET will not be issued if the information in the terminal forecast (FA).
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18. Where can you expect microbursts.
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18. Microbursts can be expected wherever there is convective activity.
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19. Why is holding prohibited over the areas of a glideslope?
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19. An aircraft in a holding pattern can cause glideslope distortion.
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1. When does a microburst die?
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1. A microburst becomes stronger for about five minutes and then takes another ten minutes to dissipate
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2. What should you do if you enter a thunderstorm?
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2. Continue straight ahead, ignore altitude changes, slow to Va, don't turn, and stay level.
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3. What distance is considers as safe for avoiding thunderstorms?
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3. 20 miles.
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4. What is indicated by the presence of virga?
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4. Strong downdrafts with moderate + turbulence
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5. What is required for a visual approach?
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5. A visual approach must be authorized by ATC, be on an IFR flight plan, must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to maintain VFR to the airport.
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6. What is required for a contact approach.
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6. For a contact approach you must be on an IFR flight plan, clear of clouds in one mile visibility, conditions expected to remain enroute to airport, must be requested by pilot.
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7. Where do we find the FDC NOTAMs?
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7. Every two weeks the Notices to Airmen publishes the NOTAM Ds expected to remain active and the FDC NOTAMs currently effective.
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8. IFR flight requires that you have all available information plus
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8. In addition to all available information you must have weather reports forecasts, needed fuel, alternatives, known traffic delays and runway lengths.
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9. How does the AI react differently in a roll Vs a loop?
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9. AIs do not tumble during a roll. In roll they will read correctly. In pitch, when a loop exceeds the 80-degrees the AI stops in up/down pitch and then slowly read correctly.
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10. to recover from a steep diving unusual attitude what is the best instrument to use for recovery?
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10. If the dive is not inverted, the turn coordinator is easiest to use.
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11. In unusual attitude recovery, why level wings before fixing pitch?
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11. Leveling wings reduces load factor and prevents a spiral dive.
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12. Why do aircraft recovery from changes in pitch attitude?
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12. Positive dynamic stability is the design quality of an aircraft which allows it to make a self-recovery from pitch changes
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13. How can you identify the horizon in recovery from an unusual attitude?
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13. The horizon can be identified in unusual attitude recovery when the VSI, altimeter and airspeed reverse trend direction.
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14. How does the localizer of Category II approaches differ from standard?
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14. Category II localizers are no more accurate but signal quality is higher.
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15. What is the meaning of RA 345 on an approach chart?
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15. RA 345 on an approach chart is a radar altitude which can only be determined if you have a radar altimeter.
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16. Why might a Category II approach have two DHs?
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16. After a Category II pilot has gained experience he can take lower DHs.
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17. What should you expect if crossing the threshold on the glide slope?
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17. Crossing the threshold on the ILS on the glide slope will give touchdown at the 1000' markers.
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1. Are glide slope and localizer equipped for shutdown on failure?
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1. Shutdown is not automatic. Always check flags for glide slope and localizer.
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2. Why are low altitude holds prohibited over any part of the ILS?
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2. Aircraft at moderate altitudes and lower can cause localizer distortion.
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3. What is the service range of an ILS signal?
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3. ILS standard service volume is 10 miles but may be farther.
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4. What are false glide slopes?
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4. False glide slopes are allowed to exist above the published glideslope. The key identifier is the crossing altitude of the marker. False glide slopes will have a steeper angle of descent.
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5. Can you intercept a glide slope from far away and fly it inbound?
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5. You can fly a glideslope from beyond 10 miles out but you have no way to determine if it is false or true until you get an altitude check.
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6. How does a attitude indicator precess under acceleration?
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6. When accelerated the AI moves down so that corrections will cause an unwarranted descent.
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7. What kind of bank does a coordinated turn show on the turn coordinator?
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7. Turn coordinator does not show bank. It only shows rate of turn regardless of airspeed.
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8. What is the best way to increase the rate of turn while decreasing the radius of the turn in a standard rate turn?
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8. If maintaining a standard rate turn it will be the same regardless of airspeed so rate cannot be changed. The radius of the turn can be reduced by slowing the TAS of the aircraft.
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9. What is the effect of temperature on true airspeed?
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9. True airspeed will vary directly with changes of temperature. TAS increases as temperature rise and decreases as temperatures fall.
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10. What is the effect of true altitude on true airspeed?
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10. True airspeed will vary directly with changes of true altitude. TAS increases as true altitude rises and decreases as true altitude becomes lower.
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11. How do you determine pressure altitude?
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11. Pressure altitude is determined by setting altimeter to 29.92.
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12, With an altimeter setting of 30.43 at an altitude of 6000 feet what will the pressure altitude be?
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12. The difference is .51 or 510 feet. Pressure altitude is 5490 feet.
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13. When making a standard rate turn how fast are you turning?
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13. Three degrees a second, thirty degrees in 10 seconds, 90 degrees in thirty seconds, 180 degrees per minute.
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1. What common flight instrument is not required for IFR flight?
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1. The VSI is not a required IFR flight instrument.
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2. Where do false glide slopes exist?
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2. False glide slopes are permitted to exist only above the real one.
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3. How do you overcome spatial disorientation?
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3. Spatial disorientation cannot be prevented. It can be overcome by total reliance on the instruments.
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4. What kinesthetic sense is created by a smoothly coordinated 1.5G turn? (This is more than a standard rate turn)
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4. The illusion produced is the entrance into a climb if the head is held erect eyes covered but open. With the eyes closed the illusion is that of a dive. (needs confirmation)
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5. When can level flight from an unusual attitude recovery be noted on the instruments?
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5. Approximate level occurs when airspeed and altimeter slow their rate of change and the VSI reverses.
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6. How do you recover from a spiraling descent?
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6. Recovery from a spiraling descent is best achieved by power reduction, leveling of wings, and raising the nose. The closer together these occur the better will be the recovery.
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7. What the difference between flying "over the top" and "on top."
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7. "VFR over the top" is when a VFR pilot flies over a ceiling "IFR over the top" is the act of flying VFR over a ceiling on
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8. What constitutes the end of radar service?
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8. The controller may make a specific statement or convention says that being told to contact the tower or the advisory frequency constitutes a termination of radar service.
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9. When on an IFR flight, ATC advises that radar contact has been lost. What do you do?
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9. When radar contact is lost resume making all standard and requested position reports.
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10. Non-radar separation standards are?
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10. Single - thread procedures usually prevail in non-radar situations. One aircraft at a time is taken in or out until radar can make contact and provide separation.
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11. What depends on your distance from the antenna?
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11. Terminal separation depends on the aircraft distance from the antenna. 3 miles is standard within 40 miles and 5 is standard beyond that the same as Center.
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12. When cleared for approach why might ATC issue an altitude restriction?
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12. Any time ATC issues an altitude restriction as part of an approach clearance you should assume that an obstacle is responsible.
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1. When is the IFR departure required for Part 91 aircraft in Class D
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1. Part 91.129 requires the Classes B, C, and D fly the IFR departure where one exists.
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2. What is unusual about Part 91 IFR takeoff minimums?
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2. There are no departure minimums for Part 91 aircraft.
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3. Where takeoff minimums exist for FAR Parts they relate only to...
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3. Other than Part 91 the other FAR parts are limited by visibility. Where climb requirements higher than standard exist there may also be ceiling minimum.
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4. At what altitude AGL may an IFR turn be initiated?
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4. 400’
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5. How are commercial operations different than Part 91?
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5. Commercial operations must have approved weather and alternates where field is below landing minimums.
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6. Aircraft approach categories under FAR 97 are determined by...
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6. 1.3 Vso at maximum certificated landing weight
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7. If an emergency requires deviation under FAR 91 you must...?
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7. Send in a written report of that deviation on FAA request.
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7. If an emergency requires deviation under FAR 91 you must...?
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7. Send in a written report of that deviation on FAA request.
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8. ATC priority handling by ATC in violation of FAR 91 requires..?
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8. A written report to the facility on request within 48 hours. FAR 91.123(d)
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9. Part 91 takeoff minimums are..
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9. There are no takeoff minimums under Part 91. FAR 91.175
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10. On an IFR approach when must you execute a missed approach?
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10. On being below the MDA without at least one of the visual requirements in sight.
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11. When on a VASI runway you are required to.
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1. When on a VASI runway you must remain at or above the VASI glideslope.
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12. What is the maximum speed allowed in Class D airspace?
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12. 200 knots FAR 91.117(b)
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13. Who determines if an aircraft is airworthy?
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13. The pilot
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14. Who determines if an aircraft is not airworthy?
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14. The FAA after something happens to prove the pilot wrong.
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15. Who determines if an aircraft is in compliance with required Part 91 inspections?
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15. The owner/operator
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16. Do all aircraft have minimum equipment lists?
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16. FAR 91.405 allows aircraft without an MEL to operate if inoperative items are properly placarded and disabled. Older aircraft do not have lists. Most G. A. aircraft are ‘older’.
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17. Can an aircraft be flown without an ELT
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17. An aircraft can be flown for 30 days without an ELT.
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18. What are the basics of pilot responsibility regarding seatbelts and seats in aircraft?
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18. Each person must...a. be briefed on seatbelt operation; b. be notified to fasten bests before takeoff and landing; c. occupy an approved seat with secured belts as provided for takeoff and landings; Children under two years do not need separate seats.
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1. When on approach you begin to see the ground occasionally at the MDA or DH. How does this influence your MAP decision?
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1. Without the references required by 91.175 the missed is required.
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2. What do you do if you are told that braking is nil when on the approach
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2. Go to your alternate.
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3. What do you do if you find that you cannot depart before a clearance void time?
|
3. No go. AIM 5-2-4. Start the clearance procedure over with FSS.
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4. When on an ILS approach you find that you are in the clear and can see much of the runway but must enter fog to continue the approach?
|
4. Missed is required. Cancel IFR if conditions allow.
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5. There are no runway lights as you are on the ILS approach at dusk. You are Part 91. What do you do.
|
5. Not a problem for Part 91.
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6. If your vectors to final set you up at the marker but far too high. What do you do?
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6. Make the missed procedure and come back on altitude and speed.
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7. What is required to land if you find that inside the marker the minimum visibility is below requirements?
|
7. Part 91 lets you take a look.
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8. You note a thunderstorm off the departure end of the runway, just as you are cleared for departure after a 45 minutes wait. What to do?
|
8. Cancel
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9. Do you fly if your medical is out of date by only one day?
|
9. No
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10. After landing, you find that you had neglected to set the altimeter on an approach that was down to minimums. Who do you tell?
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10. Do a phase check on yourself.
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11. You are well equipped with two glide slopes. Their indications differ. What do you do?
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11. Checking altitude at outer marker would tell you which is O.K.
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12. Reported surface temperate is 5 degrees centigrade. You have some ice on the leading edge as you descend in IMC. What to do?
|
12. Continue but add speed
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13. You have the long runway in view as you break out and see that it is covered with snow. What to do?
|
13. Don’t land
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14. On short final a passenger says that the gear is not down. You have three green. What do you do?
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14. Go around and recheck gear
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15. You have just flown a very ragged approach but landed successfully;. What do you do?
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15. Plan some proficiency rides.
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16. When within a few miles of your home field, you note that the oil pressure is slightly low. What to do?
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16. Get on the ground as soon as possible.
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17. Your flying companion does something very poorly. What do you do?
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17. If it is a safety issue do not ignore.
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18. What do you say to the controller if you arrive for the approach low on fuel?
|
18. "Minimum Fuel".
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|
1. What segment is used for the outbound heading?
|
1. The initial segment is the outbound course line.
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2. What segment is used for the inbound heading?
|
2. The intermediate segment is the inbound course line.
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3. What segment is after the final approach fix?
|
3. The final segment is from the final approach fix to the missed approach point.
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4. What glide slope references are available for non-precision approaches?
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4. A non-precision approach may have a visual descent point or a VASI or VAPI. Make your own VDPs
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5. What is the safety margin for obstacle clearance on a Cat1 ILS?
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5. Near the runway it may be as little as 60 feet.
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6. When is a Mode C not required?
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6. Mode C is not required below 10,000’ and when outside the Class B Mode C 30 NM veil.
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7. How much altitude variation is allowable in a transponder Mode C?
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7. If your transponder shows over a 300’ error after you have set the altimeter, you may expect ATC to have you stop use of Mode C.
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8. How often must a transponder be certified for accuracy?
|
8. The transponder accuracy check is required for all aircraft every two years.
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9. In Class E airspace how high can you fly without a transponder?
|
9. Any flight above 10,000 feet MSL requires the use of a transponder capable of Mode C. The exception within 2500’ of terrain.
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10. What happens to Mode C if you are on the incorrect altimeter setting?
|
10. Mode C altitude is determined by ATC computers that use the current altimeter setting. If your altimeter is incorrectly set, it does not affect the accuracy of your Mode C. You can expect ATC to give you notice of the error.
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11. If a VFR aircraft is assigned a visual hold at a particular point, what are you supposed to do?
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11. You are expected to circle the point instead of flying a racetrack.
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12. When ATC sees that your flight is compressing the allowable separation allowed, what can you expect
|
12. Vectors
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13. If issued a clearance limit short of your destination, what are you options?
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13. Query ATC as to your clearance status, option to request slower speed or vectors exist.
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14. What are the elements of a holding clearance?
|
14. Name of fix, altitude, holding direction, and EFC time.
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|
1. What random routing (direct clearances) are allowed using Center radar?
|
1. You must usually be above Minimum Instrument Altitude (MIA)
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2. What is the implied understanding of "proceed direct when able"
|
2. When you accept the "proceed direct when able" clearance you are telling ATC that you have ability to navigate independent of the radar.
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|
3. To legally fly a GPS approach what is required?
|
3. You must have an IFR certified GPS and perhaps more.
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|
4. VORs have published service volumes. What is the service volume of an NDB
|
4. The service volume of an NDB is 15 miles. Use GPS to check distance.
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|
5. An OROCA (Jepp MORA) altitude on enroute charts provides what obstacle clearance.
|
5. The 1000’ extra obstacle clearance required by 91.177 in mountains as well as MIAs is provided by charted off-route altitudes.
|
|
|
6. Is a turn coordinator required for IFR?
|
6. Yes, unless you have a THIRD attitude indicator.
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|
|
7. How do you check a turn coordinator prior to flight?
|
7. While the taxi check is standard, listen for gyro grinding sounds.
|
|
|
8. How do you determine turn rate from the attitude indicator?
|
8. A standard rate turn is roughly 15% of TAS
|
|
|
9. Can you legally depart IFR without an operating transponder?
|
9. There is nothing in the FARs to cover this so it must be legal. You
need to find out if ATC will let you. |
|
|
10. According to FAR 91.205 an IFR aircraft must have a sweep-second hand clock. What could you substitute
|
10. NEVER a watch. You can have a PANEL digital timer.
|
|
|
11. What obstacle clearance do you have on feeder routes?
|
11. Feeder routes have normal obstacle clearance of 1000’ and in mountains 2000’.
|
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|
12. When on an OTP clearance your radios fail. What is the best option.
|
12. Maintain VFR and fly to nearest VFR airport to advise ATC of what happened.
|
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|
13. When flying with a restricted altitude on an OTP clearance you encounter clouds. What is the best option?
|
13. Deviate sufficiently to maintain cloud clearance and advise ATC.
|
|
|
1. What can you expect in a clearance?
|
1, OPRAH Point, procedure, route, altitude, holding
|
|
|
2. What is the definition of a Visual Descent Point?
|
2. The VDP is a defined point on a non-precision straight-in approach at the MDA from which a normal descent to landing can be made given the proper visual references.
|
|
|
3. What is the speed limit in Class C and D airspace?
|
3. 200 knots is maximum speed in Class C and D airspace. AIM 91.117 (b).
|
|
|
4. What is a cruise clearance?
|
4. Cruise clearance let you fly at any altitude above the MIA so long as it obeys the hemispheric rule up to 18,000’.
|
|
|
5. What is an OROCA?
|
5. The off route obstacle clearance altitude has 1000’ obstacle clearance except for 2000’ in the mountains.
|
|
|
6. What is the MSA?
|
6. The minimum safe altitude on IAP charts is given from a navaid.
|
|
|
7. What should happen as you approach your clearance limit?
|
7. You should get holding instructions before reaching the fix. If not, hold in right turns or as published on the course you arrived at the fix.
|
|
|
8. What is the MRA.
|
8. The minimum reception altitude is as low as a fix can be determined
|
|
|
9. What is required before you are allowed to fly SVFR?
|
9. Airports must have one-mile visibility officially reported before an airplane is allowed to obtain a SVFR clearance. Special Visual Flight Rules.
|
|
|
10. How is the MOCA related to navigation?
|
10. The minimum obstruction clearance altitude provides VOR signals within 25 STATUTE miles of the VOR
|
|
|
11. What is required when flying VFR-on-top?
|
11. VFR cloud clearances and visibility are required as well as compliance with IFR strictures.
|
|
|
12. What are the holding speeds as related to altitudes?
|
12. 200 kts at 6000’ down; 230 knots six to fourteen thousand; 265 kts above 14,000.
|
|
|
13. What is the maximum speed allowed by FAR below 10,000’.
|
13, 250 knots is the maximum speed allowed below 10,000’.
|
|
|
14. What is the maximum speed below Class B or in VFR corridors?
|
14. 200 kts is maximum below Class B or in VFR corridors.
|
|
|
15. Seeing an ALSF-2 of maximum array length means visibility is...?
|
15. More than one statute mile.
|
|
|
16. Are visual descent points regulatory?
|
16. VDP are not regulatory for Part 91. You can even make your own
|
|
|
17 When could you have the required FAR 91.175 visibility to descend below MDA and still unable to land legally?
|
17. You may have the threshold but not the runway due to fog.
|
|
|
18. Can you land if you have descended below MDA and have the runway in sight?
|
18. Depends on runway length. A part 91 could make a normal landing to a long runway. Other parts require TDZ landings.
|
|
|
19. When is descent below DA/DH to 100’ of TDZ allowed?
|
19. FAR 91.175 allows this only with ALSF -1 and -2 systems.
|
|
|
1. What is the course width of an ILS?
|
1. Full needle deflection left to right at the threshold of the ILS is 700'. In degrees this will vary from 3 to 6 degrees
|
|
|
2. How wide is the threshold of a typical back course?
|
2. The back course threshold full needle deflection may be from zero to 400'
|
|
|
3. What is the width of an LDA course?
|
3. An LDA is similar in course accuracy to the ILS above. There is no glide slope. The LDA will not be straight-in.
|
|
|
4. What is the color of the middle marker light?
|
4. Middle marker light is Amber
|
|
|
5. What is the color of the marker when on a back course approach?
|
5. The white marker light flashes when the aircraft is over the inner marker.
|
|
|
6. What is the course width of a glide slope?
|
6. Simplified directional facility course width is set at either 6 or 12-degree width.
|
|
|
7. For what course distance does the localizer provide guidance?
|
7. Back course markers are white.
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|
|
8. What is the standard distance from the threshold to the middle marker?
|
8. The distance from the middle marker to the threshold is 3500'.
It is normally positioned 0.5 to 0.8 nautical miles (1 km) before the runway threshold |
|
|
9. What is the usable distance of the glideslope?
|
9. The localizer can reach out 18 nautical miles up to 4500' with a path that give 1000' vertical terrain clearance
|
|
|
12. What does a compass do in any turn initiated from a 180 heading?
|
12. The turn is in the correct direction but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
|
|
|
13. How can an unreliable AI be detected during taxi?
|
13. During taxi a malfunction of the AI is indicated if the AI tips more than 5-degrees.
|
|
|
14. While taxiing in a left turn, how should the turn coordinator react?
|
14. The turn coordinator aircraft will show a turn in the direction of the taxi turn.
|
|
|
15. What is the average number of PIREPs given daily in the U.S.?
|
15. Only about 1250 are given per day. The most underused resource of ATC.
|
|
|
16. What constitutes light icing?
|
16. Light icing is defined in the AIM rate table only as ice that may create a problem over a prolonged period.
|
|
|
1. What are minimums in an ILS?
|
1. The required minimum is one of visibility but that could apply if the ceiling is right at HAT. (Height above touchdown)
|
|
|
2. Can you use GPS to find the MAP?
|
2. Conventionally, only timing with a sweep second-hand clock is the approved way. You could use GPS as backup.
|
|
|
3. A non-precision circling only approach with has two consecutive numbers with the last inside parenthesis. What do the numbers mean?
|
3. The first number is the MDA (minimum descent altitude) and the number in parenthesis is height above the airport elevation.
|
|
|
4. What is the defined missed approach point for an ILS?
|
4. While on the glideslope and reaching Decision Altitude (DA) is the defined missed approach point. DH is the above ground level (AGL) of the touch down zone (TDZ).
|
|
|
5. How far into the glideslope is the localizer accurate?
|
5. The localizer is accurate only to the runway threshold.
|
|
|
6. How far down are glide slopes flight checked by the FAA?
|
6. The FAA flight checks only to decision altitude (DA).
|
|
|
7. What are the required IFR reserves for day and night flight?
|
7. IFR reserves are the same for day and night. You must have sufficient fuel to fly to your destination, with reserves allowing cruise flight to your alternate and 45 minutes more. If VFR conditions prevail during your IFR flight then VFR minimums apply.
|
|
|
14. What do MEAs guarantee?
|
14. MEA guarantee navigation reception and obstruction clearance. Communications and radar coverage are NOT part of the agreement.
|
|
|
2. What weather briefing should you request six hours before departure?
|
2. An outlook briefing is asked for six or more hours before departure.
|
|
|
7. What is the approach category of an aircraft using 100Kts?
|
7. Category B is from 91 to 120 knots.
|
|
|
8. Who is at fault if a pilot gives a clearance readback incorrectly and ATC does not correct his mistake?
|
8. The pilot is responsible in nearly any event.
|
|
|
9.Your ADF needle moves 5 degrees in two minutes. What is your time to fly to the station?
|
9. 24 minutes. Easy way to do this is to double both numbers making 10 degrees in 4 minutes. Four minutes is 240 seconds. Drop the zero and get 24. No wind allowance included.
|
|
|
10. What route information is published on a non-radar feeder route?
|
10. Non-radar feeder routes always provide course, altitude and distance on the chart.
|
|
|
14. What is 'required' communications when you lose your glide slope while on approach?
|
14. You should advise ATC of the event when you lose your glide slope on approach.
|
|
|
15. How do you obtain a pop-up clearance?
|
15. You get a pop-up clearance by contacting a radar facility. Give your type aircraft and equipment along with position and instrument approach request. You will be given a clearance along with a vector.
|
|
|
1. What illusion occurs during a rapid acceleration, as for takeoff, in IFR conditions?
|
1. The illusion is one of a nose up attitude when accelerating in IFR conditions
|
|
|
4. What is the maximum error allowed for making an airborne VOR check using two different indicators?
|
4. Four-degree difference is the maximum allowed between two VOR indicators regardless of how checked
|
|
|
6. What is the maximum speed for a G.A. aircraft in a holding pattern at 5000'?
|
6. Holding pattern speeds cannot exceed 200 knots.
|
|
|
8. What can be substituted for an inoperative middle marker?
|
8. No substitution required. Minimums do not change.
|
|
|
. When handed off on a STAR how do you report to ATC?
|
5. When handed off on a STAR you should report the name of the STAR and that you are descending.
|
|
|
4. What is ceiling or visibility if the ATIS does not give it?
|
4. Ceiling and visibility may be omitted if they are greater that five and five.
|
|
|
11. At the outer marker there is an altitude in parenthesis. What is it?
|
11. The altitude number in parenthesis is the height above touchdown zone
|
|
|
12. What protection do you get from a MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)?
|
12. MOCAs give safety along VOR airways, off-airway routes, within 22 nautical miles of a VOR.
|
|
|
9. What makes a thunderstorm severe?
|
9. A thunderstorm to be called severe must have winds 50Kt+ or 3/4" + hail.
|
|
|
1. How far is the service range of a terminal VOR
|
1. Terminal VOR can be used up to 25 miles. (I have used them up to 65 miles)
|
|
|
2. What is the service volume of a low-altitude VOR?
|
2. Low-altitude VORs have 40-mile useable range.
|
|
|
3. What is the service volume of a high-altitude VOR?
|
3. High-altitude VORs have an 80-mile useful range.
|
|
|
6. What is the standard of width used for each white strip at the threshold of an IFR runway?
|
6. Each stripe stands for 15-feet of width. Four stripes indicate 60 feet wide runway.
|
|
|
7. What is the airspace class of a non-towered airport with an IFR approach?
|
7. A non-towered airport with an instrument approach is Class E.
|
|
|
8. Every two years the altimeter used for IFR is checked to have less than how much error?
|
8. The maximum allowable error for an IFR altimeter is 75-feet.
|
|
|
1. When can you leave an assigned altitude when being vectored?
|
1. You can leave an assigned altitude when established on a segment of a published route or approach procedure.
|
|
|
3. A departure procedure (DP) requires a climb of 210 fpnm. At 140 knots what is the required climb rate.
|
3. You must climb at 490 fpm to climb 210 feet per nautical mile at 140 knots.
|
|
|
5. When is a holding pattern course reversal not required?
|
5. A holding pattern course reversal is not required when being radar vectored to the approach.
|
|
|
6. What is the duration of competency assured by passing an instrument competency check?
|
6. Passing an instrument competency check gives you six-months of currency
|
|
|
7. What must a pilot have in his possession in order to made a departure procedure?
|
7. You must have at least a textual description of the procedure before accepting the clearance
|
|
|
8. An HIS gives correct sensing always when using a VOR. What happens with a localizer?
|
8, To obtain correct sensing on a backcourse localizer with the HSI, you must use the front course setting.
|
|
|
10. When can you cross three yellow flush mounted taxiway lights?
|
10. You can cross flush mounted yellow taxiway lights any time you have been cleared to the other side.
|
|
|
11. When can you cross three red flush mounted taxiway lights?
|
11. You can cross flush mounted red taxiway lights only when they are not lighted.
|
|
|
12. What restriction applies for the missed approach when making a practice approach?
|
12. Since a practice approach is not an IFR approach, you cannot fly the missed approach without a clearance
|
|
|
13. While in radar contact you are told to hold at a given point. What communication by you is required?
|
13. You must report time and altitude passing the fix and then the time when leaving the fix.
|
|
|
1. How does approach speed affect stopping distance on landing?
|
1. A six-knot increase in speed will add 100 feet to your stopping distance.
|
|
|
2. What effect does an ice surface have on landing stop distance?
|
2. Ice or a wet surface will cause a 50-percent increase in required stopping distance.
|
|
|
3. How do you determine how to measure degrees of turn in a timed turn?
|
3. Standard-rate turns is 3-degrees per second.
|
|
|
4. How can I determine a 3-degree rate of descent?
|
4. Take half the groundspeed and add a zero. At 90-knots, take 45 and add zero for 450 feet per minute
|
|
|
5. What is best no-wind endurance altitude?
|
5. At lower altitudes an aircraft has greater endurance
|
|
|
6. In what way will Vx, Vy and Vg change for weight and altitude?
|
6. V-speeds decrease .5 of a knot for every 100 pounds of weight reduction. They decrease with altitude as well.
|
|
|
7. How does true airspeed change with altitude?
|
7. For every 1000 feet of altitude there will be a 2-percent increase in true airspeed
|
|
|
8. What happens to your IFR flight plan when you are cleared for a visual approach?
|
8. The visual approach has no missed approach so you are required to cancel IFR to close flight plan.
|
|
|
9. Are you required to report to loss of an ADF indication?
|
9. FAR 91.187 and AIM 5-3-3 require reporting of any loss of navigational ability in controlled airspace.
|
|
|
10. What is required from ATC for holding at a charted hold?
|
10. The specialist must give both the direction of the hold and include "as published".
|
|
|
13. A COP (change over point) is required along a route with a MEA )minimum enroute altitude for what reasons?
|
13. Using a COP prevents loss of navigational signal, frequency interference, use of different facilities by aircraft in the same airspace.
|
|
|
14. Why do STARS include "expect" altitudes?
|
14. "Expect" altitudes are included in STARS for pilot planning purposes only.
|
|
|
15. What is the procedure used for changing altitudes when VFR-On-Top (OTP)?
|
15. While you are not provided separation and flying at VFR altitudes, ATC does want to know of changes.
|
|
|
1. Consuming 14.7 gph while groundspeed is 157 kts. Find fuel required to fly 612 nm.
|
1. 58 gallons
|
|
|
4. What is the maximum accumulative time that an ELT battery can be operated before requiring replacement?
|
4. 60 minutes
|
|
|
13. A COP (change over point) is required along a route with a MEA )minimum enroute altitude for what reasons?
|
13. Using a COP prevents loss of navigational signal, frequency interference, use of different facilities by aircraft in the same airspace.
|
|
|
5. How do you determine pressure altitude?
|
5. Pressure altitude is determined by setting the altimeter to 29.92.
|
|
|
14. Why do STARS include "expect" altitudes?
|
14. "Expect" altitudes are included in STARS for pilot planning purposes only.
|
|
|
8. What is required for a pilot to operate a complex high performance aircraft?
|
8. Pilot must have endorsement as having received training in ground and flight in his logbook.
|
|
|
15. What is the procedure used for changing altitudes when VFR-On-Top (OTP)?
|
15. While you are not provided separation and flying at VFR altitudes, ATC does want to know of changes.
|
|
|
11. When is DME or IFR GPS required?
|
11. DME or IFR GPS is required above 24,000 feet.
|
|
|
1. Consuming 14.7 gph while groundspeed is 157 kts. Find fuel required to fly 612 nm.
|
1. 58 gallons
|
|
|
13. If an ATC vector is taking you into Class B airspace, what should you do?
|
13. Get a Clearance into Class Bravo airspace before entering.
|
|
|
4. What is the maximum accumulative time that an ELT battery can be operated before requiring replacement?
|
4. 60 minutes
|
|
|
14. What is the significance of temperature between 20 and 70 degrees Fahrenheit and a high humidity?
|
14. Conditions most conducive to carburetor icing.
|
|
|
5. How do you determine pressure altitude?
|
5. Pressure altitude is determined by setting the altimeter to 29.92.
|
|
|
8. What is required for a pilot to operate a complex high performance aircraft?
|
8. Pilot must have endorsement as having received training in ground and flight in his logbook.
|
|
|
11. When is DME or IFR GPS required?
|
11. DME or IFR GPS is required above 24,000 feet.
|
|
|
13. If an ATC vector is taking you into Class B airspace, what should you do?
|
13. Get a Clearance into Class Bravo airspace before entering.
|
|
|
14. What is the significance of temperature between 20 and 70 degrees Fahrenheit and a high humidity?
|
14. Conditions most conducive to carburetor icing.
|
|
|
15. Under what conditions are compass readings most accurate?
|
15. Compass readings are most accurate in straight, level and unacelebrated flight.
|
|
|
3. What is the meaning of CENRAP?
|
3. CENRAP means that a local radar facility has had a radar failure and is using Centers radar feed and antenna. You cannot be vectored to final nor is Mode C useable.
|
|
|
4. Can there be two FAFs on the same approach chart?
|
4. Yes, the FAF for ILS is at glideslope intercept; the marker is the FAF and timing fix for the localizer.
|
|
|
5. Can any airport with an Instrument approach procedure and good weather be filed as an alternate?
|
5. No! The filed required alternate must be a non-GPS approach
|
|
|
6. According to the FARs when does known icing exist.?
|
6. Known icing exists if forecast or reported
|
|
|
7. When can a pilot be certain that icing exists?
|
7. A pilot knows that icing exists when it appears in a PIREP.
|
|
|
10.What is the meaning when an LOC-DME frequency box has rounded corners?
|
10. The rounded corners of the frequency box indicate that the navaid has an enroute function.
|
|
|
11.What is the small circle with a dot in the middle near a RCO box?
|
11. The small circle with a dot in the middle near a RCO box is the physical location of the RCO.
|
|
|
12. The airport on the Jepp terminal chart has an *D on the Class D boundary line. Why?
|
12. The *D denotes that the Class D airspace is part-time. Refer to the A/FD
|
|
|
13. What is the aircraft designation when ATC uses the word POTUS?
|
13. POTUS aircraft are Air Force One. The 'President of the United States' is aboard.
|
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1. Under what weather conditions are an alternate not required for an airport with an instrument approach?
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1. If airport has an IAP there is no need for an alternate if the ceilings and visibility from one hour before to one hour after the ETA are forecast to be 2000 feet and three miles. Without an IAP an alternate must be filed.
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10. What other airport option exists at a multi runway airport when a pilot finds himself unable to make the required crosswind landing.
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10. It is legal to use a taxiway. Some airports even have taildragger crosswind runways (taxiways)
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