Hypothalamus, Eye Movement, Autonomics

Front 1

3 main functions of hypothalamus

Back 1

1) Hormones thru pituitary gland
2) Limbic system connections
3) Autonomic connections

Front 2

Simple reflexes, eg. bladder contraction mediated where?

Back 2

Spinal cord

Front 3

More complex reflexes, eg respiration, blood pressure regulated where?

Back 3

medulla

Front 4

Most complex visceral activities (eg., metabolic rate, feeding, reproduction) regulated where?

Back 4

hypothalamus

Front 5

Special features of the hypothalamus' neural-vascular relationship

Back 5

fenestrated capillaries (no BBB), osmoreceptors, glucoreceptors

Front 6

Which part of hypothalamus:Exposed to the subarachnoid space.

Bound by the mammillary bodies, optic chiasm & tracts

Back 6

Ventral

Front 7

Ventral hypothalamic structures

Back 7

Mammillary bodies, tuber cinereum

Front 8

hypothalamus surrounds ventral portion of ___________

Back 8

3rd ventricle

Front 9

What contains the median eminence?

Back 9

The tuber cinereum

Front 10

Connects tuber cinereum to pituitary

Back 10

infundibulum

Front 11

Dorsal borders of hypothalamus

Back 11

Thalamus, hypothalamic sulcus

Front 12

posterior borders of hypothalamus

Back 12

mammillary bodies

Front 13

anterior borders of hypothalamus

Back 13

anterior commissure, lamina terminalis and optic chiasm

Front 14

which portion of hypothalamus is better organized into nuclei?

Back 14

medial

Front 15

What are the anterior region nuclei?

Back 15

Preoptic, suprachiasmatic, supraoptic, paraventricular, sexually dimorphic area

Front 16

What are the tuberal region nuclei? Where is tuberal region?

Back 16

middle region, superior to tuber cinereum.

Contains dorsomedial and ventromedial hypothalamus, lateral area, and arcuate nucleus

Front 17

What are the posterior region nuclei?

Back 17

Most caudal region.

Contains posterior hypothalamic area and mammillary complex

Front 18

Where are the releasing factors for endocrine system released from?

Back 18

preoptic, paraventricular, and arcuate nuclei

Front 19

twice as large in males as in females
correlated to higher testosterone levels.
lesions of SDN (rodents) disrupts male copulatory behavior

Back 19

sexually dimorphic nucleus

Front 20

Where is sexually dimorphic nucleus in hypothalamus?

Back 20

Within preoptic area

Front 21

Which neurons produce oxytocin and vasopressin?

Back 21

supraoptic and paraventricular n.

Front 22

Which nucleus lies above the optic chiasm and is thought to be responsible for biological rhythms?

Back 22

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

Front 23

Destruction of what causes diabetes insipidus?

Back 23

supraoptic and paraventricular n. (they make ADH)

Front 24

What autonomic functions does the hypothalamus regulate?

Back 24

Body temperature
Metabolic Rate
Feeding
Reproduction

Front 25

What autonomic functions do the posterior and anterior n. regulate?

Back 25

Temp and cardiovascular regulation

Front 26

Posterior nuclei stimulate ___________ NS while anterior nuclei stimulate ________.

Back 26

Sympathetic; Parasympathetic

Front 27

vasodilation and heat loss are stimulated by what nuclei?

Back 27

These are parasympathetic functions, so the anterior n stimulate them

Front 28

vasoconstriction and heat conservation are stimulated by what nuclei?

Back 28

These are sympathetic functions, so the posterior n stimulate them

Front 29

What nucleus is the "satiety center," when if lesioned, result in hypothalamic obesity

Back 29

Ventromedial n

Front 30

Which nucleus has the glucoreceptors?

Back 30

Ventromedial n

Front 31

What is the hunger or feeding center, when if lesioned, results in anorexia/starvation?

Back 31

Lateral nucleus

Front 32

Destruction of posterior nucleus leads to:

Back 32

inability to thermoregulate

Front 33

Destruction of anterior nucleus leads to:

Back 33

hyperthermia

Front 34

Which nuclei responsible for food intake regulation?

Back 34

Dorsomedial, ventromedial and lateral nuclei

Front 35

Lesions result in
voracious appetite,
obesity and rage

Back 35

ventromedial n

Front 36

Stimulation
induces eating


Lesions lead to
loss of appetite

Back 36

lateral n

Front 37

leads to an
intense drive to eat which can never be
satisfied and rapid weight gain.

Back 37

leptin receptor deficiency

Front 38

Which nucleus contains leptin receptors

Back 38

lateral

Front 39

In Korsakoff's, which area of hypothalamus is implicated in anterograde amnesia?

Back 39

Medial mammillary nuclei

Front 40

What is the Papez circuit?

Back 40

one of the major pathways of the limbic system and is chiefly involved in the cortical control of emotion

Front 41

Originates in hippocampus and termiantes in mammillary complex

Back 41

fornix

Front 42

Ascending and descending fibers connecting septum, preoptic area, hypothalamus, and paramedian tegmentum

Back 42

Medial forebrain bundle

Front 43

Contains neurotransmitter pathways that traffic thru the hypothalamus in route to higher levels

Back 43

medial forebrain bundle

Front 44

Connects amygdala and hypothalamus (both afferent and efferent fibers)

Back 44

Stria terminalis and ansa peduncularis

Front 45

Where do retinal fibers go in hypothalamus and why?

Back 45

Involved in circadian rhthyms.
Goes to suprachiasmatic and supraoptic nuclei

Front 46

small cell groups in the lateral pontine reticular formation gives rise to a substantial noradrenergic input into hypothalamic nuclei

Back 46

ventral NE bundle

Front 47

GVA and SVA (taste)
fibers which ascend from n. solitarius and
terminates primarily in
the mammillary complex

Back 47

mammillary peduncle. Afferent from medulla

Front 48

What is pathway of mammillothalamic tract?

Back 48

Goes from mam. body--> Anterior thalamic nucleus --> hippocampus

Front 49

What are the efferents from hypothalamus to thalamus and tegmentum

Back 49

Mammillothalamic Tract (Papez circuit)
Mammillotegmental Tract

Front 50

Fibers from hypothalamus descend thru the periaqueductal gray of the midbrain and periventricular gray of pons/medulla

Back 50

dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

Front 51

travels in the periaqueductal
gray route to:

brainstem parasympathetic
autonomic nuclei
(n. solitarius) and
spinal cord IMLCC

Back 51

dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

Front 52

Hypothalamal-Hypophyseal tract goes to______________

Back 52

posterior pituitary

Front 53

Hypothalameal-Hypophyseal portal system goes to__________

Back 53

anterior pituitary

Front 54

synthesize releasing factors for all anterior hypophysis hormones (except prolactin)

Back 54

Neurons in the paraventricular
Preoptic and arcuate nuclei

Front 55

Definition of conjugate:

Back 55

both eyes move together in same direction

Front 56

Definition of disconjugate:

What is only eye movement that is disconjugate/disjunctive?

Back 56

Eyes move in the opposite direction. Happens in convergence

Front 57

When pupillary changes are involved, what brain region is integral?

Back 57

pretectum

Front 58

For every type of eye movement, what is the final common pathway?

Back 58

Originates from the <b>extraocular motor nuclei</b>, eg., oculomotor, trochlear, or abducens

Front 59

What eye movement's main function is to bring objects of interest onto the fovea?

Back 59

saccades: quick movements

Front 60

What eye movement's main function is to hold the image of a moving target on the fovea?

Back 60

Smooth pursuit

Front 61

What eye movement's main function is to hold images steady on retina during head rotation?

Back 61

vestibular

Front 62

What eye movement's main function is to hold images steady on retina during sustained head rotation/track moving objects?

Back 62

optokinetic

Front 63

What eye movement's main function is to move eyes in opposite directions so that the images of an object are placed simultaneously in both retinas?

Back 63

convergence

Front 64

What eye muscles and what CNs move eye upwards?

Back 64

Superior rectus, inferior oblique (CN III)

Front 65

What eye muscles and what CNs move eye downward?

Back 65

Inferior rectus (CN III), Superior oblique (CN IV)

Front 66

What eye muscles and what CNs move eye horizonal (adduct)?

Back 66

Medial rectus (CN III)

Front 67

What eye muscles and what CNs move eye horizonal (abduct)?

Back 67

Lateral rectus (CN VI)

Front 68

oculomotor nucleus contains separate motor neuron cell groups that innervate what specific extraocular muscles?

Back 68

Medial rectus, inferior oblique, superior rectus, inferior rectus, levator palpebrae

Front 69

What are the two subdivisions of Oculomotor complex?

Back 69

1) Principal oculomotor nucleus: GSE division containing motor neurons innervating EO muscles.

2) Edinger-Westphal: GVE autonomic portion. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that synapse in ciliary ganglion and distributed to sphincter pupillae m. and ciliary body

Front 70

What does the Edinger-Westphal nucleus innervate?

Back 70

Goes to ciliary ganglion --> *SYNAPSE* to become postganglionic parasympathetic --> go to <b>sphincter pupillae m. and ciliary body</b>

Front 71

What does trochlear nucleus innervate?

Back 71

Superior oblique m

Front 72

What are the 2 populations of neurons in the abducens nucleus?

Back 72

1) Ipsilateral lateral rectus motor neurons

2) Contralateral medial rectus motor neurons - called "Internuclear neurons." Cross and ascend via medial longitudinal fasciulus to contralateral oculomotor nucleus

Front 73

What are the internuclear fibers of abducens nucleus?

Back 73

These neurons cross the midline and ascend in contralateral medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) to the medial rectus motor neurons in the contralateral oculomotor nucleus.

Front 74

What sx would a lesion of one abducens nucleus produce?

Back 74

ipsilateral LR paralysis and contralateral medial rectus paralysis --> ipsilateral paralysis of horizontal eye movement

Front 75

are extremely fast, occurring within a fraction of a second, at speeds up to 900 degrees/s.

Can be voluntary or reflexive.

Back 75

saccades

Front 76

Voluntary saccadic eye movements are initiated in the _____

Back 76

frontal eye field. (FEF)
It's part ofthe middle frontal gyrus.

Front 77

Reflexive saccadic eye movements are initiated in the ______

Back 77

superior colliculus

Front 78

Where do the frontal eye field and superior colliculus project to?

Back 78

preoculomotor centers in brainstem reticular formation

Front 79

What are the superior colliculus efferents? What is the overall effect?

Back 79

Tectobulbars: to brainstem pre-oculomotor centers

Tectospinals: to cervical spinal cord (neck muscle motor neurons)

So the overall effect is to TURN EYES AND HEAD TO DIRECTION OF INTEREST

Front 80

T/F Lesions of either brainstem region are differentiated on the basis of oculomotor deficits in vertical vs. horizontal eye movements.

Back 80

T

Front 81

For vertical saccades- ____;
For horizontal saccades- ____

Back 81

rostral iMLF and INC (midbrain) ; PPRF (pons)

Front 82

rostral interstitial nucleus of the Medial longitudinal fasciculus (Rostral iMLF) related to control of _______ gaze

Back 82

downward

Front 83

Interstitial nucleus of Cajal (INC) with the rostral MLF is related to control of ______ gaze

Back 83

upward

Front 84

What does gaze consist of?

Back 84

Eye AND head movement

Front 85

contains premotor neurons that project to cell groups in the oculomotor nuclei (superior rectus and inferior oblique) for vertical upward eye movements

Back 85

interstitial nucleus of Cajal

Front 86

center for horizontal saccades

Back 86

paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)

Front 87

PPRF contains neurons that project to (contra,ipsilateral )abducens n as well as cervical spinal cord.

Back 87

ipsilateral

Front 88

lesions of PPRF result in _______

Back 88

paralysis of ipsilateral conjugate horizontal gaze

Front 89

T/F the FEF and SC both project to centers for vertical and horizontal gaze in brainstem reticular formation

Back 89

T

Front 90

T/F Smooth pursuit can be both voluntary and involuntary

Back 90

F. It requires presence of an object to tract (can't just imagine tracking an object)

Front 91

A map of the visual field is represented in the ____ layer of the superior colliculus.

Back 91

superficial

Front 92

The _____ layer of superior colliculus is integrative; receives input from the FEF, cerebellum & substantia nigra, affecting motor output in deep layer.

Back 92

intermediate

Front 93

The ___ layer of the superior colliculus is “motor” and is in registry with the visual map in the superficial layer; gives rise to tectobulbars & tectospinals

Back 93

deep

Front 94

The FEF has reciprocal connections with the ______ when “attention” requires a voluntary saccade

Back 94

posterior parietal cortex

Front 95

Lesions of the ____ produce only transient damage to the saccadic system because the direct projection from the FEF to the brainstem gaze centers is intact.

Back 95

SC

Front 96

Lesions of the ___ recover because the SC is intact.

Back 96

FEF

Front 97

Lesions of BOTH the FEF and SC cause what?

Back 97

But lesions of both FEF and SC permanently damages the ability to make saccades.

Front 98

What area in preoccipital cortex are involved in the “analysis of visual motion” and gives rise to corticopontine projections to the dorsolateral basilar pontine nuclei.

Back 98

Middle temporal (MT) and Medial superior temporal (MST) areas

Front 99

What is the pathway/neural network of smooth pursuit?

Back 99

Retina --> LGN --> Visual Cortex --> MT Visual area --> Dorsolateral basilar pontine n. --> Cerebellar vermis (oculomotor vermis) of posteriolr lobe of cerebellum

Front 100

Compensatory eye movement that replicates a head movement but in the opposite direction

Back 100

vestibular ocular reflex

Front 101

What's the neural pathway for optokinetic eye movements?

Back 101

Retina --> pretectum --> nucleus reticularis tegmenti pontis (NRTP) --> cerebellar flocculus

Front 102

It yokes the cranial nerve nuclei III (Oculomotor nerve), IV (Trochlear nerve) and VI (Abducens nerve) together, and integrates movements directed by the gaze centers (frontal eye field) and information about head movement (from cranial nerve VIII, Vestibulocochlear nerve). It is an integral component of saccadic eye movements as well as vestibulo-ocular and optokinetic reflexes.

Back 102

MLF

Front 103

MLF: defn

Back 103

a pair of crossed fiber tracts (group of axons), one on each side of the brainstem. These bundles of axons are situated near the midline of the brainstem and are composed of both ascending and descending fibers that arise from a number of sources and terminate in different areas.

Front 104

Components of near response

Back 104

1) Convergence
2) Pupillary constriction
3) Lens thickening/accomodation

Front 105

optokinetic nystagmus, OKN: defn

Back 105

When the visual scene is moving, maintaining fixation on an object (eg. riding on a train, following telephone poles) requires oscillating eye movements which consist of a slow component that follows the object and then a fast component where eyes snap back to look at the next pole

Front 106

Lesions of what structures can produce Optokinetic nystagmus (OKN) deficits?

Back 106

Pretectum, nucleus reticularis tegmenti pontis (NRTP), flocculonodular cortex

Front 107

Why is convergence preserved in an MLF lesion?

Back 107

The pathway for convergence to produce bilateral contraction of the medial rectus muscles DOES NOT involve the MLF

Front 108

Sx of oculomotor n or nucleus lesion

Back 108

1) Ptosis (paralysis of levator palpebrae)

2) Exotropia - ipsilateral abduction/outward gaze due to paralysis of medial rectus (lateral rectus is now unopposed)

3) Mydriasis: dilated pupil become disruption of innervation of pupillary constrictors

Front 109

Sx of abducens nerve lesion

Back 109

Esotropic - Lateral rectus is paralyzed. Medial rectus is unopposed. Will be especially prominent when subject is instructed to look in the direction the lesion is on (ie trying to make subject look to right with right-sided lesion. eye will not abduct)

Front 110

Sx of abducens nucleus lesion

Back 110

Paralysis of ipsilateral conjugate horizontal eye movements.

This is because a lesion to the nucleus will affect both efferents - the ipsilateral ones innervating the lateral rectus, and the fibers that go thru the MLF to the contralateral side to innervate the contralateral oculomotor nucleus (that innervates contralateral medial rectus to produce conjugate gaze)

Front 111

Sx of a Left MLF lesion

Back 111

internuclear ophthalmoplegia, INO.

Inability to to adduct ipsilateral eye (interstitial fibers of abducens run here). Convergence still intact. Nystagmus also present.

Front 112

Sx of PPRF lesion

Back 112

ipsilateral paralysis of conjugate horizontal gaze (eye + head movement).

Front 113

Sx of R Frontal Eye Field lesion

Back 113

results in a paralysis of conjugate eye movements to the left. The eyes are deviated to the right (toward side of lesion).

This is because it disrupts FEF projections to contralateral PPRF

Front 114

Medial systems are associated with _____ control while lateral systems are associated with ______ control

Back 114

postural; distal extremity

Front 115

T/F Lower motor neurons of the visceral motor system are located outside of the CNS

Back 115

T. In autonomic ganglia or a neural plexus very near or in target organ

Front 116

Location of sympathetic preganglionic neurons

Back 116

Preganglionic neurons located in the intermediolateral cell column of the thoracolumbar spinal cord (T1-L2/3)

Front 117

Location of sympathetic postganglionic neurons and synapse.

Back 117

Postganglionic neurons (lower MNs) reside in para- or prevertebral ganglia. (this is where they synapse)

Front 118

What neurotransmitter is used by A) preganglionic and B) postganglionic sympathetic neurons?

Back 118

A) ACh
B) NE

Front 119

Paravertebral ganglia = ______;

Prevertebral ganglia = _______

Back 119

sympathetic chain ganglia; celiac, mesenteric and pelvic plexus ganglia

Front 120

Both preganglionic parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons use what NT?

Back 120

ACh

Front 121

NT used for postganglionic parasympathetic

Back 121

ACh

Front 122

For each target organ, what is
A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

EYE

Back 122

A) Upper thoracic spinal cord
B) Superior cervical ganglion
C) Pupillary Dilation

Front 123

For each target organ, what is
A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

LACRIMAL GLAND

Back 123

A) Upper thoracic spinal cord
B) Superior cervical ganglion
C) Tearing

Front 124

For each target organ, what is
A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

SUBMANDIBULAR AND SUBLINGUAL GLANDS

Back 124

A) Upper thoracic spinal cord
B) Superior cervical ganglion
C) Vasoconstriction

Front 125

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

PAROTID GLAND

Back 125

A) Upper thoracic spinal cord
B) Superior cervical ganglion
C) Vasoconstriction

Front 126

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

HEAD/NECK blood vessels, sweat glands, piloerector muscles

Back 126

A) Upper thoracic spinal cord
B) Superior cervical ganglion
C) Sweating, vasoconstriction, piloerection

Front 127

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

UPPER EXTREMITY

Back 127

A) T3-T6
B) Stellate and upper thoracic ganglia
C) Sweat secretion, vasoconstriction, piloerection

Front 128

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

HEART

Back 128

A) Middle thoracic spinal cord
B) upper thoracic ganglia, superior cervical ganglia
C) Increased HR, SV, dilation of coronary arteries

Front 129

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

BRONCHI, LUNGS

Back 129

A) Middle thoracic spinal cord
B) Upperthoracic ganglia
C) Vasodilation, bronchial dilation

Front 130

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

STOMACH, PANCREAS, INTESTINE

Back 130

A) Lower thoracic spinal cord
B) Celiac and SMA and IMA ganglion
C) Inhibition

Front 131

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic sympathetic neurons
C) Actions

ADRENAL GLAND

Back 131

A) T9-L2
B) Cells of gland are modified neurons
C) Catecholamine (EPI, NE) secretion

Front 132

Long preganglionic and short postganglionic are characteristic of what system?

Back 132

parasympathetic

Front 133

Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons located where?

Back 133

the intermediolateral gray of sacral spinal cord and brain stem motor nuclei.

Front 134

Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons (lower MNs) reside in ______. These neurons generally lack dendrites.

Back 134

ganglia within or near target tissues.

Front 135

Whereas most tissue receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation, some DO NOT receive _____

Back 135

parasympathetic innervation

Front 136

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

EYE

Back 136

A) Edinger-westphal nucleus (fibers carried on CN III)
B) ciliary ganglion
C) Pupillary constriction

Front 137

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

LACRIMAL GLAND

Back 137

A) Superior salivatory nucleus (carried on CN VII)
B) Pterygopalatine ganglion
C) Secretion of tears

Front 138

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

Submandibular/sublingual glands

Back 138

A) Superior salivatory nucleus (Carried on CN VII)
B) Submandibular ganglion
C) Secretion of saliva, vasodilation

Front 139

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

Parotid gland

Back 139

A) Inferior salivatory nucleus (Carried on CN IX)
B) Otic ganglion
C) Secretion of saliva

Front 140

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

HEART

Back 140

A) Dorsal motor nucleus and nucleus ambiguus (of vagus)
B) Cardiac plexus
C) Reduced HR

Front 141

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

BRONCHI, LUNGS

Back 141

A) Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus
B) Pulmonary plexus
C) Bronchial constriction, secretion

Front 142

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

Stomach, pancreas, ascending small intestine and transverse large intestine

Back 142

A) Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus
B) Myenteric and submucosal plexi, mostly
C) Movement and Secretion

Front 143

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

Descending large intestine, rectum, sigmoid

Back 143

A) S3-S4 (NOT vagus)
B) Myenteric and submucosal plexi, mostly
C) Movement and Secretion

Front 144

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

Adrenal gland

Back 144

NONE. Sympathetic innervation ONLY.

Front 145

For each target organ, what is

A) Location of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B) Location of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C) Actions

Lower extremity

Back 145

NONE. Sympathetic innervation ONLY.

Front 146

What NTs does the enteric nervous system use?

Back 146

A much wider arrayof NTs.

Front 147

T/F Enteric NS requires coordination from higher neural centers

Back 147

F

Front 148

Myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus regulates _______

Back 148

musculature of gut

Front 149

Submucus (Meissner’s) plexus monitors ________

Back 149

chemical composition and glandular secretion

Front 150

provides feedback to modulate moment-to-moment visceral motor activity. This includes both reflex modulation or modulation controlled by higher order centers

Back 150

Visceral sensation (GVA)

Front 151

Central brain structure that receives visceral sensory info and distributes it accordingly

Back 151

nucleus of solitary tract

Front 152

Carotid body reflex (pCO2), carotid sinus reflexes (blood pressure), Gag reflex


--associated with what CN?

Back 152

IX

Front 153

Aortic sinus reflex (blood pressure), Cough and vomiting reflexes

--associated with what CN?

Back 153

X

Front 154

What is the distribution of visceral sensory info by the nucleus of the solitary tract to serve either local reflexes or more complex hormonal/behavior reflexes?

Back 154

1)Visceral motor response: Visceral sensory input to N. of Solitary Tract --> preganglionic neurons --> visceral motor response

2) Hormonal and behavioral response:

Visceral sensory input --> N of Solitary Tract --> Medial/Ventral Forebrain --> Horonal and Behavioral response

Front 155

Neurons in the solitary nucleus relay information to a network of interconnected higher order centers (Central Autonomic Network).
What are these areas?

Back 155

reticular formation, hypothalamus, amygdala, insular cortex (sensory info) and medial prefrontal cortex (motor control)

Front 156

What is the response to a rise in blood pressure?

Back 156

1) Baroreceptors in carotid body (CN IX) or aortic arch (CN X) are carried in CN fibers.

2) These converge to N of Solitary Tract.

3) From here they inhibit tonic activity of preganglionic sympathetic efferents on SA node.

4) They also activate pre-ganglionic parasymp neurons in nucleus ambiguus that increases cholinergic release on pacemaker cells in SA node. (via CN X)

Front 157

_______ innervation controls bladder musculature and bladder emptying.

________activity causes the internal urethral sphincter to close

Back 157

Parasympathetic : Sympathetic

Front 158

mild to moderate distention of mechanoreceptors in bladder wall stimulates _______ and inhibits _____

Back 158

sympathetics ; parasympathetics

Front 159

when the bladder is full, ______ fibers become activated and __________activity is inhibited

Back 159

parasympathetics; sympathetics

Front 160

When the bladder is full and ready to be emptied (sympathetics inhibited, parasympathetics stimulated), what prevents automatic urination?

Back 160

emptying of the bladder is constantly prevented by tonic activity of somatic motor axons innervating the external sphincter

Front 161

______ sphincter is under voluntary control while the ____ sphincter is under sympathetic autonomic control.

Back 161

External urinary; Internal urinary

Front 162

What is the urination pathway?

Back 162

1) GVA fibers synapse onto spinal cord neurons that project to midbrain periaqueductal gray areas (MPG).

2) MPG also receives input from limbic forebrain that tells it if it's acceptable to urinate (already voluntary vs autonomic control)

3) Integrative signals from MPG activate micturition centers in the pontine reticular formation. This center activates parasympathetic neurons and inhibits BOTH sympathetic and somatic motor neuron activity, so external and internal sphincters are relaxed and bladder muscle contracts (parasympathetic).

Front 163

What causes Horner syndrome?

Back 163

Damage to sympathetic ns (intermediolateral cell column, sympathetic chain ganglia, etc)

Front 164

Sx of Horner syndrome

Back 164

Ptosis (drooping eyelid); miosis, sunken eye (enophthalmos); anhidrosis

Front 165

What causes ptosis in horner syndrome?

Back 165

Impairment of sympathetic innervation of superior tarsal muscle that lifts the eye lid --> drooping eye lids

Front 166

What causes miosis in horner syndrome?

Back 166

Impairment of sympathetic innervation of radial iris muscles that dilate pupil

Front 167

What causes anhidrosis in horner syndrome?

Back 167

Impairment of sympathetic innervation to constrict blood vessels in skin

Front 168

Sx of Adie's Tonic Pupil Syndrome

Back 168

single dilated eye and ipsilateral hyperopia (farsightedness) but no visual field deficits

Front 169

Causes of Adie's Tonic Pupil syndrome

Back 169

Damage to postganglionic parasympathetics (goes from ciliary ganglion to intrinsic eye muscles)

Front 170

Sx of Reynaud's

Back 170

vasospasm of skin of digits --> whitening and cold in skin

Front 171

Pathophys of Reynauds. And Tx

Back 171

malfunction leading to overactivity of sympathetic innervation to vasculature within the skin. Tx is preganglionic sympathectomy

Front 172

What Visceral Motor System functions are lost in a quadriplegic patient with a complete sever of their C5 Spinal Cord?

Back 172

Sympathetic functions not subserved by cervical or stellate ganglia

Also:
Everything carried by the sacral system - fecal and urinary continence, sexual function

Front 173

What Visceral Motor System functions are lost in a quadriplegic patient with a complete sever of their L3 Spinal Cord?

Back 173

Everything carried by the sacral system - fecal and urinary continence, sexual function

Front 174

cause of peptic ulcer disease

Back 174

from excessive parasympathetic stimulation