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283 Cards in this Set
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What are the core functions of data management?
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Data program coordination, Enterprise data integration, Data stewardship, Data development, Data support operations, Data asset use - Question 1.1 from pg.23-24
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Which of the core data management functions is responsible for the identification, architecting, and modeling of data assets shared across two or more business areas or enterprise-wide? A. Data development B. Data stewardship C. Enterprise data integration D. Data program coordination |
C. Enterprise data integration - Question 1.2 from pg.24
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Which of these data management roles has the largest sphere of influence with regard to the establishment and enforcement of data management policies? A. Policy makers B. Data steward C. Architect D. Integrator |
A. Policy makers - Question 1.3 from pg.24-25
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Describe the five levels of maturity defined by the Capability Maturity Model (CMMSM). |
Initial - processes are informal (ad hoc), with success dependent upon the Herculean efforts of heroes and heroines
Repeatable - processes are disciplined so that teams can accomplish activities within their team environments. However, processes may not be documented and may not be consistent across teams or across business/functional areas Defined - processes are standardized so that all teams accomplish the same activities the same way, across all business/functional areas Managed - processes are predictable so that teams can accomplish activities within known envelopes of resource and schedule requirements, based upon known quantitative and qualitative process metrics Optimizing - processes are "self-improving" so that teams can continuously identify process improvements , and mechanisms are in place to implement improvements across all teams and all business/functional areas - Question 1.4 from pg.26 |
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Describe [list] the Key Process Areas (KPAs) for data management |
Configuration management
Contract management Quality assurance Project planning Project oversight Requirements management Group coordination Training management Process definition Process focus Product review Asset development/maintenance Quantitative management Quality management Integrated management Defect prevention (management) Technology change management Process change management - Question 1.5 from pg.27-28 |
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process in place to manage changes in all data management processes and data assets |
Configuration Management - Question 1.5A from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Data management support is provided to enterprise contracting activities, including data or data management process outsourcing, to that ensure appropriate data-related contract deliverables are put int place |
Contract Management - Question 1.5B from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to provide management oversight of the quality of enterprise data management processes and data assets |
Quality Assurance - Question 1.5C from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to ensure that proper data management processes and data asset deliverables are incorporated in systems development project plans |
Project Planning - Question 1.5D from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to provide management tracking of data aspects of systems development projects to permit early corrective actions and schedule adjustments |
Project Oversight - Question 1.5E from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place for tracking data requirements from identification and documentation, through development, implementation, and use. |
Requirements Management - Question 1.5F from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to ensure coordination among data-oriented groups and among other information management groups to better accommodate business objectives and user needs. |
Group Coordination - Question 1.5G from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to identify and fulfill training needs of personnel accomplishing data management activities. |
Training Management - Question 1.5H from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to develop enterprise-standard data management processes, and associated methods and data asset products. |
Process Definition - Question 1.5I from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to establish organizational responsiblilities for data management processes and the management of their improvement. |
Process Focus - Question 1.5J from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to accomplish peer reviews of all data assets to identify problems, improve quality, and track corrective actions. |
Product Review - Question 1.5K from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to establish and enforce appropriate data management processes, methods, and tools for use in development and maintenance of all data assets. |
Asset Development / Maintenance - Question 1.5L from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to establish and effect quantitative goals and metrics for use in monitoring and analyzing data management processes and data assets, and recommending improvements. |
Quantitative Management - Question 1.5M from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to establish quality objectives for data management processes and data assets, and provide the processes and resources to achieve them. |
Quality Management - Question 1.5N from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to establish and maintain an enterprise-wide data management program to integrate all standard data management processes and synchronize them with other enterprise information management activities. |
Integrated Management - Question 1.5O from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to establish and maintain a process for identifying the sources of data process or data asset problems, errors, or issues, and take action to correct the processes producing such difficulties. |
Defect Prevention - Question 1.5P from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to maintain awareness of the state of-of-practice and innovations in data management related practices, methods, tools, and software; and manage their introduction to minimize disruptions and achieve effective migrations. |
Technology Change Management - Question 1.5Q from pg.27-28
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Which Key Process Areas (KPA) is this? Process is in place to continually review and evaluate data management processes; and identify and implement improvements in a controlled and systematic way. |
Process Change Management - Question 1.5R from pg.27-28
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Which of these roles is common to all the Data Administration job descriptions and in particular is a major accountability of the DA manager? A. Managing the DA function B. Establishing and enforcing data standards C. Maintaining the repository architecture D. Use of tools for data modeling |
B. Establishing and enforcing data standards - Question 1.6 from pg.30-37
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Which of the DA jobs is most concerned with long range planning and strategy, establishing/controlling required IS manpower and budget levels? A. Manager, Data Administration B. Data Adminstrator Consultant C. Repository Administrator D. Data Administration Analyst |
A. Manager, Data Administration - Question 1.7 from pg.31-32
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Which of the DA jobs is most likely to perform application logical data modeling, establish data definitions and co-ordinate the logical development of data |
Data Administration Analyst (Senior) - Question 1.8 from pg.35-36
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Which of the DA jobs is most concerned with security and performance such as through maintaining security profiles and having approval over policies and design? |
Repository Administrator - Question 1.9 from pg.37
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What is, and why is "The (Zachman) Framework" important? |
A comprehensive, logical structure for the descriptive representations (i.e. models or design artifacts) of any complex object.
It is neutral with regard to the processes or tools used for producing the descriptions. For this reason, it is helpful for sorting out very complex, technology and methodology choices and issues that are significant both to general management and to technology management. - Question 1.10 from pg.44 |
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In which Framework cell is the definition of a specific business objective? A. People, Owner B. Function, Designer C. Data, Planner D. Motivation, Owner (business plan, end = business objective, means = business strategy) |
D. Motivation, Owner (business plan, end = business objective, means = business strategy) - Question 1.11 from pg.45
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In which Framework cell is a program specification such as an object or action diagram? A. Time, Designer B. Function, Builder C. Motivation, Builder D. Network, Designer |
B. Function, Builder - Question 1.12 from pg.45
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Why is the Framework useful for change management? |
It is helpful for analyzing the options to understand what they are, what the implications are, and to communicate and have objective dialogue about what they are - Question 1.13 from pg.112
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Why is stewardship important? Specifically, what does it mean for cross-functional information or data warehouse needs? |
Without information stewardship, it is virtually impossible to foster trust in sharable databases - Question 1.14 from pg.54
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Which stewardship role is accountable for establishing information policy? |
Strategic Information Steward - Question 1.15 from pg.56-61
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Which of these stewardship roles is accountable for the quality of information produced? A. Operational Information Steward B. Intermediary Steward C. Business Information Steward D. Process Steward |
A. Operational Information Steward - Question 1.16 from pg.56
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Which of these stewardship roles is accountable for data definition, domain value specification, and business rule specification? A. Management Information Steward B. Strategic Information Steward C. Business Information Steward D. Knowledge Steward |
C. Business Information Steward - Question 1.17 from pg.56-60
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What is the primary role of the Knowledge Steward? |
Accountable for my work outcomes. Also accountable for use of information, including upholding any policies or regulations governing its use. - Question 1.18 from pg.56
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What is the source of the data element standards presented in the text?
A. International Standard (ISO) 11179 B. Data Management Association (DAMA) C. Insurance Services Office (ISO) D. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) |
A. International Standard (ISO) 11179 - Question 2.1 from pg.197
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The object class term and property class term make up what level of the Data Element Model? A. Attribute level B. Conceptual level C. Logical level D. Subject area level |
B. Conceptual level - Question 2.2 from pg.198, 200
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What kind of rule is based on the meaning of name components of data elements? A. Meta Rules B. Lexical Rules C. Zachman's Rules D. Semantic Rules |
D. Semantic Rules - Question 2.3 from pg.201
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What is the biggest impediment to data sharing across applications, across business units, across business functions, and across organizations? A. Lack of integrated data resource B. People want their own data C. Historical lack of technical capability D. Lack of a global data warehouse |
A. Lack of integrated data resource - Question 2.4 from pg.178
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What is most needed for true data sharing? A. Policy setting and enforcement B. A common data architecture C. A formal repository product D. A strong data administration group |
B. A common data architecture - Question 2.5 from pg.179
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What is integrated data resource? |
A data resource where all data are formally integrated within a common context and are appropriately deployed for maximum support for the business. - Question 2.6 from pg.178
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What is the difference between "operational" and "evaluational" data? |
Operational data - volatile data. (subject oriented, integrated, time current, volatile data used to support an organization's operational decisions; the traditional data supporting current business operations)
Evaluational data - non-volatile data. (subject oriented, integrated, time variant, non-volatile data used to support management decisions; the data in data warehouses) - Question 2.7 from pg.180 |
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Based on its overall structure and physical management, how is data in a common data architecture grouped? A. Evolutionary stages B. Data Megatypes C. Access requirements D. It isn't segregated, it is integrated |
B. Data Megatypes - Question 2.8 from pg.180
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What does disparate data result from? A. Different business needs for the same kinds of facts B. Different storage methods and technologies C. Lack of systems integration D. Lack of awareness and understanding of available data |
D. Lack of awareness and understanding of available data - Question 2.9 from pg.183
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How can a data disparity be resolved? A. A transition process to integrated data B. Developing all new systems to a common architecture C. Doing more translations of data D. Better repository definitions |
A. A transition process to integrated data - Question 2.10 from pg.185
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What does the "virtual data state" describe? A. An integrated data resource B. Users not needing to know where data is located C. Real-time transformation with a common architecture D. Design vs. implementation status of data |
C. Real-time transformation with a common architecture - Question 2.11 from pg.186
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What is the data resource data? |
Any data that are needed to thoroughly understand, formally manage, and fully utilize the data resource to support the business information demand. - Question 2.12 from pg.149, 152
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Distinguish between disparate and comparate data. |
Disparate data - data that are essentially not alike, or are distinctly different in kind, quality, or character.
Comparate data - data that are alike in kind, quality, or character, and are without defect. - Question 2.13 from pg.150-151 |
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Another term for data resource data is: A. Comparate data B. Information C. Metadata D. Business intelligence |
C. Metadata - Question 2.14 from pg.149, 152
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List the seven principles supporting the concept of data resource data. |
1. Two aspects - semantic and technical
2. Scope includes all data at the organization's disposal 3. Must be kept current with the business 4. Must include the correct level of detail, be presented in an appropriate manner, and be understandable to the intended audience 5. Must be non-redundant 6. Must be readily available to all audiences 7. Must be known to exist by the organization - Question 2.15 from pg.152-153 |
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What is the term used to describe data which is referred to or read by a business application, but is not updated by that same application? |
Reference data - Question 2.16 from pg.189
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Name and describe the types of reference data tables. |
1. Common Reference Table - basic, 3-column reference table (with internal, table-column name for the data element, the code itself, and the description)
2. Common Reference Table with Multiple Attributes - used when multiple business facts or attributes must be associated together around some particular entity. 3. Classification Reference Table - generally used to support categorization schemes for closely related data within a business 4. Code Translation Reference Table - designed to translate the codes of one application to those of another (a mapping table) - Question 2.17 from pg.190-192 |
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List all three major guidelines for managing reference data. |
1. Centralize control and maintenance of the reference tables
2. Managing the reference table design and meta-data 3. Managing reference data in production - Question 2.18 from pg.192-196 |
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Name and describe the three key areas of security. |
1. Software security - measures taken through software or technology in order to secure their data
2. Information Flow Management - flow of information about critical data systems through employees and members of an organization, not information flowing through actual data systems. 3. Physical security - deals with security precautions that are necessary to protect the actual physical computing infrastructure of an organization - Question 2.19 from pg.156 |
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What is a contingency plan and why is it important to data security? |
Security planning that allows organizations to effectively limit risks to their data systems when security issues arise. This includes delegating responsibility and decision-making power to individuals who are familiar with the system. This plan includes the identity of individuals who can make decisions about solutions to security problems to ensure appropriate resolution and prevention of future problems. - Question 2.20 from pg.159
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What is the data administration role in data security? A. Perform backup and recovery B. Enforce data security policy C. Maintain lists of access privileges for users D. Assume insecurity and identity issues |
D. Assume insecurity and identity issues - Question 2.21 from pg.159
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In a purchased package environment, what is the recommended approach for each of the four Guiding Principles?
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1. Data Quality - Data Quality & Data Ownership are key in effectively implementing the purchased package within a corporation.
2. Data Integration - An enterprise architecture is the single most important strategic structure for an organization. Allows data to be designed from an integrated view point. 3. Data Design Adaptability - Architecture and modeling to allow to plan for a timely response to change. 4. Data Awareness & Accessibility - The knowledge, navigation and access to data needed by clients. Question 3.1 from pg 274-275 - Question 3.1 from pg.274-275 |
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Which of these is a critical success factor in managing a purchased package implementation? A. Training for users B. Measurement process C. A strong data administration group D. An enterprise-wide data architecture |
B. Measurement process
Question 3.2 from pg 276 - Question 3.2 from pg.276 |
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What tasks would be done by DA in the analysis phase? |
1. Gather, document, and clarify business requirements in a business model.
2. Analyze the business model to understand data needs and highlight potential share data areas. 3. Plan integration with Corporate Data Model, review existing business, logical, and physical models. 4. If there are no existing models, create the level of models required. 5. Analyze data from existing related processes or applications. 6. Analyze pertinent metadata defined in the data dictionary or repository. 7. Plan Data Questions for RFP. 8. Determine if the data the package is going to use already exists. If so, where? 9. Determine what data the package will be the source of versus what data the package will use. 10. Determine how the package fits with the long-term business, information, and data strategies. Question 3.3 from pg 276-277 - Question 3.3 from pg.276-277 |
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What tasks would be done by DA in the design phase? |
1. Propose strategy for Shared Data Areas and Operation Data Stores, design and model solutions.
2. Design a plan for package integration with existing corporate data and plan models to merge. 3. Design a plan for data sharing, data migration, population, and conversion of data. 4. Document a data source to target cross-reference in the corporate repository. 5. Document transformation and business rules in data dictionary or repository. 6. Document and define metadata in data dictionary or repository. 7. Ensure all appropriate models have been created and are accessible. 8. Perform impact analysis; document data quality issues. 9. Document data cleansing process; define risk areas and potential solutions. 10. Decide data access requirements, and requirements best handled outside package. Question 3.4 from pg 277 - Question 3.4 from pg.277 |
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What tasks would be done by DA in the construct and implement phase? |
1. Create an Operational Data Store, if one does not already exist, and/or Shared Data Areas.
2. Consult programmers on creating Common Modules to load data from Operational Data Store or Shared Data Areas to package tables, or to tables shared into purchased package environment. 3. Have DBAs create all tables the package sees as standard, regardless of whether they will be used. DO NOT delete them. Do not remove any unused columns, as that will modify the package. 4. Utilize vendor supplied utilities to extend and update table definitions. 5. At the time data is ported to a data warehouse; it is possible to introduce referential integrity as a data quality check, if desired, to identify potential quality problems (orphan data), giving an opportunity to correct problems before replication to other areas. 6. Instead of extending a standard package table, if additional fields are needed, create a one-to-one relationship to the existing package table and add new tables. 7. When to add columns to an existing table. • The new columns are generally accessed along with existing columns, thus eliminating the need for joins. • The new data is non-key that fits well with the existing table data. 8. When to add parallel tables. • Data in columns represent a new object. • New data columns represent data access separate from the existing table accesses. • Row length after additional new columns exceed the standard block size of row storage in DBMS i.e., 2K in Sybase. 9. Make sure to model ANY changes. Changes to original plan or new releases. Go back through the Analysis, Design, Construct, and Implement Phases. Discourage ad-hoc adds. 10. Do not make changes without performing impact analysis, going through a controlled process to integrate and share the appropriate data. Always update models. Question 3.6 from pg 278 - Question 3.5 from pg.278 |
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Which of these is a recommended purchased package evaluation criterion? A. Does the package data model conform to your enterprise data model? B. Do the users like the data entry screens? C. How well does the package fit the business requirements? D. Is there a package users group? |
C. How well does the package fit the business requirements?
Question 3.6 from pg 280 - Question 3.6 from pg.280 |
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What are the steps associated with criteria development of a tool evaluation process? |
1. Identify and define the scope.
2. Identify clients. 3. Ideally, consider the widest possible range of usage first. 4. Identify project team. 5. Identify what products exist to fill the need. 6. Using the “long list” and high level requirements, determine how similar requirements are currently being met within the enterprise. 7. Interview clients for their requirements. 8. Prepare a scoring matrix based on requirements obtained in the interviews. 9. Based on the scoring matrix and your specific business requirements, identify any mandatory items that might be used to narrow down the list of candidate products. 10. Obtain information about each vendor and each product’s functionality and capability via the Internet and any literature that can be found. Select the vendors and products that would be viable candidates to match the criteria. 11. If a manageable “short list” results from the previous step, continue with the appropriate evaluation method(s) to compare the products. Otherwise, use one or more of the evaluation methods (demonstrations, RFIs, or customer references) to further refine the list of candidates. Question 3.7 from page 283-284 - Question 3.7 from pg.283-284 |
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What types of information would be part of the "company profile" portion of a tool evaluation? |
• Length of time in business
• D & B rating • Customer base • Market share, competitive position • Strategic alliances • Financial stability, including profitability, liquidity, and financial leverage Question 3.8 from pg 285 - Question 3.8 from pg.285 |
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List the things to consider as part of the "technical capability" portion of a tool evaluation? |
1. Scaleable and expandable
2. Specific hardware and software required and supported 3. Hardware and software supported 4. Highly available, reliable, and fault resilient 5. High-security and high-integrity 6. Distributed management 7. Online and off-line storage 8. Systems management tools, including capacity planning, backup/recovery, and performance measurement tools 9. Integrate with the mainframe and server environments if required 10. Ability to provide technical expertise and services to ongoing projects and initiatives 11. Flexibility=degree of customization required or allowed 12. Ease of installation, software distribution, and maintenance 13. Administration requirements and capabilities 14. Performance and throughput 15. Compatibility with existing standards 16. Adequacy and quality of documentation 17. Data models included 18. User interfaces (ease of use, Web enabled, etc.) 19. Applicable quality or standards compliance/certification 20. Foreign language support, if required 21. Ability to interface or integrate with existing products and environment 22. Total cost of ownership—Cost/benefit ratio Question 3.9 from pg 286-287 - Question 3.9 from pg.286-287 |
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Which of the following information would be part of the "vendor service" portion of a tool evaluation? A. Research and development capabilities B. Education and training C. Scaleable and expandable D. Financial stability |
B. Education and training
Question 3.10 from pg 287 - Question 3.10 from pg.287 |
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Describe the four activities that are part of the "technology strategy" portion of a tool evaluation. |
1. Describe vendor's Research and Development capabilities. Do they anticipate any upgrades to the system in the near future? Please describe. Include information on the dollar investment and staffing.
2. Describe vendor's perspective on client/server architectures. Describe the company’s five year vision for the future directions of its client/server hardware and system software technologies (indicate time frames for significant capabilities described in your vision). 3. How does the vendor keep pace with the changing environments supported by, or required for, the product? What are the inter-dependencies with other products or vendors? Who are the strategic alliances? For example, if a product is dependent on the facilities of and operating system (or any other product), what are the implications when that product changes? 4. Describe vendor's perspective for the following areas (please provide availability time frames by indicating whether the technology is available now or currently in research or development): • Hardware and system software scalability • High availability hardware and system software • Network connectivity • Integration and interoperability for multi-tier, multi-platform environments • Object-oriented technology • Hosting internet/intranet services. Integration of Internet/Intranet services with multi-tier, multi-platform "back-end" application systems • "Thin-Client - Network Computer" desktop • Approach for Web enablement/development • Distribution of application logic and data across a heterogeneous, multi-tier environment • System Management Question 3.11 from pg 288-289 - Question 3.11 from pg.288-289 |
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Describe the eight activities that are part of the "vendor quality" portion of a tool evaluation? |
1. Indicate any quality awards or quality certifications that vendor has achieved. Provide supporting documentation and background information about these awards and/or certifications.
2. Describe vendor’s customer survey process. Do they currently provide customized surveys for any customers? Are the surveys conducted by their company or a third party? Provide a sample of a recent customer survey and indicate the survey response rate, as well as the results of these on-going surveys. Describe vendor company’s process for handling complaints, compliments, and questions. Describe, if any, the action(s) taken or procedure(s) implemented in response to survey results. 3. Describe vendor’s customer service performance standards at the different levels (i.e. agent, manager, etc.). Indicate how these performance standards are actually monitored and measured and how they affect employees’ compensation, if at all. Is there any third party involvement in this auditing process? Also, please include actual monthly performance results relative to these standards for each operating location over the past twelve months. 4. How will vendor maintain consistent quality, service, and pricing standards? What tracking and reporting mechanisms are in place to document consistency of price, service, and quality? 5. Describe the development methodology, testing procedures, and change control process used by the vendor. 6. Describe formal quality and continuous improvement process programs currently in place within vendor company as they relate to quality standards for client/server hardware and system software. Describe how quality performance standards are actually monitored and measured. Describe the types of auditing tools and procedures used to verify that quality standards are being met. 7. Does vendor currently conduct customer forums or focus groups? 8. Describe any independent user groups. Question 3.12 from pg 289-290 - Question 3.12 from pg.289-298 |
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Which of these activities is an active tool evaluation technique? A. Obtain competitive pricing information B. Evaluate responses to RFI C. Perform hands-on evaluation D. Interview clients for their requirements |
C. Perform hands-on evaluation
Question 3.13 from pg 290 - Question 3.13 from pg.290 |
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What is the main difference between HTML and XML? A. XML incorporates metadata B. HTML is for test and graphics and XML is for structured data C. XML is an enhancement of HTML D. XML incorporates Java |
A. XML incorporates metadata
Question 3.14 from pg 294 - Question 3.14 from pg.294 |
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Of the three major technology shifts affecting the Internet in the 1990's, HTML, Java, and XML, which may not be needed in the future and why? |
HTML—Hypertext Markup Language—because XML—Extensible Markup Language was its successor.
Questions 3.15 from pg 294 - Question 3.15 from pg.294 |
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What does data modeling have to do with the future of e-business? A. Enables understanding of XML and XSL B. Necessary for database infrastructures for e-business C. Provides the structured metadata for XML D. Future e-business technologies will replace data modeling |
C. Provides the structured metadata for XML
Question 3.16 from pg 295 - Question 3.16 from pg.295 |
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What is the scope of data management in the Internet? A. Perform same data management functions for expanded enterprise and Internet B. Promote and manage the use of XML for all e-commerce C. Work with systems groups on Internet applications D. Set new standards for Internet applications |
A. Perform same data management functions for expanded enterprise and Internet
Question 3.17 from pg 297 - Question 3.17 from pg.297 |
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How has the mission of IRM changed because of the Internet? |
The integration of these technologies will be the crucible of 21st century data management. We have already reaffirmed that the mission of IRM professionals remains unchanged: to provide the enterprise with understanding of—and controlled access to—its information resources.
Question 3.18 from pg 298 - Question 3.18 from pg.298 |
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How has the technology of the Internet affected the role of IRM? |
Increases the Importance of Data Access and Data Distribution
Question 3.19 from pg 298-299 - Question 3.19 from pg.298-299 |
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How has the Internet affected the management of metadata? |
Less emphasis on a Centralized Repository moving toward distributed Metadata Solutions
Question 3.20 from pg 300 - Question 3.20 from pg.299 |
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In addition to traditional metadata, which of these things should IRM be doing differently in the Web-centric enterprise? A. Include operational metadata with traditional metadata B. Employ XML as a metadata maintenance facility C. Set new standards for XML D. IRM should not change |
A. Include operational metadata with traditional metadata
Question 3.21 from pg 300 - Question 3.21 from pg.300 |
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What are the major differences between internal and external memory?
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Internal (our brains) - small, fast, and convenient
External - large, slow, and not as convenient - Question 4.1 from pg.6-9 |
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What is the difference between transaction processing and decision making? |
Transaction processing = handling everyday business (by processing transactions)
Decision making = planning for the future Their success, and their organization’s success, depends on the quality of their decisions. - Question 4.2a from pg.10-11 |
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When are data relevant? |
When they pertain directly to the decision and are aggregated appropriately - Question 4.2b from pg.10-11
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What is hypertext? How does it differ from linear text? Why might hypertext be useful in an organizational memory system? |
Electronic files in which an author can link information and create nonlinear paths through related material.
A hypertext document has built-in linkages between sections of text that permit the reader to jump quickly from one part to another. As a result, readers can find data they require more rapidly. - Question 4.3a from pg.18, 9, 5, 10-11 |
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What is imaging? What are the characteristics of applications well suited for imaging? |
Images are visual data: photographs, sketches, and videos.
1. Images are widely used for identification and security. 2. Images are used as evidence. 3. Images are used for advertising and promotional campaigns, and organizations need to maintain records of material used in these ventures. - Question 4.3b from pg.18, 9, 5, 10-11 |
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What is an external memory? Why do organizations use external memories instead of building internal memories? |
Additional memory that is not contained within a system.
Organizations are not limited to their own memory stores. There are firms whose business is to store data for resale to other organizations. - Question 4.3c from pg.18, 9, 5, 10-11 |
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What is the common name used to refer to systems that help organizations remember knowledge? |
Data Management - Question 4.3d from pg.18, 9, 5, 10-11
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What is a DSS? What is its role in an organizational memory? |
Decision Support System.
Organizations build mathematical models to describe their business. These models, usually placed in the broader category of decision support systems (DSS), are then used to analyze existing problems and forecast future business conditions. A mathematical model can often produce substantial benefits. - Question 4.3e from pg.18, 9, 5, 10-11 |
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There are six attributes of organizational memory. Which one is described as being easily moved to a decision maker? A. Shareable B. Transportable C. Timely D. Relevant |
B. Transportable - Question 4.4 from pg.12
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Which of the following is not an attribute of organizational memory? A. Volatile B. Shareable C. Secure D. Relevant |
A. Volatile - Question 4.5 from pg.12-14
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What component of organizational memory is described as the linchpin? A. Knowledge B. Model C. People D. Social network |
C. People - Question 4.6 from pg.15
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What is the most important aspect of organizational memory? A. Decisions B. People C. Knowledge D. Computers |
B. People - Question 4.7 from pg.15
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There are various problems with organizational memory. Which of the six listed in this assignment best described a company with ten different and unconnected systems? A. Redundancy B. Interface C. Lack of reality D. Lack of data integration |
D. Lack of data integration - Question 4.8 from pg.22-23
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Which of the following is an example of the relationship of data to information, and information to knowledge? A. Data are working telephones, which are used to send information. Knowledge is the ability to use the telephone. B. Data are the raw materials to make a telephone, information is an assembled telephone, and knowledge is the ability to use the telephone to call someone. C. Data are the raw materials to make a telephone, information is an assembled telephone, and knowledge is the telephone line. D. Data are the raw materials to make a telephone, knowledge is the instruction sheet to assemble a working telephone, which is called information. |
B. Data are the raw materials to make a telephone, information is an assembled telephone, and knowledge is the ability to use the telephone to call someone. - Question 4.9 from pg.24-25
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What is the difference between soft and hard information? |
Information hardness is a subjective measure of the accuracy and reliability of an item of information.
Hardest = Market information because it is measured extremely accurately. There is no ambiguity about its meaning, and its measurement is highly reliable. Softest = information which comes from unidentified sources, is rife with uncertainty. - Question 4.10a from pg.35-36 |
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What is the difference between rich and lean information exchange? |
Information richness describes the concept that information can be rich or lean depending on the information delivery medium.
Richest when delivered face-to-face. Lean when delivered as a numeric document. - Question 4.10b from pg.35-36 |
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What is benchmarking? When might a business use benchmarking? |
Benchmarking establishes goals based on best industry practices. Organizations need information to identify feasible, motivating, and challenging goals. Once these goals have been established, organizations need information on the extent to which these goals have been attained. - Question 4.11 from pg.39
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If you had just failed your database exam, would you use rich or lean media to tell a parent or spouse about the result? |
You would use rich media and tell them face-to-face. - Question 4.12a from pg.36, 40
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What is gap information? |
Gap information is the information that reveals a gap between desired and actual performance. - Question 4.12b from pg.36, 40
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With regard to the information characteristics of richness and hardness, what best describes a rumor that a coworker tells you in a face-to-face conversation? A. Hard and lean B. Soft and rich C. Hard and rich D. Soft and lean |
B. Soft and rich - Question 4.13 from pg.35-36
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Which of the following is not a type of information associated with organizational change? A. Goal setting B. Gap C. Social memory D. Change |
C. Social memory - Question 4.14 from pg.38-41
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Problem identification looks for differences between expected and present performance. Which of the following is a method in identifying a problem? A. Establish goals based on best industry practices B. Produce exception reports only when a difference arises C. Track the number of computer users D. Continuously review the data dictionary |
B. Produce exception reports only when a difference arises - Question 4.15 from pg.40
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Scorekeeping as an informational tool does which of the following? A. Identifies causes of problems B. Tracks changes in the data dictionary C. Measures organizational performance D. Distributes goals to managers and employees |
C. Measures organizational performance - Question 4.16 from pg.40
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What is information satisficing? |
Managers accept the first satisfactory decision they discover. They also satisfice in their information search, collecting only enough information to make a satisfactory decision. Ultimately, information satisficing leads to lower-quality decision making. - Question 4.17a from pg.46-49
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Give some examples of common information delivery systems. |
verbal exchange, voice mail, electronic mail, written report, meeting, groupware, management information system, Web, image processing system, computer-aided design, geographic information system, decision support system, and expert system. - Question 4.17b from pg.46-49
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Who uses an EIS? |
As the name implies, EIS has been developed for executives. These systems are very easy to use and are a way to integrate information from multiple sources. A major feature of EIS is that each single EIS is custom-made for one particular executive’s requirement and continuously updated and changed to adapt to the executive’s changing requirements. - Question 4.17c from pg.46-49
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What is groupware? |
Groupware is a general term applied to a range of software systems designed to improve work. For example, groupware might facilitate document exchange or brainstorming. - Question 4.17d from pg.46-49
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What is an identifier? Why does a data model have an identifier?
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An attribute or collection of attributes that uniquely identify an instance of an entity.
An entity in the model must have a unique identifier because when the model is converted to a relational database the entity becomes a table and the identifier becomes the primary key. - Question 5.1A from pg.60-61 |
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What are entities? |
Something in the real world that are represented in a data model and about which data must be stored. The basic building blocks of a data model.
- Question 5.1B from pg.60-61 |
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Structured Query Language (SQL) is both a DML and a DDL. What do DML and DDL stand for? A. Data manipulation language and data definition language B. Data master language and data detail language C. Data management language and data dictionary language D. Data maintenance language and data description language |
A. Data manipulation language and data definition language - Question 5.2 from pg.62
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Which of the following best describes Structured Query Language (SQL)? A. A data mapping language and a data domain language B. A data description language and a data mining language C. A data definition language and a data manipulation language D. A data model language and a data definition language |
C. A data definition language and a data manipulation language - Question 5.3 from pg.62
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What is the entity integrity rule? |
Every row must have a unique, non-null primary key. - Question 5.4 from pg.64
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What is the purpose of the primary key? A. Open a table B. Provide a unique address for each row of a table C. Provide a unique address for each column in a table D. It is the only key that can be sorted in a query |
B. Provide a unique address for each row of a table - Question 5.5 from pg.71
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Which of the following are SQL commands? A. DATA and DEFINITION B. COUNT and ORDER BY C. SUMTOTAL and MAXMIN D. RUN and STOP |
B. COUNT and ORDER BY - Question 5.6 from pg.70-76
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Why create another entity in a database? A. Segregate different data into finer levels of detail B. Capture additional detail that can be used C. Simplify sort searches in complex databases D. Resolve problems when inserting, updating or deleting data |
D. Resolve problems when inserting, updating or deleting data - Question 5.7 from pg.91
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What is the referential integrity constraint? Why should it be enforced? |
The requirement that a foreign key cannot be defined unless its corresponding primary key exists.
The referential integrity constraint should be reinforced because it maintains the accuracy of a database. - Question 5.8 from pg.93-94 |
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What does the SQL command JOIN do? A. Appends one table to the end of another B. Allows two tables to be linked on common rows C. Creates a new table from two existing tables using a column common to both tables D. Allows for nested queries |
C. Creates a new table from two existing tables using a column common to both tables - Question 5.9 from pg.96
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What is the difference between a subquery and a correlated subquery? A. A subquery is evaluated once whereas a correlated subquery must be evaluated repeatedly. B. A subquery is evaluated repeatedly whereas a correlated subquery is evaluated once. C. A correlated subquery is a subquery of a subquery. D. A correlated subquery is evaluated last whereas the subquery is evaluated first. |
A. A subquery is evaluated once whereas a correlated subquery must be evaluated repeatedly. - Question 5.10 from pg.101-102
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What is a view? A. A virtual query B. The visual output of a query C. A virtual table D. Display of SQL code |
C. A virtual table - Question 5.11 from pg.103
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a SQL query view? A. A view cannot be queried B. A view physically stores data for later use C. A view can only use existing columns and cannot perform any calculations D. A view contains no actual data |
D. A view contains no actual data - Question 5.12 from pg.103
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Why do you have to create a third entity when you have a many-to-many relationship?
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We create a third entity to link the entities through one–to–many relationships. The third entity, called an associative entity, stores data about the relationship. - Question 6.1A from pg.115
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What does a plus sign near a relationship arc mean? |
The plus sign provides information about the identifier. It identifies a weak entity’s dependence on another entity for its existence and identification. - Question 6.1B from pg.115
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How does EXISTS differ from other clauses in a SQL statement? |
EXISTS represents the existential quantifier of formal logic. It is used in a WHERE clause to test whether a table contains at least one row satisfying a specified condition. - Question 6.1C from pg.119-120
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How is a many-to-many relationship presented? A. As three one-to-many relationships linked to a third entity B. As two one-to-one relationships C. As two recursive one-to-many relationships D. As two one-to-many relationships linked to a third entity |
D. As two one-to-many relationships linked to a third entity - Question 6.2 from pg.114
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Can a foreign key be part of a primary key? A. Yes B. Never C. Only in a recursive relationship D. None of the above |
A. Yes - Question 6.3 from pg.116
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Which of the following is NOT a SQL command? A. CREATE B. ORDER BY C. FORALL D. GROUP BY |
C. FORALL - Question 6.4 from pg.122
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Mapping a one-to-many recursive relationship is similar to mapping a standard one-to-many relationship, with the addition of the following: A. A column for a composite key is added to the one end of the relationship B. A column for the foreign key is added to the one end of the relationship C. A column for the foreign key is added to the many end of the relationship D. A not null constraint is placed on the foreign key of the many end of the relationship |
C. A column for the foreign key is added to the many end of the relationship - Question 6.5 from pg.138
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In mapping a one-to-many recursive relationship, which situation best describes a deadly embrace? A. A foreign key constraint becomes the primary key of the many end of the relationship B. Two foreign key constraints compete for the same resource C. A query that joins a table to itself by creating two copies of the same table D. One entity owns another entity, but other entities own that entity as well |
B. Two foreign key constraints compete for the same resource - Question 6.6 from pg.139
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In defining foreign keys, what has to be done with regard to null constraints? A. Foreign keys are allowed to be null B. Foreign keys cannot be null C. Foreign keys are only allowed to be null on one-to-many relationships D. Foreign keys cannot be null on recursive relationships |
A. Foreign keys are allowed to be null - Question 6.7 from pg.137-139
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In querying a recursive relationship, how do you distinguish between the two copies of the same table? A. There is no need to distinguish B. By completely redefining each attribute with a new name C. Create a table alias in SQL by adding a suffix to the table name D. Create a virtual table with a different name |
C. Create a table alias in SQL by adding a suffix to the table name - Question 6.8 from pg.140-141
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How is a many-to-many recursive relationship different from a many-to-many relationship? A. A many-to-many recursive relationship does not have an associative entity B. Only a many-to-many relationship is composed of two one-to-many relationships C. In a many-to-many recursive relationship, a second associative entity is used D. None of the above |
D. None of the above - Question 6.9 from pg.147
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What is data modeling?
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Both a technique for modeling data and its relationships and a graphical representation of a database. It is also a way of communicating a database design. - Question 7.1A from pg.156
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What is a useful technique for identifying entities in a written description of a data modeling problem? |
One approach is to underline any nouns in the problem description. Most nouns are possible entities and underlining ensures that you do not overlook any potential entities. - Question 7.1B from pg.158
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When do you label arcs? |
Because relationship descriptors frequently can be inferred, there is no need to label them; however, each additional arc between two entities must be labeled to clarify meaning. Also, it is a good idea to label one-to-one relationships because the relationship descriptors are not always obvious. - Question 7.1C from pg.159
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When is a data model well-formed and when is it high fidelity? |
Well-formed data model = the construction rules have been obeyed. The model clearly communicates information to the client.
High fidelity = faithfully describes the world it supposed to represent. - Question 7.1D from pg.160-161 |
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How do you handle exceptions when data modeling? |
Always probe for exceptions and look for them in the examples the client uses. Redesigning the data model to handle exceptions increases fidelity. - Question 7.1E from pg.164
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Describe the different types of entities. |
Independent
Dependent (or weak) Associative Aggregate Subordinate - Question 7.1F from pg.178-180 |
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Why might a data model grow? |
As you discover new entities, your data model will grow.
Your initial data model will expand as you extend the boundaries of the application. You will discover some attributes will evolve into entities and some one-to-many relationships will become many-to-many relationships. It will grow because you will add entities, attributes, and relationships to allow for exceptions. The data model will grow because you are representing the complexity of the real world. - Question 7.1G from pg.183 |
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Why might a data model contract? |
As you generalize, your data model will shrink. - Question 7.1H from pg.183
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How do you indicate ordering of instances in a data model? |
Instances are assumed to have no ordering. There is no first instance, next instance, or last instance. If you must recognize a particular order, create an attribute to record the order. - Question 7.1I from pg.185
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What is the difference between a synonym and a homonym? |
Synonyms = different words that have the same meaning.
Homonyms = words that sound the same but have different meanings. - Question 7.1J from pg.187-188 |
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What are the four building blocks of a data model? A. Entity, attribute, relationship, and descriptor B. Entity, model, attribute, index C. Relationship, attribute, identifier, and entity D. Attribute, entity, index, primary key |
C. Relationship, attribute, identifier, and entity - Question 7.2 from pg.157-160
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-formed data model? A. Relationship descriptors are used on all many-to-many relationships B. All attributes of each entity are listed C. All entity names use capital letters and are eight bytes or less D. All attribute names use lower case letters, but may be more than eight bytes |
B. All attributes of each entity are listed - Question 7.3 from pg.160
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What is meant by a weak or dependent entity? A. The dependent entity has no primary key and depends on the foreign keys of other entities B. The dependent entity relies on another entity for its existence and identity C. The dependent entity results from one-to-many relationship D. The dependent entity is the same as a virtual table |
B. The dependent entity relies on another entity for its existence and identity - Question 7.4 from pg.179
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Which data model entity is a byproduct of many-to-many relationships? A. Associative entity B. Aggregate entity C. Descriptor entity D. Subordinate entity |
A. Associative entity - Question 7.5 from pg.179
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One of the data modeling hints for names and addresses mentions the query test. What question is asked in the query test? A. Is the relationship descriptor clear or ambiguous when doing a query? B. Do the attributes have synonyms or homonyms that might cause confusion when queried? C. Does the query identify all the exceptions? D. If an attribute has parts, are any of the parts ever likely to appear in a query? |
D. If an attribute has parts, are any of the parts ever likely to appear in a query? - Question 7.6 from pg.185
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What is the solution to using meaningful identifiers? A. Meaningful identifiers should be used to reduce storage space B. Meaningful identifiers should always be used to help clarify an entity's purpose C. Nonmeaningful identifiers create fewer data management problems D. Nonmeaningful identifiers can only be used in recursive relationships |
C. Nonmeaningful identifiers create fewer data management problems - Question 7.7 from pg.191-192
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Describe the seven habits of highly effective data modeler. |
1. Immerse yourself in the client’s task environment.
2. Challenge existing assumptions. 3. Generalize structures to reduce the number of entities. 4. Test the model by having others read it. 5. Set reasonable limits to the time and scope of the data model. 6. Integrate with existing systems where feasible to avoid duplication. 7. Complete the model by not leaving your data model ill-defined. - Question 7.8 from pg.192-193 |
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In a recursive relationship, what becomes a foreign key on the many end? A. The primary key B. The identifier on the "one" end C. The foreign key on the "one" end D. None of the above |
B. The identifier on the "one" end - Question 7.9 from pg.200
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Consider the case of a one-to-one relationship between two entities. What is the guiding principle for deciding into which entity to place the foreign key? |
The guideline is to map the relationship to the relational model by placing the foreign key to minimize the number of instances that will have a null value.
- Question 7.10 from pg.204 |
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In a one-to-one relationship between two tables, how does the primary key of the "one" table relate to the "many" table? A. The primary key of the "one" table becomes the primary key of the "many" table B. The primary key of the "many" table becomes the primary key of the "one" table C. The primary key of the "one" table cannot be the primary or foreign key of the "many" table D. The primary key of the "one" table becomes a foreign key of the "many" table |
D. The primary key of the "one" table becomes a foreign key of the "many" table - Question 7.11 from pg.204
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Consider two entities with a many-to-many relationship. How would the relationship be drawn? A. Three straight lines drawn between the two entities B. Two straight lines drawn between the two entities, with a crow's foot on the first entity and first line, and a crow's foot on the second entity and the second line C. One straight line drawn from each entity to a third entity, with crow's feet on each line at the third entity D. A straight line drawn between the two entities, with a crow's foot and a plus sign drawn at the dependent entity |
C. One straight line drawn from each entity to a third entity, with crow's feet on each line at the third entity - Question 7.12 from pg.205
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What does a plus sign next to the "crow's feet" of a many-to-many relationship mean? A. The primary key of the "one" table becomes a foreign key and part of the primary key of the "many" table B. The primary key of the "one" table cannot be the primary key or foreign key of the "many" table C. The primary key of the "one" table becomes the primary key of the "many" table D. The primary key of the "one" table can either be the primary key or foreign key of the "many" table, but not both |
A. The primary key of the "one" table becomes a foreign key and part of the primary key of the "many" table - Question 7.13 from pg.206
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Consider two entities that have a one-to-many relationship, where the "many" end of the relationship is a weak or dependent entity. How would the relationship be drawn? A. Three straight lines between the entities, with a plus sign on the arc on the "many" end of the relationship B. A straight line between the entities, with crow's feet and a plus sign on the arc on the "many" end of the relationship C. A straight line between the entities, with a plus sign on the arc on the "many" end of the relationship D. A straight line between the entities, and a recursive line on the "many" entity that has the crow's feet |
B. A straight line between the entities, with crow's feet and a plus sign on the arc on the "many" end of the relationship - Question 7.14 from pg.206
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In a weak or dependent entity, how does the primary key of the "one" entity relate to the "many" entity? |
The primary key of the “one” entity becomes the foreign key of the “many” entity - Question 7.15 from pg.206
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In a many-to-many relationship between two tables, a third table called an associative entity is created between the two tables. How many foreign keys does the associative entity have? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three |
C. Two - Question 7.16 from pg.207
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Consider the following tree structure with entity "A", which has a one-to-many relationship to entity "B", which has a one-to-many relationship with entity "C". The primary key of entity "C" is best described as what? |
The primary key of the entity “C” is a composite of the identifier of “C”, the primary key of “B” and the primary key of “A”.
- Question 7.17 from pg.208 |
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What is normalization, and what is its goal?
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Normalization is the process of converting a table in low normal form to a higher normal form.
Its goal is to increase the quality of database design. - Question 8.1 from pg.212 |
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Explain the difference between Third Normal Form (3NF) and Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF). |
A relation is in third normal form if and only if it is in second normal form and has no transitive dependencies. 3NF does not cover cases in which:
- a relation has multiple candidate keys, - those candidate keys are composite, - or the candidate keys overlap because they have one column in common. BCNF does cover these rare situations. - Question 8.2 from pg.215-218 |
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How do E-R and IDEF1X differ from the data modeling method preferred in the Watson text? |
They are all very similar and have the same goal, which is to improve the quality of database design. They share entity and relationship mapping concepts. Watson’s preferred method can be learned rapidly, is easily adaptable to other methods, and is similar to Microsoft’s methods for modeling Access. - Question 8.3 from pg.226
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What reasons does Codd give for adopting the relational model? |
1. Other database models force the application programmer to code at a low level of structural detail. As a result, application programs are more complex and take longer to write and debug.
2. No commands are provided for processing multiple records at one time. Other models do not provide the set processing capability of the relational model, which means that queries can be much more concisely expressed. 3. Only the relational model, through a query language such as SQL, recognizes the users’ need to make ad hoc queries. Adoption of the relational model and SQL permits an MIS department to respond far more rapidly to users’ unanticipated requests. It can also mean that users write and execute their own queries. Thus, Codd’s assertion that the relational model is a practical tool for increasing the productivity of MIS departments is well founded. - Question 8.4A from pg.231-232 |
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What are the major components of the relational model? |
Data structures
Integrity rules Operators used to retrieve, derive, or modify data - Question 8.4B from pg.232 |
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What is a domain? Why is it useful? |
A domain is a set of values all of the same data type.
The practical value of a domain is to define what comparisons are permissible. - Question 8.4C from pg.232-233 |
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What are the meanings of cardinality and degree? |
The cardinality of a relation is the number of rows.
The degree of a relation is the number of columns. - Question 8.4D from pg.233 |
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What is a simple relational database? |
A relational database is a collection of relations or tables. This definition really applies to the external and conceptual levels. - Question 8.4E from pg.233
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What is the difference between a primary key and an alternate key? |
A primary key is the candidate key selected as the unique identifier of a row in a table. An alternate key is a candidate key that was not selected as the primary key. - Question 8.4F from pg.233-234
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Why do we need an integrity rule? |
The entity integrity rule ensures that each instance of an entity described by a relation is identifiable in some way. Its implementation means that each row in a relation can be uniquely distinguished. The rule is: No component of the primary key of a relation may be null. Null in this case means that the component cannot be undefined or unknown – it must have a value. - Question 8.4G from pg.235
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What is the meaning of union compatible? Which relational operations require union compatibility? |
Union compatible means two relations have the same column names, in the same order, and drawn from the same domains.
In order to perform Intersect and Difference operations, the tables must be union compatible. - Question 8.4H from pg.238-239 |
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What key concept of the relational model deals with a set of values all of the same data type? A. Domain B. Primary key C. Relations D. Candidate key |
A. Domain - Question 8.5 from pg.232
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What rule in the relational model says that no component of the primary key of a relation may be null? A. The referential integrity rule B. The relational integrity rule C. The primary key integrity rule D. The entity integrity rule |
D. The entity integrity rule - Question 8.6 from pg.235
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In a relational model, which of the following is the term that means a retrieval language can be used to express every relational algebra operator? A. Relationally complete B. Fully relational C. Primitive set of relational operations D. The comprehensive data sublanguage rule |
A. Relationally complete - Question 8.7 from pg.236
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A composite key is: A. An ordered set of columns that form a primary or foreign key B. A foreign key in a recursive relationship C. A set of columns unique to one entity D. Joining each of the primary keys of two entities so as to form a foreign key in a third key |
A. An ordered set of columns that form a primary or foreign key - Question 8.8 from pg.250
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A unique key means: A. A primary key that cannot appear as a foreign key in another entity B. No two values of a key are the same C. The column does not appear in any other entity D. Two or more foreign keys that form a composite key |
B. No two values of a key are the same - Question 8.9 from pg.250
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In an entity, what are indexes used for? A. To sort primary keys B. To catalog all primary keys C. To accelerate data access and ensure uniqueness D. To limit access to an entity |
C. To accelerate data access and ensure uniqueness - Question 8.10 from pg.250-251
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Which of the following is an advantage of the object oriented (OO) model over the relational model?
A. The OO model follows the record-at-a-time processing of programming languages. B. In the OO model, changing the state of one object directly changes the state of any other object. C. In the OO model, classes are self-contained and do not inherit attributes from the super-class. D. None of the above. |
D. None of the above. - Question 9.1 from pg.384
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What is encapsulation? Why is it desirable? |
Encapsulation is a central concept of OO. It means that all processing that changes the state of an object (i.e., changes the value of any of its attributes) is done within that object.
Encapsulation implies that an object is shielded from interference from other objects; that is, an object cannot directly change any other objects. - Question 9.2A from pg.388 |
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What are the advantages of inheritance? |
Inheritance simplifies specification and programming and is especially important for creating reusable objects. - Question 9.2B from pg.389
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What are the advantages of OO approach? |
Many organizations have a substantial backlog of applications because it takes significant resources to build new applications and maintain existing systems. The need to increase programmer productivity and reduce the cost of maintaining systems are the major reasons for adopting the OO approach - Question 9.2C from pg.390-391
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How does OO reduce maintenance costs? |
Maintenance costs are decreased by using OO concepts. Maintenance costs are lowered because logical and syntactical errors are decreased, missing or incorrect specifications occur less frequently, the addition of features is easy, and it accommodates well to business changes. - Question 9.2D from pg.391
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How does a data model differ from a procedural model? |
Data modeling deals with what the system needs to remember. A data model is often called static because it tends to be fairly stable and requires little to change over time. This does not mean, however, that it will never change. The procedural model describes what the system needs to do, and how to do it. Often referred to as the dynamic part of an information systems model, a procedural model has two parts: processing and control. - Question 9.2E from pg.393
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DBMS vendors are following two major directions. One is the pure ODBMS path and the other is a hybrid. What are two forms of hybrid technology being adopted? A. Sequential files and ASCII files B. RMDS and Oracle C. Object-relational and extended-relational D. None of the above |
C. Object-relational and extended-relational - Question 9.3 from pg.408
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What are three goals of maintaining organizational memory?
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Protecting existence, maintaining quality, and ensuring confidentiality - Question 10.1A from pg.530
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What strategies are available for maintaining data integrity? |
Legal, administrative, and technical - Question 10.1B from pg.530-531
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What mechanisms should a DBMS provide to support backup and recovery of a database? |
Backup facilities that create duplicate copies of the database.
Journaling facilities which provide backup copies or an audit trail of transactions and/or database changes. A recovery facility within the DBMS to restore the database to a consistent state and restart the processing of transactions. - Question 10.1C from pg.539 |
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What is the difference between a "before image" and "after image"? |
A copy of the retrieved record is logged to the journal file. This copy is referred to as the before image because it is a copy of the database record before the transaction changes it.
A copy of the updated record is written to the journal. This copy is referred to as the after image because it is a copy of the database record after the transaction has updated it. - Question 10.1D from pg.540-541 |
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How do backward recovery and forward recovery differ? |
Backward recovery is used to back out or undo unwanted changes to the database.
Forward recovery involves re-creating a database using a prior database state. - Question 10.1E from pg.542-543 |
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When would you use ROLLBACK in an application program? |
It is used to back out or undo unwanted changes to the database - Question 10.1F from pg.542, 544
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When would you use COMMIT in an application program? |
It is SQL command to make a set of database changes permanent - Question 10.1G from pg.544
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Give three examples of data integrity constraints. |
Type, Size, Values, Range, Pattern, Procedure, Conditional, Not Null, Unique - Question 10.1H from pg.550
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What is the purpose of locking? |
Allocating a particular database resource to a transaction or user - Question 10.1I from pg.534
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What is the likely effect on performance between locking at a row compare to locking at a page? |
Locking at a row level, allows other users to access other rows in the file while the locked row is being used. Locking at the page level, locks all users out from being able to obtain access to any of the records that are included on the page of the record that is being updated. There is more resource conflict to lock at the page level than when locking at the record level. Locking at the record level also increases the processing overhead beyond what is necessary for locking at the page level. - Question 10.1J from pg.534
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What are three types of authenticating mechanisms? |
Something a person knows – remembered information. Example: Name, account #, password
Something a person has – possessed objects. Example: Badge, plastic card, key Something the person is – personal characteristics. Example: Fingerprint, voiceprint, signature, hand size. - Question 10.1K from pg.553 |
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What is encryption? |
Encryption techniques complement access control. Encryption can be used to obscure or hide the meaning of data. Encrypted data cannot be read by an intruder unless that person knows the method of encryption and the key. Encryption is any transformation applied to data that makes it difficult to extract meaning. To implement it, you need an encrypting technique to transform data to cipher text, and a decryption technique to reconstruct the original data from cipher text. - Question 10.1L from pg.555-556
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What are the advantages of public key encryption? |
It is easier to distribute the keys, because the public key can be distributed to anyone and only the holder of the private key can read it. Thus the private key does not need to be distributed eliminating the problem of distributing the sensitive keys. - Question 10.1M from pg.556
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"If a transaction has two or more discrete pieces of information, either all of the pieces are committed or none are" describes which attribute? A. Atomicity B. Consistency C. Isolation D. Durability |
A. Atomicity - Question 10.2 from pg.532
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Which of the following is true about the concurrent update control mechanism of locking? A. Locking prevents deadly embrace B. Locking at the record level requires less processing overhead than locking on page level. C. Data are locked from the time the update transaction is initiated until it is completed. D. Locking occurs on all transactions from beginning to end. |
C. Data are locked from the time the update transaction is initiated until it is completed - Question 10.3 from pg.532-533
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What strategy of the database integrity goal of protecting existence best describes a company that physically stores the copy of the database in a guarded vault-like room? A. Backup and recovery B. Lockout C. Isolation D. Restricted access |
C. Isolation - Question 10.4 from pg.537
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What is the preferred recovery strategy for abnormal termination of an update transaction? A. Backward recovery or rollback B. Forward recovery or roll forward C. Reprocessing transactions D. Switching to a duplicate database |
A. Backward recovery or rollback - Question 10.5 from pg.543-544
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Six-sigma standards are an example of which generation of data quality. A. Third B. First C. Second D. Fourth |
A. Third - Question 10.6 from pg.547
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What data item integrity constraints for maintaining quality would be used to ensure that a Social Security number is a nine-digit, numeric field? A. VALUES and SIZE B. SIZE and VALUE C. UNIQUE and SIZE D. TYPE and SIZE |
D. TYPE and SIZE - Question 10.7 from pg.550-551
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What SQL commands are used for authorization rules? A. USE and REFUSE B. GRANT and REVOKE C. ENTER and EXIT D. RESTRICT and ACCESS |
B. GRANT and REVOKE - Question 10.8 from pg.555
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Which of the following are three hallmarks of a healthy information ecosystem?
A. Best-of-breed, open architecture, relational B. Interchangeable, portable, transparent C. Adaptability, change, balance D. Metadata, parallel processing, secure |
C. Adaptability, change, balance - Question 11.1 from pg.2
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State three business pressures fueling the evolution of the information ecosystem. |
Growing consumer demand
Increasing competition and complexity Continued demands for improvements in operating efficiencies - Question 11.2 from pg.3 |
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Which component of a corporate information ecosystem is described as the family of systems from which the CIF gathers its raw detail data? A. External world B. Applications C. Operational data store D. Data mart |
B. Applications - Question 11.3 from pg.7
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What is external data? A. Internal company data sent outside the company B. Outside data not used by the company C. Events and objects outside the corporation in which the corporation is interested D. None of the above |
C. Events and objects outside the corporation in which the corporation is interested - Question 11.4 from pg.12
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State three roles of reference data. |
1. It allows a corporation to standardize on a commonly used name for important or frequently used information, such as product, country, organization, customer segment, and so forth.
2. It allows commonly used names to be stored and accessed in a short-hand fashion, which saves disk-space. 3. It provided the basis for consistent interpretation of corporate data across departments. - Question 11.5 from pg.16 |
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State and explain three implications of historical data. |
1. Volume of data - the longer the history is kept, the greater the amount of data.
2. Business usefulness - the more current a unit of information, the greater the likelihood that it is relevant to current business. 3. Aggregation of data - the more current the data, the greater the chance that the data will be used at the detailed level. The older the data, the greater the chance that the data will be used at the summary level. - Question 11.6 from pg.19 |
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What determined the amount of history contained by a data mart? A. Physical storage space B. The industry being represented C. Government regulation D. The programmer |
B. The industry being represented - Question 11.7 from pg.21
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Describe the standard flow of data through the CIF. |
It is from left to right, that is:
• from the consumer to the application, • from the application to the I & T layer, • from the I & T layer to the ODS or the data warehouse, • from the ODS to the data warehouse, • and from the data warehouse to the data marts. The flow occurs as described in a regular and normal manner. - Question 11.8 from pg.21 |
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There is a clear delineation between operational processing and DSS/informational processing. Which statement below best describes the difference between the two? A. The ODS resides completely in operational processing. B. Applications reside in the DSS. C. Data marts and data warehouses are completely in the DSS. D. Data marts reside in the operational processing. |
C. Data marts and data warehouses are completely in the DSS. - Question 11.9 from pg.26
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DSS/information users analyze data differently from operational users. What does it mean when a DSS/information user looks at data "heuristically"? A. The DSS/information user reviews data on an hourly basis B. The DSS/information user next step of analysis is deeply dependent on the previous analysis C. The DSS/information user's questions and queries are preformatted D. The DSS/information user reconciles detail data to summary data, so as to keep the analysis whole |
B. The DSS/information user next step of analysis is deeply dependent on the previous analysis - Question 11.10 from pg.30-31
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Name an describe the four most common types of DSS users |
Tourists—are those DSS analysts who specialize in being able to find a breadth of information. A tourist is seen as an individual who uses the Internet/Intranet and knows where to find many things. A tourist understands the structure of the CIF and knows where in the structure of things to find almost anything. However, the tourist is an unpredictable analyst, sort of a walking directory of information.
Farmers—Very different from a tourist. A farmer is someone who is predictable and knows what he or she wants before setting out to do a query. A farmer looks at small amounts of data because the farmer knows where to find the data. The farmer is somewhat repetitive in the search for information and seldom wanders far from data that is familiar. The farmer operates as comfortably on detailed data as on summary data. In many regards, because summary data is compact and concise, summary data suits the needs of the farmer quite nicely. In addition, the data the farmer is looking for is almost always here. Explorers—Have some traits similar to both the tourist and the farmer but are unique unto themselves. The explorer is someone who operates with a great degree of unpredictability and irregularity and looks over massive amounts of detail. The explorer seldom has much use for summary data and frequently makes requests that seem to be farfetched. Often times the explorer finds nothing, but occasionally the explorer finds huge nuggets in the most unexpected places. The explorer becomes an expert in one arena within the CIF. Miners—Have a great affinity to the explorer, and they form a symbiotic relationship. The explorer creates assertions and hypotheses. The miner proves the validity or invalidity of those assertions and hypotheses. The miner is a statistician. The miner begins by testing one or more hypotheses against a large body of data, usually transaction data. The miner then comes up with a statistically based opinion about the strength of the hypotheses. These newly discovered hypotheses are then reported back to the explorer for further examination. - Question 11.11 from pg.32-35 |
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An important issue to the supporting CIF architecture is whether the components are centralized or distributed. How is the operational data store (ODS) classified in terms of being centralized or distributed? A. The ODS is almost always distributed B. Large ODS are centralized and small ODS are distributed C. The ODS is both distributed and centralized D. The ODS is almost always centralized |
D. The ODS is almost always centralized - Question 11.12 from pg.37
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Describe the five steps in a typical progression to the building of the CIF. What are the advantages of the suggested migration? |
On Day 1—is a chaotic information systems environment without shape or form.
On Day 2—the data warehouse begins to emerge and grows incrementally. With each advance in the data warehouse, data is removed and integrated from the amorphous information systems environment. On Day 3—data marts start to grow from the data warehouse. Indirectly, more processing and data is removed from the information systems environment as different departments begin to rely on their data marts for DSS processing. On Day 4—Integrated applications start to appear. The integrated applications require an integration and transformation layer in order to feed the data to the data warehouse. The emergence of the integrated applications comes slowly and, in many cases, imperceptibly. On Day 5—the ODS is built. The ODS is fed from the integration and transformation layer and, in turn, feeds its data to the data warehouse. By this time, the systems that were once known as the production systems environment have almost disappeared. The legacy environment is only a very small vestige of the former invincible self. Advantages of the suggested migration: Proven Least risky Fastest Avoids many pitfalls Least expensive with the greatest probability of success. - Question 11.13 from pg.42-44 |
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What best describes the relationship between the CIF and the external world?
A. The external world feeds all external world data into the CIF. B. The CIF feeds all of its data into the external world. C. The external world and CIF both feed applications. D. The external world feeds the CIF and consumes the information produced by the CIF. |
D. The external world feeds the CIF and consumes the information produced by the CIF. - Question 12.1 from pg.49
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State four responsibilities of the applications component of CIF. |
1. Gathering detailed transaction data
2. Interacting directly with the end user 3. Auditing and adjusting data 4. Editing data - Question 12.2 from pg.55 |
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Why are applications unintegrated? How does this lack of integration surface? |
Applications are unintegrated for a variety of reasons:
- they were built to suit the needs of one group, then another - they were required as part of a corporate merger - they were first built in-house and then augmented by third-party software packages - The cost justification process applied to the development of applications did not allow for anything other than an immediate and obvious set of requirements to be addressed, thereby limiting the extensibility and reuse of the application solution It surfaces in many ways, including: - inconsistent key structures - inconsistent coding structures - inconsistent structuring of data - inconsistent reference structures of data - inconsistent definitions of data - inconsistent code and calculations - inconsistent reporting - Question 12.3 from pg.56 |
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What is an important architectural component of the applications environment? |
The system of record. This resulting source of data is captured by the I & T layer, transformed, and loaded into the data warehouse and/or ODS. - Question 12.4 from pg.59-60
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How does the integration and transformation (I & T) layer differ from the ODS, data warehouse, and data marts with respect to makeup? A. The I & T layer contains all the hardware B. The I & T layer is primarily made up of programs, not data C. The ODS, data warehouse, and data mart are primarily made up of software D. The ODS, data warehouse, and data mart are primarily software based |
B. The I & T layer is primarily made up of programs, not data - Question 12.5 from pg.63
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Where do feeds out of the I & T layer go? A. End users B. Data applications C. Into the ODS and data warehouse D. External world |
C. Into the ODS and data warehouse - Question 12.6 from pg.66
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State five functions that I & T programs can do. |
1. Merely read data from one database and pass it to another program
2. Do transformations that standardize data using a common set of encoding, derivation, formatting, and substitution rules 3. Map the transformed data to the correct location in the data warehouse and/or ODS 4. Produce intermediary files that are then used as input into other programs 5. If more than one input source exists, they can produce more than one file as output - Question 12.7 from pg.68 |
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Describe the role of the logical data model. |
It acts like a blueprint that describes how data should look in the CIF. From these specifications, the builder creates I&T programs that transform raw materials provided by the applications environment into the foundation, frame, roof, siding, and interior that make up the CIF. The logical data model intellectually unifies the work that is done by the many programs that go into the I&T layer. - Question 12.8 from pg.68-69
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Which are NOT parts of the seven kinds of processing that occur in the I & T interface? A. Summarizing data and data archiving B. Performing key transformations and encoding structures C. Simple reformatting and mathematical conversion D. Resequencing data and assigning default values |
A. Summarizing data and data archiving - Question 12.9 from pg.70
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Describe the five attributes of the ODS. |
1. Subject-oriented—organized along the lines of the major entities of the corporation
2. Integrated—refers to the physical unification and cohesiveness of the data as it is stored 3. Volatile—means an ODS can be updated as a normal part of processing 4. Current-valued—timeliness of the data—An ODS typically contains daily, weekly, or maybe even monthly data 5. Detailed—ODS contains detailed data only - Question 12.10 from pg.79-81 |
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What is both a feed into and out of the ODS? A. The data warehouse B. Applications C. The external world D. The data marts |
A. The data warehouse - Question 12.11 from pg.81
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Describe the four different I & T interfaces to the ODS. |
Class 1 - Asynchronous - 1-2 second delay
Class 2 - Store and forward - 2-4 hour delay Class 3 - Batch processing - overnight Class 4 - Data from the warehouse - Question 12.12 from pg.83-85 |
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Which are ALL four types of processing that are done in the ODS. A. Load, summary, detail, operational B. Load, update, access, DSS analysis C. Lead, entry, analysis, archiving D. Entry, record, store, retrieval |
B. Load, update, access, DSS analysis - Question 12.13 from pg.87-88
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Describe five attributes of the data warehouse |
1. Subject-oriented—organized along the lines of the major entities of the corporation
2. Integrated—refers to the physical unification and cohesiveness of the data as it is stored in the warehouse 3. Time-variant—any record in the data warehouse environment is accurate relative to some moment in time 4. Nonvolatile—refers to the fact that update (in its purest sense—that of finding a record and making changes to the record) does not normally occur in a data warehouse. If update occurs at all, it occurs on an exception basis. 5. Comprised of both summary and detailed data—a data warehouse contains both detailed and summary data. - Question 12.14 from pg.93-98 |
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There are various feeds into and out from the data warehouse. What feed is characterized by being very heavy, at night or as needed, mass load, and adds or replaces or incrementally updates existing data? A. ODS B. The I & T layer C. Alternative storage D. Data marts |
B. The I & T layer - Question 12.15 from pg.100-the chart
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Discuss the five kinds of processing done in the data warehouse. |
1. Loads from the ODS and the I&T layer into the data warehouse
2. Processes to perform post-load aggregations and derivations (e.g. scoring and segmentation) 3. Utilities required to maintain and operate the data warehouse 4. Unload and restructure processes to create data marts and other architectural entities 5. Some query processing from the DSS analyst community - Question 12.16 from pg.103 |
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How is the data mart best defined?
A. A departmental data warehouse B. A subset of the operational data store C. A collection of data tailored to the processing needs of a particular department D. A relational database |
C. A collection of data tailored to the processing needs of a particular department - Question 13.1 from pg.110
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State three advantages of data marts as augmentations to the data warehouse. |
1) Control - a department can completely control the data and processing that occurs inside a data mart.
2) Cost - because the department wants to analyze only a subset of data found in the data warehouse, the cost of storage and processing is substantially less when the department moves the desired data off to a departmental machine. 3) Customization - as data passes into the data mart from the data warehouse, the data is customized to suit the peculiar needs of the department. The data from the warehouse can: Have its keys restructured, be re-sequenced, be merged and pruned, be summarized, be edited and converted - Question 13.2 from pg.110-111 |
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There are three popular kinds of data marts, of which two types were discussed in detail. What are they? A. Multi-dimensional online analytical processing (OLAP) and relational OLAP B. OLAP and star join schema C. Real-time OLAP and mass OLAP D. Inline analytical processing and multi-dimensional databases |
A. Multi-dimensional online analytical processing (OLAP) and relational OLAP - Question 13.3 from pg.114-115
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What are two kinds of processing found in the data mart environment? Who are they typically done by (tourists, farmers, explorers, miners)? |
1) Repetitive processing - done by farmers
2) Unpredictable processing - done by explorers - Question 13.4 from pg.116-117 |
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The third phase in the evolution in the creation of exploration and data mining warehouses recognizes what? A. Exploration warehouses feed from data mining warehouses B. The exploration and data mining warehouses are identical C. The data mining warehouse becomes the exploration warehouse D. The two need separation but are tightly coupled |
D. The two need separation but are tightly coupled - Question 13.5 from pg.126
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What three sources feed the exploration warehouse? |
External data, data warehouse, and alternative storage - Question 13.6 from pg.127-129
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What determines the need for the exploration warehouse? |
Some companies need an exploration warehouse more than others. The need of a corporation depends entirely on how many long-running queries they execute. - Question 13.7 from pg.129
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Why do explorer queries run so long? A. They look at detailed, historical data that has been configured in an unusual way B. They have to process data stored at the application level C. The queries are ad hoc and quickly written, and thus inefficient D. None of the above |
A. They look at detailed, historical data that has been configured in an unusual way - Question 13.8 from pg.130
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State three reasons why data grows dormant in a data warehouse. |
1) Over estimation of the need for historical data: When the warehouse is first designed, the data demand is for five years of historical. After the designer delivers five years of history, the user learns that for most processing only one or two years of history are needed.
2) Inclusion of data that is never needed for analysis: The data warehouse is designed to handle one sort of analysis that never bears fruit. As a consequence certain types of data are simply never accessed. 3) Creation of summary data that is used only once: It is very common for summary data to be placed in the warehouse. Unfortunately, few plan for managing these summary tables. As a result, the DWA doesn’t know what summary tables to remove and plays it safe by not removing any of them. - Question 13.9 from pg.141 |
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What are the three factors for using alternative storage? A. Size, availability, software B. Volume, technology, type of analysis performed C. Cost, optimizing performance, level of granularity D. Number of users, query length, years of data involved |
C. Cost, optimizing performance, level of granularity - Question 13.10 from pg.148
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List the six purposes of communications fabric of the internet/intranet. |
1) Transport data
2) Distribute processing 3) Schedule and coordinate activities 4) Deliver status within the architecture 5) Provide architectural connectivity 6) Expose CIF capabilities to the external world - Question 13.11 from pg.157-158 |
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Describe the seven factors that govern communication between different components of the CIF. |
1) Volume of data that can be passed through the communications fabric
2) Speed with which data will pass through the intranet 3) Capacity of network - When the rate of data flow and the volume of data are in tandem with each other, the result is the capacity of the network 4) Mode of transport - Some communications are of a bulk type and other transmissions are of a burst type. A bulk type of transmission is one where large amounts of data are transmitted all at once. The burst kind of transmission is fundamentally different; in this type, many short transmissions are made. 5) Cost of telecommunication lines - The cost of telecommunication lines is a function of capacity and line type. 6) Nature of the transport - Some transport technologies are very effective at transmitting bulk amounts of data but are relatively expensive, difficult to set up, and difficult to maintain. 7) Availability of the fabric - A final concern of the architect is the hours of availability of the communications fabric. All of the issues must be taken into account by the architect who is in charge of weaving together the different components of the CIF. - Question 13.12 from pg.159-162 |
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Different users have different expectations when using internet/intranet communication facilities. What type of user expects very fast, short bursts where the response time is immediate, with very few massive bulk transactions? A. Tourists B. Direct customers C. Miners D. Analysts |
B. Direct customers - Question 13.13 from pg.164
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Which of the following explains why metadata is so important?
A. It is important for gathering raw data B. Historical data is useful in decision making C. Mitigates the cost of warehousing D. It is the glue that holds the architecture together |
D. It is the glue that holds the architecture together - Question 14.1 from pg.170
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What does the text consider the most important component of the CIF from the standpoint of cohesiveness and continuity of structure across the many different components? |
Without METADATA, the different components of the CIF are merely standalone structures with no relationship to any other structure. It is metadata that gives the different structures—components of the architecture—an overall cohesiveness. Through metadata, one component of the architecture is able to interpret and make sense of what another component is trying to communicate. - Question 14.2 from pg.170
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Give examples for both shareable and autonomous metadata. |
Shareable:
• Table name and attributes shared among applications and their data warehouse • Some definitions of data shared among the enterprise data model, the data warehouse, and the data mart • Physical attributes shared among the applications and the ODS • Physical attributes shared from one application to another • Description of how shared data is transformed as it moves through the integration and transformation (I & T) layer • Ultimately, very commonly used metadata needs to be shareable Autonomous: • The indexes a table has for its use in an application - Question 14.3 from pg.175 |
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State six advantages of producing metadata as a by-product of the creation code. |
1. Metadata creation does not require another budgetary line item - it comes automatically
2. Updating metadata as changes are made is not a problem 3. Metadata versions are created every time a new version of code is created 4. Programmers do not need to know that they are creating metadata 5. Programmers think they are building systems. The creation of the metadata comes spontaneously, unknown to the programmer 6. The logic of transformation can be trapped. The transformation tool can understand exactly what conversion and reformatting logic is occurring. - Question 14.4 from pg.184 |
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In which of the following places in the CIF is meta-process information least useful? A. The external world B. At the I & T layer C. Within the applications D. As data passes to the data mart from the data warehouse |
A. The external world - Question 14.5 from pg.186
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of an enterprise repository? A. Contains metadata B. Acts as a DBMS C. Stores information in a database D. Provides extensibility |
B. Acts as a DBMS - Question 14.6 from pg.72
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What should a repository strategy consider? |
• the functions the repository is expected to perform
• the culture of the organization • the software development methodology, if any • the number and skill levels of person needed to support the repository • the level of training needed • the hardware and software environment • how to market the repository within the organization • how to research and select a repository tool • the organization's procurement procedures • the initial repository project • high level implementation/rollout approach - Question 14.7 from pg.74-75 |
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Which of the following is not an advantage of purchasing tools instead of developing in-house tools? A. Designed to meet company's requirements B. Ongoing support for the product C. Upgrades to meet customers requests D. Enhancements to support new technology or the remain competitive |
A. Designed to meet company's requirements - Question 14.8 from pg.77
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A good candidate for an initial repository project would not be which of the following? A. One that uses the tool without modification B. One that utilizes available resources C. One that takes more than a couple of months to complete D. One that has value if successful, and yet is not on a critical path in case it is not completed on time |
C. One that takes more than a couple of months to complete - Question 14.9 from pg.77
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The most difficult challenge in implementing an enterprise repository is which of the following? A. Determining the intended use of the repository B. The transformation in behavior that the organization expects when persons or groups begin to share data C. Identifying the roles of persons involved in supporting and using the repository D. Defining the role of data steward |
B. The transformation in behavior that the organization expects when persons or groups begin to share data - Question 14.10 from pg.79
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What is the ultimate goal of a CIF? |
To get the right information into the right people's hands when they need it. - Question 14.11 from pg.189
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What can the data warehouse provide data marts with? |
Integrated data that can be used to give data more "depth" that is otherwise not possible - Question 14.12 from pg.191
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Why is historical data important to the CRM environment? |
It is very important in predicting the future. The reason why historical data is so useful in predicting the future is that customers (both individuals as well as businesses and governments) are creatures of habit. - Question 14.13 from pg.193-194
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Describe the typical nature of departmental data marts? |
Broad, generic focus
General analyses and reports, some ad hoc reports Unstructured Unpredictable Single department or division - Question 14.14 from pg.196 |
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What three questions need to be answered in order to determine which type of data mart is appropriate for a situation? |
What does it do?
Who is it for? Who is paying for it? - Question 14.15 from pg.196 |
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Which of the following does not describe the typical nature of a DSS application data mart? A. Highly focused B. Standard analysis and repetitive reporting C. Highly structured D. Unpredictable |
D. Unpredictable - Question 14.16 from pg.196
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Which of the following is not an advantage of a departmental data mart? A. You have a good chance of delivering what the department wants B. You can get good funding since the department owns this mart C. Most IT projects are founded this way, so it is easy for the department to build a business case D. There is a desire for supporting an enterprise view of the information |
D. There is a desire for supporting an enterprise view of the information - Question 14.17 from pg.198
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What are some of the ways that data can be restructured to meet the needs of business intelligence? |
Merging or aggregating the data
Summarizing the data Cubing the data Statistical subsets of data - Question 14.18 from pg.200-201 |
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What type of reporting is typically done by a DSS analysis application? A. Key performance monitoring B. Checkpoint monitoring C. Exception reporting D. All of the above |
D. All of the above - Question 14.19 from pg.203
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of an oper-mart? A. It is a large operational data store used in tactical analysis. B. It is stored usually in a multidimensional manner (star schema or hypercube) C. It is updated by transactions occurring in the ODS (no history stored here!) D. It may be created in a temporary manner and dismantled when no longer needed. |
A. It is a large operational data store used in tactical analysis. - Question 14.20 from pg.209
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Which of the following is NOT a data mart characteristic?
A. Customized data B. Summarized data C. Much history D. Efficient to access |
C. Much history - Question 15.1 from pg.214
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What are the characteristics of the data warehouse? |
1) Large volumes of data
2) Detailed 3) Much history 4) Integrated corporate view of information 5) Inefficient to access - Question 15.2 from pg.214 |
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If M represents the number of applications and N represents the number of data marts, which of the following describes how many interfaces are required if the data marts are built first? A. M + N B. M - N C. M x N D. M / N |
C. M x N - Question 15.3 from pg.217
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If M represents the number of applications and N represents the number of data marts, which of the following describes how many interfaces are required when the data warehouse is built in conjunction with the data mart? A. M + N B. M - N C. M x N D. M / N |
A. M + N - Question 15.4 from pg.218
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Why is it a bad idea to build the data marts directly from the application environment? |
One reason is the complexity of interfaces between the different environments. Another reason is because of the dilemma caused by deciding where to place common and unique data. - Question 15.5 from pg.216-219
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List the advantages when OLTP transactions and analytical transactions are separated. |
• System block sizes can be optimized for one type of transaction or the other
• Buffers can be optimized for one type of processing or the other • System initialization parameters, such as FREESPACE, can be optimized for one type of activity or the other • Data can be distributed across system resources (central processing unit [CPU], disk, and so on) for one type of processing or the other - Question 15.6 from pg.224-225 |
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It is a violation of the CIF design to build the ODS and the data warehouse as a single structure. What are some of the problems that might occur if they are the same structure? |
• OLTP is freely mixed with analytical transactions
• The workload is mixed • Analytic users are mixed with clerical users • Mixed transmission types are forced into the same communications link • Current data is mixed with historical data - Question 15.7 from pg.232-Summary |
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The data warehouse and data marts deliver integrated data to support business intelligence capabilities. Some of these capabilities support strategic opportunities. Which of the following is NOT a role of the data warehouse or data mart? A. Profitability analysis B. Customer segmentation and scoring C. Product pricing D. Contract management |
D. Contract management - Question 15.8 from pg.236
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List the two basic types of developmental lifecycles. |
1) Systems development lifecycle (SDLC); waterfall
2) CLDS—reverse of SDLC, i.e., lifecycle development systems; spiral - Question 15.9 from pg.237-239 |
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A DBMS can be configured in many different ways to meet peculiar needs of the environment that it is cast in. Which is the correct statement? A. Checkpoints can be altered B. FREESPACE can be modified C. Buffers can be governed D. Processing can be partitioned |
B. FREESPACE can be modified - Question 15.10 from pg.245
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Describe the three types of hardware architectures and where they are usually used. |
1. Parallel MPP architectures: Multiple units of data are tied together by a common “backbone”. ODS environment has a particularly strong affinity for this architecture.
2. Parallel SMP architectures: Multiple processors are tied together in a shared memory configuration. Applications environment uses this type of architecture. 3. Uniprocessor architectures: A single storage device is controlled by a single processor, much as in a workstation on a mainframe processor. This type of architecture is sufficient for smaller amounts of processing. - Question 15.11 from pg.245-248 |
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The primary issue of ongoing systems management for the applications arena is which of the following? A. Online response time B. Maintenance of code C. Managing volumes of data D. Capacity planning |
A. Online response time - Question 15.12 from pg.253
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What are some of the things vital to the ongoing management of the Integration and Transformation layer? |
• The maintenance of the code created for the I & T layer
• The efficiency of execution of the code inside the I & T layer • The creation of metadata as a code by-product inside the I & T layer • The creation of process and procedures to audit the I & T layer - Question 15.13 from pg.254 |
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The ODS requires a mixed environment. Which of the following least describes activities supported by the ODS environment? A. High availability B. One-to-two second transaction response times C. Complex DDS queries D. Data quality |
D. Data quality - Question 15.14 from pg.256
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Describe some management concerns of a data warehouse. |
• The primary issue of ongoing data warehouse success is the management of the data volume that arises in it. Truly enormous amounts of data tend to accumulate in the data warehouse. In response, the DWA needs to make sure that the volumes of data that reside in the data warehouse belong there.
• The second aspect of data warehousing that needs to be managed over time is that of the quality of data within the data warehouse in terms of completeness and accuracy. - Question 15.15 from pg.257 |
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Which of the following least describes the challenges of administration of a data mart? A. Response time B. Building and maintaining the infrastructure C. Capacity planning as data volumes grow D. Performance tuning as end-user demand grow |
A. Response time - Question 15.16 from pg.258
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What is the function of a data monitor? |
A data monitor looks at such things as growth and quality of data. - Question 15.17 from pg.260
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Which of the following is a function of a DSS monitor? A. Manage transaction response time B. Identify dormant data C. Track general activity D. Monitors growth and quality of data |
B. Identify dormant data - Question 15.18 from pg.260
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What is the function of a network monitor? |
Similar to OLTP monitors, network monitors keep track of general network activity. - Question 15.19 from pg.260
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Which of the following is a function of an OLTP monitor? A. Manage transaction response time B. Identify dormant data C. Track general activity D. Monitors growth and quality of data |
A. Manage transaction response time - Question 15.20 from pg.260
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Why is archival processing a necessity? |
To ensure the optimal use of resources and recoverability of the CIF. - Question 15.21 from pg.263
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List and explain the five archival processes. |
1. Application Archiving - for transaction-recovery backup and to provide a location and vehicle for detailed transactional adjustments.
2. Operational Data Store Archiving - to recover summary data that has been created. 3. Data Warehousing Archiving - to prevent the data volume from getting too large and archiving of data where the probability of its usage has decreased. 4. Data Mart Archiving - same as data warehouse but less frequently due to limited size of marts and granularity of the data. 5. Archiving Medium - archiving is done to a medium that can hold bulk amounts of data, but where the electronic image and record substance can be maintained. Consideration should be given to the reliability and longevity of the medium itself. - Question 15.22 from pg.263-266 |
