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307 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
har cell receptors are:
extremely sensitive *mechanoreceptors*
hair cells are found in the:

(3)
1. ampulla of the semicircular canals

2. macula of the otolith organs

3. cochlear duct
endolymph is high in:
K+
endolymph surrounds:

(2)
the vestibular and cochlear apparatuses
perilymph:

(2)
1. CSF-like

2. high in Na+
hair bundles:

(4)
1. 20-200 stereocilia

2. + one kinocilium

3. are the *tops* of hair receptor cells

4. detect motion/sound by their movement
stereocilia are actually:
microvilli (actin-based)
the kinocilium is made from:
MT's
(afferent =
away from the receptor, toward CNS)
tip links =
tiny fibers that connect the top of one stereocilium to the *side* of another
tip links run from:
short to tall
hair cells participate in:
mechano-electric transduction

(movement => electrical signal)
**when stereocilia are at rest, a small amount of:**
NT is released

=> basal rate of firing of CN 8
movement of the hair bundle toward the TALL end =>
opening of ion channels => depol of hair cells => inc. in NT's released to CN 8 fibers => increased rate of firing of CN 8
movement of hair bundles toward their SHORT end =>
closing of ion channels => hyperpolarization of hair cells => LESS NT released => decreased activity of CN 8
movement of hair cells toward the sides =>
no response
the channels found on stereocilia are:
**stretch-activated** channels
15% of a hair bundle's channels are open at:
rest
**with movement of hair bundle toward the tall end, tip links are pulled:**
TAUT => more channels open => depol of hair cells
**with movement of hair bundle toward the SHORT end, tip links are:**
SLACK => decrease in channels open => hyperpolarization of hair cells
hair cells are SUPER _____________ to _____________
sensitive;

movement
hair cell channels are located within the stereocilia, are large, and allow ANY cation to pass through; with that said, the reason hair cells depolarize is b/c these channels allow the passage of _______, specifically
K+
hair bundles ALWAYS project into:
endolymph
K+ flows into hair cells despite a difference in amount of K+ on either side because:
of the massive *electrical* gradient:

+80 outside hair cell, -60 inside, 0 on the other side, near nerve
what do the 3 semicircular ducts detect?
**rotation/angular acceleration**
in the semicircular canals, hair cells are found in each ampulla; they stick up from:
the crista, into the cupulla
cupulla =
gelatinous mass
rotation => displacement of cupula =>
movement of hair bundles => depol of hair cells
what runs from each crista?
CN 8 fibers
semicircular ducts work in:
PAIRS
rotation in one direction:

(2)
depolarizes hair cells on one side while inhibiting hair cells on the other
in general, the otolith organs detect:
**linear** acceleration
linear acceleration =

(2)
1. tilting head back and forth

2. accelerating forward or backward in a straight line
specifically, the saccule detects:
**vertical** motion
the utricle specifically detects:
horizontal motion
VOR makes eyes:
*counter*the direction of head movement, in order to keep eyes on a fixed point

- uses CN 6/MLF pathway
oscillopsia =
absence of VOR
result of oscillopsia:
movement of head causes a continual shift in the center of gaze
pathway for conscious perception of vestibular info: ducts/otolith organs =>
vestibular ganglia => vestibular nuclei => thalamus => cortex
what commonly causes vertigo and nystagmus?
damage to vestibular pathway

( => different levels of activity between left and right side, resulting in vertigo and nystagmus )
vertigo =
sensation of spinning or whirling
nystagmus =
rhythmic oscillations of the eyeball
Meneire's disease symptoms:

(4)
1. "fullness" in the ear

2. tinnitus

3. acute attacks of vertigo/nystagmus

4. hearing loss
causes of hair cell loss:

(5)
1. genetics (many forms)

2. infections

3. acoustic trauma

4. presbyacusis

5. ototoxic drugs
"ototoxic" = toxic to the organs of:

(3)
1. hearing,

2. balance,

or

3. CN 8
examples of ototoxic drugs:
1. aspirin

2. quinone

3. cis-platinum

4. -mycin AB's
temporary threshold shift =
temporary decrease in hearing sensitivity, due to broken tip links

- which can recover in hours
hair cells can be *killed* with:
severe noise

- **once dead, gone forever**
dB scale: every increase in 10 dB ~~
10-fold increase in sound intensity
prolonged exposure of sound over _____ dB damages hearing
90 dB
pure tone =
single frequency

- low tone = low frequency
frequency =
waves per second

Hz = cycles per second
human frequency range =
20 - 20,000 Hz
most sounds are NOT pure, but:
complex
***consonants are heard at _________ frequencies***
HIGH
presbyacusis =
progressive loss of hearing due to old age
what frequency are vowels heard at?
LOW
presbyacusis: hearing is first lost at:
HIGH frequencies

=> hard to distinguish consonants
external ear =
funnel
role of the pinna:
localizes sound in the vertical axis
middle ear transfers sound energy from:
air to fluid
the middle ear also protects against loud sounds, via:

(2)
1. tensor tympani muscle

2. stapedius muscle
how do the tensor tympani and stapedius protect the ear?
at about 80 dB, they tense the malleous and the stapes, repectively
loss of TT and stapedius =>
hyperacusis
hyperacusis =
abnormal sensitivity to sound
***conductive deafness ~~ damage to:***


(2)
outer OR middle ear
examples of conditions causing conductive deafness:

(4)
1. wax

2. perforated ear drum

3. infections

4. cysts of the middle ear
results of conductive deafness:

(2)
1. hearing loss at ALL frequencies

2. but hearing by *bone conduction is preserved*
***sensorineural deafness ~~ damage to***

(2)
1. hair cells

or

2. associated neurons
results of sensorineural deafness:

(2)
1. loss of HIGH frequency hearing

2. bone conduction is NOT preserved
scala medi =
cochlear duct
organ of Corti =

(3)
inner and outer hair cells, the tectorial membrane into which they project, and the spiral ganglion fibers to which they communicate
the organ of Corti rests on:
the BM
how many rows of IHC's and OHC's does the organ of Corti contain?
ONE row of IHC's,

THREE rows of OHC's
the BM ~~ *tonotopy*; a particular piece of the BM will:
move in response to a particular frequency
the BM is NARROW at:
the base
the BM is WIDE at:
its apex
***how many cochlear nerve afferents does EACH IHC contact?***
10 cochlear afferents


meanwhile, **10 OHC's contact only ONE cochlear nerve afferent**
IHC's take ____% of all cochlear nerve afferents
90%
apart from talking to afferents, ***OHC's also RECEIVE strong efferent innervation; they convert voltage changes into:***
physical movement

- called reverse/electro-mechanical transduction
electro-mechanical transduction of the OHC's =>
otoacoustic emissions
otoacoustic emissions =
the production of sound BY the ear
significance of otoacoustic emissions:
since deafness ~ an inability to evoke otoacoustic emissions, testing for them = **quick screen for deafness in infants**
***loss of OHC motility =>

(3)
1. 30-40 dB decrease in hearing sensitivity

2. decreased **frequency discrimination**

3. loss of otoacoustic emissions
another thing that otoacoustic emissions do:
boost sensitivity
otoacoustic emissions are NOT:
tinnitus
tinnitus can result from certain drugs =>
switch drugs out immediately
tinnitus sometimes presents in patients whose:
cochlear nerves are severed
***place coding:***
each cochlear nerve fiber connects to a specific part of the BM
***significance of place coding:***
every cochlear afferent is sensitive to a particular frequency

- called the "best frequency"
increase in sound ampitude recruits:
more fibers
**frequency coding:**
a nerve receiving 100 Hz will FIRE at 100 Hz in response
**frequency coding fails at:**
HIGH frequencies

- too fast for the afferent to fire
***ALL cochlear afferents participate in ____________________, while fibers responsible for LOW frequency (~20) also use _____________________***
place coding;

frequency coding
**in sensorineural deafness due to hair cell loss, neurons in the cochlear ganglion are spared; this allows for: ____________________**
**cochlear implants**
cochlear implants stimulate cochlear afferents __________, to make up for lack of hair cells
DIRECTLY
2 different mechanisms for localizing sound in the **horizontal plane**:

(2)
1. loudness difference (~LSO)

2. time delay (~MSO)
***UNILATERAL deafness implicates:***

(3)
1. cochlea

2. 8th nerve

3. cochlear nuclei

- any higher up, and BOTH sides would be affected
auditory pathway: sound from one ear =>
cochlea => cochlear ganglion => SO's on BOTH sides => LL's on BOTH sides => inferior colliculi => MGN's => primary auditory cortex on both sides
**the primary auditory cortex is organized tonotopically: specific parts of the cortex correspond to:**
specific parts of the BM
simple motor path: UMN =>
LMN => skeletal muscle
UMN's

(2)
1. mediate *voluntary* control of movement

2. **located in cortex AND BS**
LMN's

(3)
1. directly innervate skeletal muscle

2. **located in the ventral horn and CN motor nuclei** in BS

3. mediate BOTH voluntary and involuntary movement
"involuntary movement" =
**reflexes**
additionally, other regions like __________________________________ modulate movements
the BG and the cerebellum

- both communicate with the cortex
pyramidal system =

(2)
1. UMN's in the motor and premotor cortex

2. + the axons that link them to the LMN's
extrapyramidal system =
the BG
of the 5 major descending motor pathways, 3 arise from neurons in the cortex:
1. LCST

2. VCST

3. cortibulbar tract
"bulbar" ~~
the medulla
ALL 5 major motor pathways are composed of:
only ONE neuron
***motor pathways innervating LMN's that control DISTAL musculature will:***
DECUSSATE before synapsing on the LMN's
***motor pathways innervating LMN's that control AXIAL musculature are:***
BILATERAL
corona radiata =
axons of cortical neurons, on their way to the internal capsule
***LCST***

(4)
1. responsible for MOTOR to CONTRALATERAL, DISTAL musculature

2. **decussates at the CAUDAL medulla**

3. travels in the DL funiculus of the SC

4. synapses in the ventral horn
***VCST***

(4)
1. motor to TRUNK, BILATERALLY

2. TWO axons go down, one decussates at the CAUDAL medulla

3. travel through the AM funiculus in the SC

4. synapse in the ventral horn
where does the internal capsule become the cerebral peduncles?
at the midbrain

- continue as the pyramids in the medulla
***Corticobulbar tract***

(4)
1. originates in facial region of each precentral gyrus

2. motor to CN motor nuclei controlling **all muscles in the face**

3. ***bilateral input*** to CN motor nuclei from each precentral cortex
(except for CN 7 and CN 12 - unilateral)

4. decussates THROUGHOUT BS
**vestibulospinal tract:**

(4)
1. ~~ balance

2. motor FROM vestibular nuclei straight down through BS

3. ipsilateral only - does NOT decussate

4. travels through anterior tract in front of VH
vestibular nuclei are found:
in lower pons/upper medulla
**hypothalamospinal tract:**

(3)
1. goes from hypothalamus straight down through BS/SC, via DL funiculus

2. synapses onto IML in thoracolumbar region

3. ipsilateral only - does NOT decussate
while traveling in the BS, the hypothalamospinal tract travels with:
the ALS tract
while traveling in the SC, the hypothalamospinal tract travels with:
the LCST
Brown-Sequard Syndrome =
severance of axons in one-half of SC
Brown-Sequard Syndrome: signs =

(4)
1. loss of FT/V/P ipsilaterally

2. loss of P/T contralaterally

3. loss of voluntary movement to distal musculature ipsilaterally

4. presence of Horner's syndrome ipsilaterally
reflexes are generally fine in Brown-Sequard, b/c:
the LMN's outside of that SC region aren't affected
***UMN Syndrome =
LCST damage anywhere between cortex and LMN***
initial signs of UMNSyn =
flaccid paralysis
later signs of UMN Syndrome:

(4)
1. Babinski's sign

2. spasticity

3. loss of voluntary fine movement

4. contralateral weakness
Babinski's sign: toes:
go up
spasticity includes:

(3)
1. increased tone

2. hyper-reflexia

3. clonus
clonus =
a series of involuntary, rhythmic, muscular contractions and relaxations
2 kinds of LMN's:
1. alpha MN's

2. gamma MN's
alpha MN's:

(3)
1. reside in the ventral horn

2. form the neuron part of motor units

3. get 3 major inputs
3 major inputs to alpha MN's:
1. interneurons

2. sensory afferents from muscle spindles

3. UMN's from brain
why are alpha MN's called the final common pathway?
you CANNOT MOVE without activating them
muscle spindles are:

(2)
1. intrasfusal (modified) muscle fibers in parallel with extrafusal (regular) fibers

2. with group 1a sensory afferents arranged around them
**what do gamma MN's innervate?**
the intrasfusal fibers of muscle spindles
reflex arc: muscle stretch =>
spindles move => 1a sensory afferents carry info to inhibitory interneuron and alpha MN => alpha MN fires to contract a muscle, interneuron fires to relax the antagonist muscle
**one significant role of gamma MN's is to:
give spindles gain

- i.e. make them taut so as to increase their sensitivity
why is spindle gain so important?
when a muscle is contracted, muscle spindles are SLACK

=> **won't fire** when muscles are contracted

gamma MN's give them tightness so that they continue to fire despite the length of the muscle
reduced inhibition of gamma MN's partially explains:
hyper-reflexia that results from UMN damage
muscle spindles also participate in a negative feedback loop, e.g.
beer glass

- deviations from the desired length are inhibited
reflex: stepping on a nail causes:

(2)
the stepping knee to flex

and the other knee to extend, preserving balance

**can be elicited in coma patients**
each muscle fiber within a motor unit has the same:

(2)
physiological and metabolic characteristics
motor units come in a range of:
sizes
***fasciculation = ***
contraction of an entire motor unit due to discharge of SICK LMN

- visible through the skin
most human tissue contains a mixture of:
the 3 muscle fiber types
**degeneration of one nerve causes the nerve next to it to:**
sprout

=> healthy nerve takes over the degenerated one's muscle fibers

=>=> ***those fibers change from one type to the other***
significance of fiber-type grouping:
***muscle fiber type is partially under MN control***

and is plastic
LMN syndrome: 7 signs
1. weakness *including speech and swallowing*

2. hypo-reflexia

3. fasciculations

4. fibrillations

5. muscle atrophy

6. fiber-type grouping

7. dec. muscle tone
***fibrillation = ***
*spontaneous* activity of a denervated muscle FIBER
muscle atrophy occurs due to lack of:
electrical activity
***amyotrophic lateral sclerosis = ***

(2)
slow degeneration of LMN's in SC and BS,

and degeneration of UMN's
ALS =>

(3)
1. muscle wasting

2. fasciculations

3. hyper-reflexia
why does hyper-reflexia occur in ALS?
b/c of loss of controlling UMN's
ALS results in:
pregressive degeneration/death in 3-5 years
**hallmark of ALS** =
tiny angular muscle fibers

(atrophic)
10% of ALS patients have:
a family history
one cause of ALS: mutations in the RNA binding protein SOD1, which is:
TOXIC to MN's
spinal muscular atrophy =
degeneration of LMN's in SC and BS BEFORE birth
SMA is caused by:
deletions or duplications in survival MN gene proteins (SMN's) that are *critical to MN survival*
UMN's =
cortex or BS neurons that initiate muscle contraction
***BS UMN pathwyas terminate in:***
MEDIAL regions of the IM zone/VH
***BS UMN pathways are responsible for:***
controlling LMN's related to POSTURE
***cortex UMN pathways terminate in:***
the LATERAL regions of the VH
**cortex UMN pathways also synapse in:**
the BS reticular formation

=> motor cortex mediates posture via reticulospinal tract
***cortex UMN's are responsible for:***

(2)
1. PRECISE movements

2. posture
***many voluntary movements require:***
associated **postural** contractions

- to keep you steady
i.e. when arm muscles contract, leg muscles contract automatically;
both direct AND indirect CST pathways are involved
Betz cells:

(3)
1. largest cells of cortex

2. pyramidal (projection) neurons

3. but only account for a minority of axons in the CST
***most CST neurons correspond to a ____________ movement, represented ______________________***
**specific**

topographically
the lateral region of the premotor cortex responds to:
external cues
the medial region of the premotor cortex responds to:
internal cues
neurons fire in anticipation of:
movement
neurons also fire when:
*watching* a movement

~~ learning by imitation
**decorticate posture:**

(2)
1. elbows flexed

2. knees extended
**decorticate posture is the result of:**
damage ABOVE the midbrain
**decerebrate posture:**

(2)
1. neck, elbows, knees extended

2. hands and feet pointing in
***decerebrate posture is the result of damage to:***
descending tracts in the BS
hereditary spastic paraplegia is caused by:
gene mutations
UMN's control BOTH:
skilled movements AND postural adjustments
general role of the cerebellum:
error detection and correction

- it *refines* movements
***spinocerebellum*** is responsible for:
motor execution
***the vermis, within the spinocerebellum, is specifically responsible for:***
**gait and posture**
***the cerebrocerebellum is responsible for:***
motor **planning**
the vestibulocerebellum is made up of:

(2)
the nodulus and flocullus
***the vestibulocerebellum is responsible for:***

(2)
eye movements and balance
cerebellar peduncles ~~

(2)
incoming AND outgoing
which cerebellar peduncle is the largest?
the middle one
***deep cerebellar nuclei are ALL:***
output
***each cerebellar hemisphere regulates movements of which side?***
the ipsilateral side
4 inputs to the cerebellum:
1. frontal and parietal cortex via thalamus

2. superior colliculi

3. sensory from SC and **vestibular nuclei**

4. inferior olives
**cerebrocerebellum =>
dentate nucleus => premotor cortex (motor planning)
**spinocerebellum =>
interposed AND fastigual nuclei => motor cortex and BS
(motor execution)
the spinocerebellum adjusts:
limb movements
**vestibulocerebellum =>
vestibular nuclei => LMN's of SC and BS

(balance)
inferior cerebellar peduncles ~~ output to:

(3)
1. superior colliculi

2. reticular formation (posture)

3. vestibular nuclei (balance)
cerebellum projects to PPRF, sup. colliculi, and vestibular nuclei; disruption of these pathways =>
nystagmus
ataxia =
lack of control of movements
intention tremor =
uncoordinated movements of the extremities
intention tremor ~~ damage to:
**cerebrocerebellum**
gait ataxia is the result of damage to:
the vermis
dysarthria =
impaired ability to articulate words
Purkinje cells:

(2)
1. output cells of the cerebellum

2. ***shape output of deep nuclei*** (via inhibition)
mossy fibers come from:
pontine nuclei
climbing fibers come from:
the inferior olives
both mossy and climbing fibers:

(2)
1. are excitatory

2. shape the output of the Purkinje cells
patients with cerebellar degeneration CANNOT:
learn to correct movement errors
blood flow increases 2-4 seconds prior to a movement in:

(3)
1. motor cortex

2. premotor cortex

3. cerebrocerebellum
***spino-cerebellar ataxias are the result of:***
degeneration of tracts
most spino-cerebellar ataxias ~~ :

(2)
1. AD

2. trinucleotide repeats
trinucleotide repeats are either:
untranslated (DNA/RNA problem)

or translated (protein problem)
what kind of trinucleotide repeat problem are most spino-cerebellar ataxias?
the **translated** kind
2 examples of acquired cerebellar disease:
1. MS

2. alcohol intake
MS results in damage to cerebellar:
inflow/outflow

=> intention tremor, gait ataxia, nystagmus
acute alcohol consumption =>
problems with cerebellar signals getting through
chronic alcohol consumption =>
marked atrophy of the cerebellum
which CN's correspond to pharyngeal arches 1, 2, 3, and 4-6?
arch 1 = CN 5

arch 2 = CN 7

arch 3 = CN 9

arch 4 = CN 10
which of the CN's have motor innervation?
every one of them except for:

CN 1, 2, and 8
***CN UMN decussate at:***
the level of the LMN
CN *MOTOR* nuclei get _________________ cortical input
***BILATERAL***
which CN's have parasympathetic motor functions?

(4)
CN 3, 7, 9, and 10
parasympathetic motor CN targets:

(3)
1. SM

2. cardiac muscle

3. glands
basic CN parasympathetic motor circuit: CN nucleus in BS =>
parasympathetic ganglion in wall of organ
damage to spinal accessory nucleus => weakness in:

(2)
1. ipsilateral shrugging

2. *contralateral* turning of head (b/c SCM is responsible for contralateral rotation)
***special condition of facial expression innervation: the forehead gets:***
BILATERAL innervation from UMN's,

but lower region gets ONLY CONTRALATERAL innervation
which CN do you need to CLOSE your eye?
CN 7
which CN do you need to OPEN your eye?
CN 3
3 nuclei of the midbrain:
occulomotor,

EW,

trochlear nucleus
3 nuclei of the pons:
motor nucleus of 5,

abducens,

facial nucleus
3 nuclei of the medulla:
nucleus ambiguous,

dorsal motor of 10,

hypoglossal
**from the trochlear nucleus, CN 4:

(2)
1. decussates

2. exits dorsally
hypoglossal problem - tongue points:
**to the side of the lesion**
which CN motor nuclei is the PCA responsible for?

(3)
occulomotor, EW, and trochlear
which CN motor nucleus is the AICA responsible for?
the facial nucleus
which CN motor nucleus are the pontine vessels responsible for?
the abducens nucleus
which CN motor nuclei is PICA responsible for?

(2)
dorsal motor of 10

and

nucleus ambiguous
which CN nucleus is the anterior spinal artery responsible for?
the hypoglossal nucleus
memory is characterized in 2 ways:
1. Declarative

2. Nondeclarative
declarative memory ~~

(4)
1. things you can recollect

2. daily episodes

3. words' meanings

4. history
nondeclarative memory ~~
motor skills, associations, e/t else
what kind of memory is consolidated into long-term memory?
working memory
***anterograde amnesia = ***
INABILITY to FORM new memories
**retrograde amnesia** =
difficulty RETRIEVING memories
the hippocampus is ESSENTIAL to form:
**declarative** memories
if the hippocampus is removed, the result is:
severe **anterograde** amnesia

- couldn't remember anything from 1953 on
what's responsible for memory?
synaptic connections
short-term, declarative memory is found in:
the hippocampus and related structures
long-term, declarative memory is stored in:
a variety of cortical areas
long-term, nondeclarative memory is stored in:

(4)
1. cerebellum

2. BG

3. premotor cortex

4. other motor areas

(short-term nondeclarative storage is hard to pinpoint)
loss of memory is proportional to:
the extent of damage to the cortex
the brain is ALWAYS changing; changes in synaptic connections =>
changes in memory
short-term plasticity =
a change in synaptic efficacy lasting **less than 1 hour**
long-term plasticity is:

(4)
1. activity -dependent

2. rapidly induced

3. input-specific

4. enduring
with LTP, the EPSP is made:
stronger
how can we change a synapse, presynaptically?

(3)
1. increase NT/vesicles

2. improve vesicle fusion

3. dec. reuptake
how can we change a synapse, post-synaptically?

(3)
1. inc. postsynaptic receptors

2. improve receptor properties

3. improve membrane properties
in general, we can also:
create more synapses to increase memory
in order for NMDA receptors to open:

(2)
1. glutamate must bind

2. depolarization must be great enough to displace Mg2+
NMDA R's allow passage of:

(3)
Na+, K+, and ***Ca2+***
LTP induction: NMDAR activation =>
Ca2+ influx => activation of protein kinases => increase in number/function of AMPA receptors => LTP
***LTD induction is exactly the same as LTP induction, except that:
the number/function of AMPAR's is DECREASED
***whether LTP or LTD occur depends on:***
**how much Ca2+ enters**
*large* influx of Ca2+ =>
LTP

- small amount of Ca2+ => LTD
Ca2+ is very tightly:
regulated
the brain atrophies with age -
in general, no specific area
brain diminishment with age is NOT:
neuronal death, but atrophy

=> changes in strength and number of connections
brain atrophy begins at:
10 y.o
Alzheimer's affects:
ALL areas of the brain. but especially the hippocampus
what's the ONLY kind of memory that actually increases with age (after 20 y.o.)?
vocabulary memory
limbic system circuit: hippocampus =>
fornix => hypothalamus => mammillothalamic tract => anterior thalamic nuclei => cingulate gyrus => parahippocampal gyrus/entorhinal cortex => hippocampus
hippocampus/parahippocampus ~~
the antero-medial Temporal lobe
loss of hippocampus/parahippocampus =>
mostly anterograde amnesia,

sometimes retrograde
amygdala ~~

(3)
1. fear

2. aggression

3. emotions
3 areas that correspond to mood states, mood disorders, and addiction:
1. ventral tegmental area

2. mesocorticolimbic pathway

3. nucleus accumbens/ventral striatum
mood states, mood disorders, and addictions often depend on:

(2)
1. DOPA

2. SER
SER comes from:
raphe nuclei of BS
NOREPI comes from:
locus coeruleus of pons
ACH comes from:
the PAG
Karsokoff's syndrome =
loss of mammilary bodies due to alcoholism

=> loss of memory
BG =
feedback loop that activates planned movements and suppresses unwanted movements
**the cortex will NOT generate a movement without:**
input from the VA/VL thalamus
striatum =
caudate + putamen = input region of BG
what's the output region of the BG?
GPi
2 inputs to BG:
1. cortical to striatum via glutamate

2. SNpc to striatum via DOPA
***GPi's relationship to the Va/VL thalamus:***
GPi tonically inhibits it
the caudate ~~
eye movements
the putamen ~~
limb movements
the direct pathway of the BG allows:
movements

- uses D1 receptors
the indirect pathway inhibits:
movement
****DOPA is ALWAYS:****
**pro-movement**

- D1 receptors encourage the direct pathway,

- D2 receptors silences the indirect pathway
the BG selects intended movement via:
the direct pathway, and suppresses unwanted movement via the indirect
the BG has projections to many different parts of the CNS; for example, one loop ~~
planning and attn.

another regulates transition from one mood to another
medium spiny neurons of the striatum:

(4)
1. >75% of all striatum cells

2. GABAnergic

3. cortical neurons form excitatory synapses onto them

4. dopaminergic afferents modulate the excitatory cortical input
decrease in DOPA =>
less direct, more indirect pathway
chorea =
rapid, unwanted torsion movements
Huntington's chorea:

(4)
1. degeneration of the ***medium spiny nerves of the striatum***

2. trinucleotide repeat disease

3. AD

4. onset in 30's
hemiballismus =
**ipsilateral** flailing of the extremities
hemiballisumus is due to:
lesion of subthalamic nucleus

=> removes cortical inhibition of VA/VL
Parkinson's:

(3)
1. bradykinesia

2. mutations, MPTP toxins are associated

3. L-dopa is the treatment
Parkinson's is due to:
progressive loss of **dopaminergic** neurons in the substantia nigra
another treatment for Parkinson's = DBS; electrodes are placed in:
ironically, the GPi or subthalamic nucleus
essential/familial tremor:

(2)
1. AD

2. worse when limbs are held
tardive dyskinesia =
oral-lingual chorea

(delayed onset)
tardive dyskinesia is a side-effect of:
anti-psychotic medications
tourettes (tics) ~~
excessive activity of BG loops
dystonia =
unwanted contraction of muscles